KPSC Departmental Exams - Environmental Eng/AEO 2017 — Paper 2 - Specific Paper

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Environment, Biology, Physics, Chemistry, Physical Geography (World), Indian Polity.

Questions
100 questions
Duration
120 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.500
Q1EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

One that is not a type of a noise is

  1. A.

    Rayleigh noise

  2. B.

    Gamma noise

  3. C.

    Exponential noise

  4. D.

    Black noise

    Correct

Explanation

In digital image/signal processing, the standard set of statistical noise models includes Gaussian, Rayleigh, Gamma (Erlang), Exponential, Uniform and Impulse (salt-and-pepper) noise; 'black noise' is a colloquial acoustic term (near-silence with rare bursts), not one of these standard statistical noise distributions.

Q2EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

When the total hardness of water as CaCO3CaCO_3 is in the range between 40 mg/lmg/l and 100 mg/lmg/l, then the water is classified as

  1. A.

    Very hard

  2. B.

    Moderately hard

    Correct
  3. C.

    Hard

  4. D.

    Extremely hard

Explanation

Using the common water-hardness classification (as CaCO3): under 50 mg/l is soft, 50-100 mg/l is moderately hard, 100-200 mg/l is hard, and above 200 mg/l is very hard, so 40-100 mg/l falls in the moderately hard range.

Q3EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The ultimate Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BODuBOD_u) of the wastewater can be determined using the equation

  1. A.

    BODt=L0(1ekt)BOD_t = L_0(1 - e^{-kt})

    Correct
  2. B.

    BODt=L0ektBOD_t = L_0 e^{-kt}

  3. C.

    BOD5=K20heta(T20)BOD_5 = K_{20} heta^{(T - 20)}

  4. D.

    BOD5=(DOfDOi)PBOD_5 = \frac{(DO_{f }- DO_{i}) }{P}

Explanation

The first-order BOD exertion model gives the BOD exerted up to time t as BODt = L0(1 - e^-kt), where L0 is the ultimate BOD; rearranging shows L0 (BODu) is obtained from this same relationship.

Q4EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The design of a sedimentation tank is not a function of depth, but it is a function of

  1. A.

    Surface loading rate

    Correct
  2. B.

    Temperature

  3. C.

    Influent turbidity concentration

  4. D.

    Viscosity of water

Explanation

Sedimentation tanks are designed based on the surface loading (overflow) rate, since settling depends on the area available for particles to settle out per unit flow, not on tank depth.

Q5EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

The "Safe Drinking Water Act" was amended by USEPA in the year

  1. A.

    1982

  2. B.

    1996

    Correct
  3. C.

    1974

  4. D.

    2001

Explanation

The Safe Drinking Water Act was originally enacted in 1974, not amended then, so it doesn't answer a question about an amendment year. Congress substantially amended the Act in 1986 and again in 1996; since 1986 isn't offered as a choice, 1996 (option B) is the correct amendment year among these options — the 1996 Amendments overhauled the Act with the Contaminant Candidate List and source-water assessment programs. The original marking of 1974 confused the enactment year with an amendment year.

Q6EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Effect of excess amount of fluoride in drinking water leads to

  1. A.

    Dental fluorosis

    Correct
  2. B.

    Damage of nerves

  3. C.

    Damage of the retina of eye

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Chronic ingestion of excess fluoride in drinking water damages tooth enamel, causing dental fluorosis (mottling and staining of teeth); at much higher levels it can also cause skeletal fluorosis.

Q7EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The main objective of providing "Trickling filter" in domestic wastewater treatment is to remove

  1. A.

    Organics present in the wastewater

    Correct
  2. B.

    Oxygen present in the wastewater

  3. C.

    Only toxic metals from wastewater

  4. D.

    Iron present in the wastewater

Explanation

A trickling filter is a fixed-film biological reactor where microorganisms growing on the filter media metabolize and remove the organic (biodegradable) matter present in domestic wastewater.

Q8EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In order to remove oil and grease from the petroleum industrial wastewaters, the recommended treatment unit is

  1. A.

    Grit chamber

  2. B.

    Activated sludge process

  3. C.

    Sedimentation tank

  4. D.

    Skimming tank

    Correct

Explanation

A skimming tank uses the density difference between water and oil/grease to let the lighter oil and grease float to the surface, where it is skimmed off before further treatment.

Q9EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The treatment process that can operate both in the presence or absence of oxygen in the biological reactors is known as

  1. A.

    Anaerobic process

  2. B.

    Anoxic process

  3. C.

    Aerobic process

  4. D.

    Facultative process

    Correct

Explanation

A facultative process is one where the microorganisms involved can survive and carry out treatment both in the presence and in the absence of dissolved oxygen, unlike strictly aerobic or strictly anaerobic processes.

Q10EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Under non-inhibition range of pollutant concentration, the specific growth rate of the bacteria can be determined using Monod's equation as

  1. A.

    μ=μmaxY\mu = \frac{\mu_{max}}{Y}

  2. B.

    μ=μmaxSS+Ks\mu = \frac{\mu_{max} S}{S + K_s}

    Correct
  3. C.

