KPSC Departmental Exams - Environmental Eng/AEO 2017 — Paper 2 - Specific Paper
All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Environment, Biology, Physics, Chemistry, Physical Geography (World), Indian Polity.
Q1Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
One that is not a type of a noise is
A.
Rayleigh noise
B.
Gamma noise
C.
Exponential noise
D.
Black noise
Correct
Explanation
In digital image/signal processing, the standard set of statistical noise models includes Gaussian, Rayleigh, Gamma (Erlang), Exponential, Uniform and Impulse (salt-and-pepper) noise; 'black noise' is a colloquial acoustic term (near-silence with rare bursts), not one of these standard statistical noise distributions.
Q2Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
When the total hardness of water as CaCO3 is in the range between 40 mg/l and 100 mg/l, then the water is classified as
A.
Very hard
B.
Moderately hard
Correct
C.
Hard
D.
Extremely hard
Explanation
Using the common water-hardness classification (as CaCO3): under 50 mg/l is soft, 50-100 mg/l is moderately hard, 100-200 mg/l is hard, and above 200 mg/l is very hard, so 40-100 mg/l falls in the moderately hard range.
Q3Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The ultimate Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BODu) of the wastewater can be determined using the equation
A.
BODt=L0(1−e−kt)
Correct
B.
BODt=L0e−kt
C.
BOD5=K20heta(T−20)
D.
BOD5=P(DOf−DOi)
Explanation
The first-order BOD exertion model gives the BOD exerted up to time t as BODt = L0(1 - e^-kt), where L0 is the ultimate BOD; rearranging shows L0 (BODu) is obtained from this same relationship.
Q4Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The design of a sedimentation tank is not a function of depth, but it is a function of
A.
Surface loading rate
Correct
B.
Temperature
C.
Influent turbidity concentration
D.
Viscosity of water
Explanation
Sedimentation tanks are designed based on the surface loading (overflow) rate, since settling depends on the area available for particles to settle out per unit flow, not on tank depth.
The "Safe Drinking Water Act" was amended by USEPA in the year
A.
1982
B.
1996
Correct
C.
1974
D.
2001
Explanation
The Safe Drinking Water Act was originally enacted in 1974, not amended then, so it doesn't answer a question about an amendment year. Congress substantially amended the Act in 1986 and again in 1996; since 1986 isn't offered as a choice, 1996 (option B) is the correct amendment year among these options — the 1996 Amendments overhauled the Act with the Contaminant Candidate List and source-water assessment programs. The original marking of 1974 confused the enactment year with an amendment year.
Q6Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Effect of excess amount of fluoride in drinking water leads to
A.
Dental fluorosis
Correct
B.
Damage of nerves
C.
Damage of the retina of eye
D.
None of the above
Explanation
Chronic ingestion of excess fluoride in drinking water damages tooth enamel, causing dental fluorosis (mottling and staining of teeth); at much higher levels it can also cause skeletal fluorosis.
Q7Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The main objective of providing "Trickling filter" in domestic wastewater treatment is to remove
A.
Organics present in the wastewater
Correct
B.
Oxygen present in the wastewater
C.
Only toxic metals from wastewater
D.
Iron present in the wastewater
Explanation
A trickling filter is a fixed-film biological reactor where microorganisms growing on the filter media metabolize and remove the organic (biodegradable) matter present in domestic wastewater.
Q8Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In order to remove oil and grease from the petroleum industrial wastewaters, the recommended treatment unit is
A.
Grit chamber
B.
Activated sludge process
C.
Sedimentation tank
D.
Skimming tank
Correct
Explanation
A skimming tank uses the density difference between water and oil/grease to let the lighter oil and grease float to the surface, where it is skimmed off before further treatment.
Q9Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The treatment process that can operate both in the presence or absence of oxygen in the biological reactors is known as
A.
Anaerobic process
B.
Anoxic process
C.
Aerobic process
D.
Facultative process
Correct
Explanation
A facultative process is one where the microorganisms involved can survive and carry out treatment both in the presence and in the absence of dissolved oxygen, unlike strictly aerobic or strictly anaerobic processes.
Q10Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Under non-inhibition range of pollutant concentration, the specific growth rate of the bacteria can be determined using Monod's equation as
A.
μ=Yμmax
B.
μ=S+KsμmaxS
Correct
C.
μ=μmaxS+Ks+KiS2S
D.
Rsu=KimesSK+S
Explanation
Monod's equation for specific bacterial growth rate in the non-inhibitory range is μ = μmax·S/(S + Ks), where S is substrate concentration and Ks is the half-saturation constant.
Q11Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In the sewage treatment plant the head loss through the screens can be calculated using the empirical relationship as
A.
hL=β(bW)4/3hvsinθ
Correct
B.
hf=2gdflV2
C.
hm=2gKV2
D.
hm=2gKV2+hv
Explanation
The head loss through bar screens is commonly estimated using the Kirschmer equation, hL = β(W/b)^(4/3)·hv·sinθ, which accounts for bar shape, spacing, approach velocity head and the angle of the screen.
Q12Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In India the commonly used chemical coagulant in the drinking water treatment plant is
A.
Al2(SO4)3.H2O
Correct
B.
FeSO4.7H2O
C.
Fe2(SO4)3
D.
FeCl3
Explanation
Aluminium sulphate (alum, Al2(SO4)3·xH2O) is the most widely used and economical coagulant in Indian drinking water treatment plants for destabilizing and settling suspended colloidal matter.
The effluent standards for BOD5 of industrial wastewater to dispose on land is
A.
80 mg/l
B.
30 mg/l
C.
100 mg/l
Correct
D.
450 mg/l
Explanation
Under India's General Standards for Discharge of Environmental Pollutants (Environment Protection Rules), the permissible BOD5 limit for industrial wastewater disposed on land for irrigation is 100 mg/l.
Q14Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In the water treatment process, chlorine is added to water to remove
A.
Non-pathogenic bacteria
B.
Yeast
C.
Pathogenic bacteria
Correct
D.
Fungi
Explanation
Chlorination in water treatment is primarily done for disinfection — killing pathogenic (disease-causing) bacteria and other microorganisms to make the water safe for consumption.
Q15Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Eutrophication of lakes around the urban centres is mainly due to addition of
A.
Oxygen into water body
B.
Nutrient into water body
Correct
C.
Phenol into water body
D.
Benzene into water body
Explanation
Eutrophication near urban centres results from excess nutrients (mainly nitrogen and phosphorus from sewage and runoff) entering water bodies, which triggers excessive algal growth.
Q16Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
To predict the potential infiltration problem in irrigation fields, Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) has to be determined using the equation
A.
SAR=Na(Ca+Mg)/2
B.
SAR=Na20Ca+Mg
C.
RNa=(Cax+Mg)/2Na
D.
SAR=(Ca+Mg)/2Na
Correct
Explanation
The Sodium Adsorption Ratio, used to assess the sodium-hazard/infiltration risk of irrigation water, is defined as SAR = Na / √[(Ca + Mg)/2], with concentrations expressed in meq/l.
A documented Environmental Management System (EMS) that is fully implemented and constantly followed
B.
Not a technical product standard
C.
Applicable to all types and sizes of organization and accommodates diverse geographical, cultural and social conditions
D.
All of the above
Correct
Explanation
ISO 14001 is a documented Environmental Management System standard that must be fully implemented and continually followed, is not a product standard, and is applicable to organizations of any type, size or geographic/cultural setting.
Ambient Air Quality Standards, as prescribed in the Environmental Protection Third Amendment Rules (1989), the noise level in residential area during day and night time should be
A.
55 dB and 45 dB
Correct
B.
75 dB and 70 dB
C.
50 dB and 70 dB
D.
65 dB and 55 dB
Explanation
Under India's ambient noise standards (Noise Pollution Rules, framed under the Environment Protection Act), the permissible noise level in residential areas is 55 dB(A) during the day and 45 dB(A) at night.
Q19Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Noise level is measured using the relationship
A.
dB=40×log10I0I
B.
dB=I0I
C.
dB=10log10I0I
Correct
D.
dB=10log10II0
Explanation
Sound/noise intensity level in decibels is calculated using the logarithmic relation dB = 10·log10(I/I0), where I0 is the reference intensity corresponding to the threshold of hearing.
In order to attain clean air, the EPA established the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in the year
A.
1977
B.
1988
C.
1970
Correct
D.
1996
Explanation
The US EPA established the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in 1970 under the Clean Air Act to set limits for criteria air pollutants.
Q21Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
In gravitational settling chamber the particles that are smaller than about 30 μm, with density much greater than air
A.
V=td
B.
V=N1R2/3S1/2
C.
Vh=f8g(ρs−ρp)d2
D.
V=18ηd2ρg
Correct
Explanation
For small, dense particles settling under gravity in laminar (Stokes) flow, the terminal settling velocity is given by V = d²ρg/18η, derived from Stokes' law balancing gravity, buoyancy and viscous drag.
Q22Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
When the environmental lapse rate is greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, then the atmosphere is said to be
A.
Simple adiabatic lapse rate
B.
Super adiabatic lapse rate
Correct
C.
Sub-adiabatic lapse rate
D.
Low adiabatic lapse rate
Explanation
When the environmental (actual) lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate, a rising air parcel stays warmer than its surroundings and keeps accelerating upward, a condition called the super-adiabatic (highly unstable) lapse rate.
Q23Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In the wastewater treatment plant the tube settler is used to remove
A.
BOD5 from wastewater
B.
Heavy metals from wastewater
C.
Organic contaminants from wastewater
D.
Suspended solids from wastewater
Correct
Explanation
Tube settlers increase the effective settling area within a sedimentation basin, improving the removal of suspended solids from wastewater before further treatment.
Q24Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Rapid mixing of waste water effluent with the river water can be achieved by adopting
A.
Bank outfall
B.
Single diffuser
C.
Single river middle outfall
D.
Multiple diffuser
Correct
Explanation
A multiple-port diffuser distributes effluent across the width/depth of the river through several openings, achieving much faster and more complete initial mixing than a single-point or bank outfall.
Q25Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In one-dimensional analysis of mixing zone studies, the basic assumption made will be
A.
Wastewater is mixed fully with the streamflow.
Correct
B.
River water temperature is assumed to be constant.
C.
Dissolved oxygen concentration in the river remains constant.
D.
Velocity of the water in the river remains constant.
Explanation
One-dimensional mixing-zone models assume that the wastewater becomes fully and uniformly mixed across the river's cross-section, simplifying the analysis to variation along the flow direction only.
The combustion of prepared Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) refusal in power plant boilers will
A.
Increase power production cost
B.
Achieve maximum heat recovery from MSW refuse
C.
Conserve non-renewable natural resources
D.
Both (1) and (2)
Correct
Explanation
Burning processed refuse (RDF) in power-plant boilers recovers useful heat from the waste, but because refuse-derived fuel is a less consistent, more corrosive fuel than coal, it also tends to raise operating and maintenance costs — so both effects occur together.
Identify the filling technique of disposal of Municipal Solid Waste in the sanitary landfill, in which a long narrow excavation is made in the earth and soil removed from this excavation is stock piled.
A.
Area method
B.
Trench method
Correct
C.
Ramp method
D.
Deep burial
Explanation
In the trench method of sanitary landfilling, a long narrow trench is excavated, the excavated soil is stockpiled alongside, and waste is placed in the trench and covered daily with this stockpiled soil.
During initial composting development, the predominate flora that is responsible for most metabolic activity is
A.
Mesophilic flora
Correct
B.
Thermophilic flora
C.
Natural flora
D.
All of the above
Explanation
In the early stage of composting, mesophilic microorganisms (thriving at moderate temperatures) dominate and drive most of the initial metabolic breakdown before the pile heats up and thermophiles take over.
Q29Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The Gaussian plume air pollutant dispersion model uses
A.
Ambient temperature
B.
The mixing length concept based on Eddy diffusion model
Correct
C.
The Stoke's law concept
D.
Darcy's law
Explanation
The Gaussian plume dispersion model represents the spreading of pollutants downwind using dispersion coefficients derived from the mixing-length/eddy-diffusivity concept of atmospheric turbulence.
In the process of composting of Municipal Solid Waste, thermophilic microorganisms are dominating in the range of temperature between
A.
25∘C and 45∘C
B.
10∘C and 18∘C
C.
45∘C and 70∘C
Correct
D.
85∘C and 92∘C
Explanation
As composting progresses, temperatures rise into the thermophilic range, roughly 45°C to 70°C, where heat-loving microorganisms dominate and accelerate decomposition and pathogen destruction.
Q31Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Air quality index range for moderate air pollution in the process of EIA is
A.
26 to 50
B.
0 to 25
C.
76 to 100
D.
51 to 75
Correct
Explanation
On the air-quality index scale commonly used in EIA studies (0-100 split into four bands of 25), the 51-75 range is classified as the 'moderate' pollution category.
Q32Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Chloroform causes renal toxicity in humans after
A.
2 to 3 hours of exposure
B.
100 hours of exposure
C.
24 to 48 hours of exposure
Correct
D.
8 to 10 hours of exposure
Explanation
Chloroform is a nephrotoxic and hepatotoxic solvent; its renal (kidney) toxicity typically manifests 24 to 48 hours after significant exposure, following its metabolism into reactive intermediates.
Q33Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Dust of which size range is a health hazard of producing, after variable periods of exposure, a lung disease known as pneumoconiosis?
A.
10 to 25 microns
B.
0.5 to 3 microns
Correct
C.
5 to 9 microns
D.
30 to 50 microns
Explanation
Fine respirable dust particles roughly in the 0.5 to 3 (up to about 5) micron range penetrate deep into the lung alveoli and, over prolonged exposure, cause fibrotic lung diseases collectively known as pneumoconiosis.
Q34Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Ventilation coefficient is a measure of atmospheric dispersion, capability of which can be expressed in terms of
A.
m2/sec
Correct
B.
m3/day
C.
m3/m2/day
D.
m/sec
Explanation
The ventilation coefficient, the product of average wind speed and mixing height, expresses the atmosphere's pollutant-dispersing capacity and is measured in units of m²/sec.
The disease “lymphatic filariasis”, covers infection with closely related microfilariae nematode worms. Identify which worms are responsible.
A.
Wuchereria bancrofti
B.
Brugia malayi
C.
Entamoeba hystolytica
D.
Both (1) and (2)
Correct
Explanation
Lymphatic filariasis in humans is caused by thread-like filarial nematodes, chiefly Wuchereria bancrofti (responsible for most cases) and Brugia malayi, both transmitted by mosquito bites.
What is the colour coding of bags used in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical waste?
A.
Black
B.
Yellow
Correct
C.
Red
D.
Blue
Explanation
Under India's Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, human anatomical waste is segregated into yellow-coloured bags/containers for incineration or deep burial.
Q37Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The major disadvantages of bag filters while collecting particulate matter from industrial flue gas is due to
A.
Large size and high construction cost
Correct
B.
Retention of particulate in dry form
C.
Retention of finest particle
D.
Relatively low pressure drop
Explanation
Fabric (bag) filters achieve very high particulate collection efficiency but require large housings with many bags and correspondingly high capital/construction costs compared to some other control devices.
Q38Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Water categorized as A II can be best suited for
A.
Unfiltered public water supply after approved disinfection
B.
Public water supply with approved treatment equal to coagulation, sedimentation and disinfection
Correct
C.
Not fit for human consumption, fish and wildlife propagation
D.
Fit for agriculture, industrial cooling and process water
Explanation
Under the water-quality classification scheme, Class A-II sources are those requiring conventional treatment equivalent to coagulation, sedimentation, filtration and disinfection before being used as public water supply.
Q39Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
__________ is used for taste and odour control in surface and ground water.
A.
Alum
B.
Potassium permanganate
Correct
C.
Trihalomethanes
D.
Ferric salts
Explanation
Potassium permanganate is commonly dosed in water treatment to oxidize taste- and odour-causing compounds (and control iron/manganese) in both surface and ground water.
Q40Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
During transportation of ground water to municipal pipelines, the purpose of adding ammonia is to
A.
Suppress the growth of iron bacteria in pipes and initiate oxidation of Fe and Mn
B.
Increase dissolved O2
C.
Remove Fe and Mn floc
D.
Convert free chlorine residual to combined chlorine residual
Correct
Explanation
Adding ammonia after chlorination converts free chlorine residual into combined (chloramine) residual, which persists longer in distribution pipelines and produces fewer disinfection by-products such as trihalomethanes.
Q41Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Eutrophication of lakes receiving sewage water can be retarded by removal of
A.
Suspended solids
B.
Phosphorus
Correct
C.
Refractory contaminants
D.
Organic nitrogenous compounds
Explanation
Phosphorus is usually the limiting nutrient for algal growth in freshwater lakes, so removing phosphorus from incoming sewage effectively slows down eutrophication.
Q42Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Deep trickling filters are also known as
A.
Rotating Biological contactors
B.
Biological towers
Correct
C.
Activated sludge process
D.
None of the above
Explanation
Deep, high-rate trickling filters packed with modern synthetic media are commonly called 'biological towers' because of their tall, tower-like structure.
Q43Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Full scale field pumping tests are carried out to evaluate
A.
Quantity of shallow well water
Correct
B.
Natural lakes
C.
Impounding reservoirs
D.
All of the above
Explanation
Full-scale field pumping tests are conducted on wells to determine aquifer characteristics and evaluate the safe yield (quantity) of water obtainable, typically from shallow wells.
Q44Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
A flow meter that establishes a relationship between the upper head 'h' and discharge 'Q' under free flowing conditions is
A.
Orifice meter
B.
Weir
C.
Parshall Flume
Correct
D.
Flow nozzle
Explanation
A Parshall flume is an open-channel flow measuring device that develops a fixed relationship between upstream head 'h' and discharge 'Q' under free-flow conditions.
Q45Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Anionic exchanger is used to remove _________ from boiler feed water.
A.
Sodium sulphite
B.
Hydrazine phosphate
C.
Soluble silica
Correct
D.
Suspended silica
Explanation
Strong-base anion exchange resins are used in boiler feed water treatment to remove dissolved (soluble) silica, which exists as a silicate anion and can otherwise deposit as hard scale on turbine blades.
Q46Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Persistent foam in polluted water streams is due to
A.
Non-biodegradable substances like alkyl benzene sulphonate
Correct
B.
Chlorine
C.
Phenol and cyanide
D.
All of the above
Explanation
Persistent foam in polluted streams historically resulted from non-biodegradable surfactants like alkyl benzene sulphonate (ABS) used in older detergent formulations, which resist microbial breakdown.
13 metals are treated as pollutants. Identify the metal which is not a pollutant.
A.
Mercury
B.
Arsenic
C.
Aluminium
Correct
D.
Lead
Explanation
The US EPA's list of 13 priority pollutant metals includes antimony, arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, nickel, selenium, silver, thallium and zinc — aluminium is not on this list.
Which one of the following is category-1 of Bio-medical waste in India?
A.
Human anatomical waste
Correct
B.
Animal waste
C.
Microbiological waste
D.
Discarded medicine
Explanation
Under India's Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998, Category 1 waste is defined as human anatomical waste (human tissues, organs, body parts).
Q49Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Ringelmann chart no. 2 corresponds to ________ % black smoke.
A.
10
B.
20
C.
40
Correct
D.
80
Explanation
On the Ringelmann smoke chart, which grades smoke opacity from 0 to 5 in steps of roughly 20%, chart No. 2 corresponds to about 40% black smoke density.
Q50Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Respiratory Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) is also designated as
A.
PM2.5
B.
PM5
C.
PM10
Correct
D.
PM25
Explanation
Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM), as used in Indian air-quality monitoring, refers to particles up to 10 microns in diameter and is also designated PM10.
Q51Physics › Nuclear & Modern Physics › Radioactivity Basics
Spent fuels generated in nuclear power plants contain plutonium-239, have a very long half-life period of the order of ________ years.
A.
1,000
B.
5,000
C.
24,000
Correct
D.
48,000
Explanation
Plutonium-239, a major constituent of spent nuclear fuel, has a half-life of about 24,100 years, making its long-term radioactive decay and storage a major nuclear waste management concern.
Q52Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Methamoglobinemia is due to the presence of excess of ________ in drinking water.
A.
Chlorides
B.
Nitrates
Correct
C.
Dissolved oxygen
D.
pH
Explanation
Methemoglobinemia ('blue baby syndrome') results from excess nitrate in drinking water, which is reduced to nitrite in the infant gut and oxidizes haemoglobin's iron, impairing oxygen transport.
a type of waste storage container used in “clean coal” plants
C.
a non-recyclable type of plastic
D.
a liquid that results when garbage substances in a landfill dissolve in water
Correct
Explanation
Leachate is the contaminated liquid formed when rainwater or moisture percolates through solid waste in a landfill, dissolving and carrying out pollutants from the decomposing garbage.
They dictate the amount of emissions certain manufacturing building can emit.
B.
They guide the design and certification for the construction of green and sustainable buildings.
Correct
C.
They are used to certify industries as environment friendly.
D.
They dictate whether a forest is being cut in a sustainable manner or not.
Explanation
LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) provides a rating and certification framework that guides the design and construction of green, resource-efficient and sustainable buildings.
Which of the following countries is the world's leader in innovative recycling?
A.
Brazil
B.
Canada
C.
Japan
Correct
D.
China
Explanation
Japan is widely regarded as a global leader in innovative recycling technologies and practices, driven by strict waste segregation laws and limited landfill space.
Incineration often is an undesirable process for managing our solid wastes because waste incinerators emit heavy metals (such as mercury) and some other pollutants. Pollution control devices typically remove hazardous gases from the smokestack. What is the residue from this pollution control process?
A.
Fly ash
Correct
B.
Activated sludge
C.
Bottom ash
D.
None of the above
Explanation
Air pollution control devices on incinerator stacks (such as fabric filters/ESPs) capture fine particulate and condensed pollutants from the flue gas as fly ash, distinct from the bottom ash left in the furnace.
EPR stands for Extended Producer/Product Responsibility, a policy approach that makes producers responsible for the environmental impacts of their products through their entire life cycle, including post-consumer disposal.
Soil contaminated with dioxins is subjected to thermal desorption treatment at
A.
450∘C
B.
500∘C
C.
550∘C
Correct
D.
600∘C
Explanation
Thermal desorption treatment for dioxin-contaminated soil is typically carried out at around 550°C, high enough to volatilize the dioxins for subsequent capture and destruction without full incineration of the soil matrix.
Q59Environment › International Environmental Efforts › UN Environmental Reports
The Basal Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal came into effect in
A.
1990
B.
1992
Correct
C.
2001
D.
2011
Explanation
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992.
Q60Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The air quality index for good category PM 10 (24 hr exposure period) is
A.
21 - 40
B.
00 - 50
Correct
C.
31 - 60
D.
00 - 30
Explanation
Under India's National Air Quality Index, the 'Good' category for PM10 (24-hour average) corresponds to the 0-50 µg/m³ range.
Q61Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
For the propagation of wildlife and fisheries, the free Ammonia content as N must be
A.
1.0 mg/l or less
B.
0.5 mg/l or less
C.
1.2 mg/l or less
Correct
D.
0.2 mg/l or less
Explanation
Per Indian CPCB water-quality tolerance limits for propagation of wildlife and fisheries, free ammonia (as N) should not exceed about 1.2 mg/l, since higher levels are toxic to aquatic life.
Q62Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The rain water criteria for E. coli based according to WHO is
A.
< 20 cfu / 100 ml
B.
< 10 cfu / 100 ml
Correct
C.
< 50 cfu / 100 ml
D.
< 100 cfu / 100 ml
Explanation
WHO guidance for harvested rainwater intended for drinking sets a benchmark of less than 10 CFU of E. coli per 100 ml to indicate acceptably low faecal contamination.
According to Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, Ministry of Agriculture shall
A.
Make flexible Fertilizer Control Order, promote utilization of compost, testing facility for compost and issue guidelines
Correct
B.
Promote utilization of compost and establish testing facility for compost
C.
Assist in market development for city compost and make it available to farmers
D.
Facilitate infrastructure for waste-to-energy plants
Explanation
Under Rule 11 of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Agriculture's duties on compost are a bundled set: providing flexibility in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) for the manufacture and sale of city compost, promoting/propagating compost use on farmland, setting up or authorising laboratories to test compost quality, and issuing guidelines on the ratio of compost to chemical fertiliser use — this matches option A precisely. The market-development-assistance (subsidy) role for city compost described in option C is instead a distinct duty assigned to the Department of Fertilizers under the same rule, not the Ministry of Agriculture.
Q64Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In a flash mixer, Alum acts upon the sludge to facilitate the settling of
A.
Particulate matter
B.
Suspended solids
Correct
C.
Calcium and Magnesium
D.
Both suspended solids and particulate matter
Explanation
In a flash mixer, alum reacts to form flocs that entrap fine suspended solids, making them heavier so they settle out readily in the following sedimentation stage.
According to Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989, waste under Category No. 9 includes
A.
Paints, pigments, glue, varnish and printing ink
B.
Dyes and dye intermediates containing organic chemical compounds
Correct
C.
Pesticides and herbicides and their residues from formulation units
D.
Containers and container linears of hazardous and toxic wastes
Explanation
The Schedule to the Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 explicitly lists Waste Category No. 8 as 'wastes from dyes and dye-intermediates containing inorganic chemical compounds' and Waste Category No. 9 as 'wastes from dyes and dye-intermediates containing organic chemical compounds' (each with its own regulatory quantity threshold calculated as organic vs. inorganic chemicals). This confirms option B as the correct match for Category 9.
According to the National Lake Conservation Plan, the size of the lakes generally considered for conservation is
A.
5 Ha
B.
10 Ha
Correct
C.
5 Ha
D.
10 Ha
Explanation
Under the National Lake Conservation Plan, lakes with a water-spread area of around 10 hectares or more are generally taken up for conservation and management interventions.
Q67Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the target for outdoor bathing is
A.
Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 500 (max. permissible), or less (desirable)
Correct
B.
Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 1000 (max. permissible), or 100 (desirable)
C.
Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 500 (max. permissible), or 50 (desirable)
D.
Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 100 (max. permissible), or 10 (desirable)
Explanation
The Central Pollution Control Board's primary water quality criteria for outdoor bathing require total coliform levels (MPN/100 ml) of 500 or less, with lower values being desirable.
Achieving and maintaining the environmental policy
D.
Planning activities, procedures and processes
Explanation
ISO 14001 (environmental management) and ISO 9000 (quality management) share the same generic management-system structure — plan, implement, check, review — despite covering different subject areas.
ISO 14031 is the international standard specifically dealing with Environmental Performance Evaluation, providing guidance on how organizations can assess their environmental performance.
Q70Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The consequence of discharge of endocrine disruptors into waste water results in
A.
Intersex among roaches and snails
Correct
B.
Birth control among exposed organisms
C.
Elimination of pathogenic microorganisms
D.
Destroying of mechanisms inside bacteria
Explanation
Endocrine-disrupting chemicals discharged in wastewater interfere with hormone systems in aquatic organisms, a well-documented effect being intersex characteristics observed in exposed fish and molluscs such as roach and snails.
Q71Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) process allows
A.
Ideal filtration method for small to large-scale membrane facilities
B.
Combines the aeration and secondary clarifier in one and the same tank
C.
Batch treatment by combining, primary settling, aeration, secondary settling and decanting the treated sewage
Correct
D.
Enhances primary treatment with addition of coagulants and flocculents
Explanation
A Sequencing Batch Reactor treats sewage in a single tank by cycling through fill, aeration (reaction), settling and decanting phases, combining what would otherwise be separate primary settling, aeration and secondary clarification steps in a batch mode.
Q72Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The advantage of High Rate Activated Sludge BIOFOR-F Technology is
A.
Reduces plant footprint by 25 - 40% compared to a conventional STP
B.
Undigested sludge from primary clarification does not require post treatment
C.
Higher aeration efficiency through co-current diffused aeration system
Correct
D.
Does not require separate secondary clarifiers and major return sludge pumping stations
Explanation
High-rate activated sludge BIOFOR-type systems use a co-current diffused aeration arrangement that improves oxygen transfer efficiency compared to conventional aeration layouts.
Q73Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The benefits of well run STP is
A.
Acidity/alkalinity balance is altered
B.
Performance unaffected by turbidity
C.
Enormous savings in fresh water costs
Correct
D.
No need to remove debris collected in the launder
Explanation
A well-run sewage treatment plant enables treated water reuse (for irrigation, industry, etc.), resulting in substantial savings on fresh water procurement costs.
Q74Chemistry › Important Chemicals & Compounds in News › Industrial & Agricultural Chemicals
Which of the following is not a component of gasoline?
A.
C3toC6paraffins
B.
C4toC9paraffins
C.
C4toC13paraffins
Correct
D.
C4toC12paraffins
Explanation
Gasoline's hydrocarbons are conventionally tabulated with an overall carbon-number span of roughly C4 to C12 (boiling range about 30-210 degrees C), and paraffins spanning C4 to C12 are the standard reference range cited in environmental engineering texts — so option D (C4 to C12) is in fact a genuine gasoline paraffin fraction, not the odd one out. Option C (C4 to C13) extends one carbon number past gasoline's recognized upper limit and does not correspond to any standard gasoline paraffin fraction, making it the correct answer to 'not a component.' The original marking of D was therefore incorrect.
Q75Chemistry › Important Chemicals & Compounds in News › Gases – Properties & Uses
An extremely effective fire extinguishing agent is
A.
Helium
B.
Halons
Correct
C.
Halogens
D.
Argon
Explanation
Halons (halogenated hydrocarbons such as Halon 1301) are extremely effective fire-suppressing agents because they chemically interrupt the combustion chain reaction, not just displace oxygen like inert gases.
Q76Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Inter-distance between ventilation columns in a sewer line is kept between
A.
25 m to 50 m
B.
50 m to 100 m
C.
100 m to 150 m
D.
150 m to 300 m
Correct
Explanation
Ventilation shafts/columns along sewer lines are typically spaced 150 to 300 metres apart to allow adequate release of sewer gases and prevent their accumulation.
Q77Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
A plastic float is dropped into a wastewater channel and is found to travel 10 feet in 4.2 seconds. The channel is 2.4 feet wide and is flowing 1.8 feet deep. The flow rate of the wastewater is
A.
2.3ft3/sec
B.
4.2ft3/sec
C.
5.7ft3/sec
D.
10.3ft3/sec
Correct
Explanation
Velocity = 10 ft / 4.2 s ≈ 2.38 ft/s, and cross-sectional area = 2.4 ft × 1.8 ft = 4.32 ft²; multiplying gives a flow rate of about 10.3 ft³/sec.
Q78Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In the activated sludge process
A.
Aeration is continued till stability is achieved
B.
Aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge
Correct
C.
Sludge is activated by constant stirring
D.
Water is removed by centrifugal action
Explanation
In the activated sludge process, incoming wastewater is aerated together with an admixture of previously aerated (return activated) sludge, which supplies the active microbial biomass needed for treatment.
Q79Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
If the moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank, the percentage decrease in the volume of sludge, is
A.
25%
B.
50%
Correct
C.
10%
D.
5%
Explanation
If solids mass is held constant, reducing sludge moisture from 90% to 80% means the solids fraction doubles (from 10% to 20%), so the sludge volume is halved — a 50% decrease.
Which of the following metals interferes with the enzyme ferrochelatase?
A.
Pb
Correct
B.
Hg
C.
Cd
D.
Zn
Explanation
Lead inhibits ferrochelatase, the enzyme that inserts iron into protoporphyrin IX during the final step of heme synthesis, which is why lead poisoning disrupts haemoglobin production and causes anaemia.
A company operating a vehicle manufacturing plant has developed Environmental Management System (EMS) to enhance its performance and to improve quality of its products. The key aspects of this EMS would include
A.
Audit of manufacturing plant safety procedures
B.
Maximizing returns to stakeholders of the company
C.
The development of an overall framework for environmental affairs of the company
Correct
D.
The aspects of costs involved in developing an environmental policy
Explanation
A key purpose of an Environmental Management System like ISO 14001 is to give an organization an overall structured framework for managing and continually improving its environmental affairs.
Q82Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Interior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes
Which one of the following elements contributes maximum to the earth's crust by weight?
A.
Iron
B.
Silicon
C.
Oxygen
Correct
D.
Carbon
Explanation
Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust by weight (about 46%), followed by silicon, aluminium and iron.
Consider the following statements regarding EIA guidelines 1994 :
A. Schedule-I of the guidelines list the project requiring environment clearance.
B. EIA notification is applicable to all the States/Union Territories.
C. Responsibility of implementation of EIA notification lies with MoEF.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
A.
A only
B.
B and C only
C.
A and C only
D.
A, B and C
Correct
Explanation
Under India's EIA Guidelines/Notification of 1994, Schedule I listed the projects requiring mandatory environmental clearance, the notification applied nationwide to all States and Union Territories, and the Ministry of Environment and Forests was responsible for its implementation.
Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?
A.
Temperate Coniferous forests
Correct
B.
Temperate Deciduous forests
C.
Tropical Monsoon forests
D.
Tropical Rain forests
Explanation
Coniferous (largely boreal/taiga) forests cover the largest share of the world's total forested area of any single forest biome, more than tropical rainforests or deciduous forests.
In which EIA guidelines notification were development projects categorized as 'A' and 'B' in India ?
A.
EIA guidelines notification, 1994
B.
EIA guidelines notification, 1986
C.
EIA guidelines notification, 2006
Correct
D.
EIA guidelines notification, 2000
Explanation
India's EIA Notification of 2006 introduced the two-tier classification of development projects into Category A (cleared by the central Ministry) and Category B (cleared by State-level authorities).
Independent verification shows all four statements are individually true: Cr(VI) is well-documented as far more toxic than Cr(III); methylmercury is the mercury species responsible for essentially all human dietary bioaccumulation and neurotoxicity risk (the even-more-lethal dimethylmercury is a distinct, rarely encountered lab compound, not what 'methyl mercury' means in standard toxicology); arsenite As(III) is more toxic than arsenate As(V) because of its higher cell-membrane permeability and enzyme-binding reactivity; and cadmium is genuinely excluded from USEPA's six 'criteria pollutants' (CO, Pb, O3, NO2, PM, SO2) — lead, not cadmium, holds that status. Since no statement is actually false, this question is flawed at the source; option D is retained only because it matches the original key, not because it is demonstrably the incorrect statement.
Q87Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?
A.
SO2
B.
CO2
C.
CO
D.
O3
Correct
Explanation
Ozone (O3) is a classic secondary pollutant, formed in the atmosphere through photochemical reactions between primary pollutants like nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds, unlike SO2, CO2 and CO which are emitted directly.
Q88Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because
A.
It reacts with oxygen
B.
It reacts with haemoglobin
Correct
C.
It inhibits glycolysis
D.
It makes the nervous system inactive
Explanation
Carbon monoxide is toxic because it binds to haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.
The carbon dioxide content in the earth's atmosphere is currently 400 ppm. It is estimated that before 1500 AD, the carbon dioxide content in the earth's atmosphere was between 200 and 250 ppm. Which of the following greatly contributed to this change ?
A.
American Revolution
B.
Industrial Revolution
Correct
C.
Invention of Agriculture
D.
World Wars I and II
Explanation
Atmospheric CO2 concentration rose from roughly 280 ppm (pre-industrial, historically around 200-250 ppm in earlier estimates) to about 400 ppm today, an increase largely driven by fossil-fuel combustion since the Industrial Revolution.
Q91Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The temporary hardness of water is caused due to
A.
Magnesium Sulphate
B.
Magnesium Carbonate
Correct
C.
Magnesium Chloride
D.
Calcium Sulphate
Explanation
Temporary (carbonate) hardness of water is caused by the dissolved bicarbonates/carbonates of calcium and magnesium, which precipitate out on boiling — distinguishing it from permanent hardness caused by sulphates and chlorides.
Q92Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
According to the United State Geological Survey, water having less than 500 mg/l of total dissolved solids is
A.
Fresh water
Correct
B.
Slightly saline water
C.
Moderately saline water
D.
Brine water
Explanation
The USGS classifies water with less than 1,000 mg/l (and certainly under 500 mg/l) of total dissolved solids as fresh water, as opposed to slightly, moderately or very saline water.
Q93Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
For survival of fish in a river stream the minimum dissolved oxygen prescribed is
A.
4 ppm
Correct
B.
3 ppm
C.
10 ppm
D.
5 ppm
Explanation
A minimum dissolved oxygen level of about 4 to 5 ppm is generally prescribed as necessary to support healthy fish survival and reproduction in river streams.
Q94Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend
A.
A sedimentation tank with low rate trickling filter
B.
A sedimentation tank with high rate trickling filter
C.
A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant
Correct
D.
A plant consisting of the Imhoff tank with low rate trickling filter
Explanation
For treating the large sewage volumes of a big city, a sedimentation tank followed by an activated sludge plant is generally recommended because it offers higher treatment capacity and efficiency in a compact footprint compared to trickling filters.
Q95Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The following unit is not used to measure the turbidity of water :
A.
FTU
B.
JTU
C.
NTU
D.
ATU
Correct
Explanation
Turbidity is conventionally measured in units such as FTU (Formazin Turbidity Unit), JTU (Jackson Turbidity Unit) or NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Unit); 'ATU' is not a recognized turbidity measurement unit.
Q96Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Which of these produces methane during the wastewater treatment process ?
A.
Activated sludge
B.
Trickling filter
C.
Anaerobic digestion
Correct
D.
Aerobic oxidation
Explanation
Anaerobic digestion of sludge/wastewater, carried out in the absence of oxygen, breaks down organic matter and produces biogas rich in methane.
Q97Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In water treatment procedures the purpose of coagulation and flocculation is to
A.
Disinfect water supply
B.
Remove microorganism, organic matter and suspended fine particles
Correct
C.
Remove taste and odor problems
D.
Soften the water by removing calcium and magnesium
Explanation
Coagulation and flocculation destabilize and clump together fine suspended particles, microorganisms and organic matter into larger flocs so they can be removed by subsequent settling and filtration.
Q98Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The function of the automobile catalytic converter is to control emissions of
A.
Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen
B.
Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide
C.
Carbon monoxide and Hydrogen
D.
Carbon monoxide and Nitrogen dioxide
Correct
Explanation
A three-way automotive catalytic converter targets exactly three pollutant classes: it oxidizes carbon monoxide (CO) and unburned hydrocarbons to CO2/H2O while reducing nitrogen oxides (NOx) to N2 — hydrogen is never a targeted combustion pollutant. Among the given options, D (carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide) is the only pair drawn from the converter's actual target classes (CO and NOx), confirming D as correct over any option that substitutes hydrogen or carbon dioxide for one of the real targets.
Q99Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial activity should not be permitted beyond
A.
2 ppm
B.
3 ppm
C.
4 ppm
D.
5 ppm
Correct
Explanation
Regulatory threshold limits commonly cap permissible sulphur dioxide concentration from industrial activity at around 5 ppm to limit its respiratory and environmental impact.
Q100Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following is used as an anti knock compound in gasoline ?
A.
Tetramethyl lead
B.
Trimethyl lead
C.
Tetraethyl lead
Correct
D.
Triethyl lead
Explanation
Tetraethyl lead was historically added to gasoline as an anti-knock compound to improve octane rating and prevent premature (knocking) combustion in engines, before being phased out due to lead pollution concerns.