    μ=μmaxSS+Ks+S2Ki\mu = \mu_{max} \frac{S}{S + K_s + \frac{S^2}{K_i}}

  4. D.

    Rsu=K+SKimesSR_{su} = \frac{K + S}{K imes S}

Explanation

Monod's equation for specific bacterial growth rate in the non-inhibitory range is μ = μmax·S/(S + Ks), where S is substrate concentration and Ks is the half-saturation constant.

Q11EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In the sewage treatment plant the head loss through the screens can be calculated using the empirical relationship as

  1. A.

    hL=β(Wb)4/3hvsinθh_L = \beta \left(\frac{W}{b}\right)^{4/3} h_v \sin \theta

    Correct
  2. B.

    hf=flV22gdh_f = \frac{f l V^2}{2gd}

  3. C.

    hm=KV22gh_m = \frac{K V^2}{2g}

  4. D.

    hm=KV22g+hvh_m = \frac{K V^2}{2g} + h_v

Explanation

The head loss through bar screens is commonly estimated using the Kirschmer equation, hL = β(W/b)^(4/3)·hv·sinθ, which accounts for bar shape, spacing, approach velocity head and the angle of the screen.

Q12EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In India the commonly used chemical coagulant in the drinking water treatment plant is

  1. A.

    Al2(SO4)3.H2OAl_2(SO_4)_3.H_2O

    Correct
  2. B.

    FeSO4.7H2OFeSO_4.7H_2O

  3. C.

    Fe2(SO4)3Fe_2(SO_4)_3

  4. D.

    FeCl3FeCl_3

Explanation

Aluminium sulphate (alum, Al2(SO4)3·xH2O) is the most widely used and economical coagulant in Indian drinking water treatment plants for destabilizing and settling suspended colloidal matter.

Q13EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

The effluent standards for BOD5BOD_5 of industrial wastewater to dispose on land is

  1. A.

    80 mg/lmg/l

  2. B.

    30 mg/lmg/l

  3. C.

    100 mg/lmg/l

    Correct
  4. D.

    450 mg/lmg/l

Explanation

Under India's General Standards for Discharge of Environmental Pollutants (Environment Protection Rules), the permissible BOD5 limit for industrial wastewater disposed on land for irrigation is 100 mg/l.

Q14EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In the water treatment process, chlorine is added to water to remove

  1. A.

    Non-pathogenic bacteria

  2. B.

    Yeast

  3. C.

    Pathogenic bacteria

    Correct
  4. D.

    Fungi

Explanation

Chlorination in water treatment is primarily done for disinfection — killing pathogenic (disease-causing) bacteria and other microorganisms to make the water safe for consumption.

Q15EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Eutrophication of lakes around the urban centres is mainly due to addition of

  1. A.

    Oxygen into water body

  2. B.

    Nutrient into water body

    Correct
  3. C.

    Phenol into water body

  4. D.

    Benzene into water body

Explanation

Eutrophication near urban centres results from excess nutrients (mainly nitrogen and phosphorus from sewage and runoff) entering water bodies, which triggers excessive algal growth.

Q16EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

To predict the potential infiltration problem in irrigation fields, Sodium Adsorption Ratio (SAR) has to be determined using the equation

  1. A.

    SAR=(Ca+Mg)/2NaSAR = \frac{\sqrt{(Ca + Mg)/2}}{Na}

  2. B.

    SAR=Ca+Mg20NaSAR = \frac{\sqrt{\frac{Ca + Mg}{20}}}{Na}

  3. C.

    RNa=Na(Cax+Mg)/2R_{Na} = \frac{Na}{\sqrt{(Ca_x + Mg)/2}}

  4. D.

    SAR=Na(Ca+Mg)/2SAR = \frac{Na}{\sqrt{(Ca + Mg)/2}}

    Correct

Explanation

The Sodium Adsorption Ratio, used to assess the sodium-hazard/infiltration risk of irrigation water, is defined as SAR = Na / √[(Ca + Mg)/2], with concentrations expressed in meq/l.

Q17EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

ISO-14001 is

  1. A.

    A documented Environmental Management System (EMS) that is fully implemented and constantly followed

  2. B.

    Not a technical product standard

  3. C.

    Applicable to all types and sizes of organization and accommodates diverse geographical, cultural and social conditions

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

ISO 14001 is a documented Environmental Management System standard that must be fully implemented and continually followed, is not a product standard, and is applicable to organizations of any type, size or geographic/cultural setting.

Q18EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

Ambient Air Quality Standards, as prescribed in the Environmental Protection Third Amendment Rules (1989), the noise level in residential area during day and night time should be

  1. A.

    55 dB and 45 dB

    Correct
  2. B.

    75 dB and 70 dB

  3. C.

    50 dB and 70 dB

  4. D.

    65 dB and 55 dB

Explanation

Under India's ambient noise standards (Noise Pollution Rules, framed under the Environment Protection Act), the permissible noise level in residential areas is 55 dB(A) during the day and 45 dB(A) at night.

Q19EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Noise level is measured using the relationship

  1. A.

    dB=40×log10II0dB = 40 \times \log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0}

  2. B.

    dB=II0dB = \frac{I}{I_0}

  3. C.

    dB=10log10II0dB = 10 \log_{10} \frac{I}{I_0}

    Correct
  4. D.

    dB=10log10I0IdB = 10 \log_{10} \frac{I_0}{I}

Explanation

Sound/noise intensity level in decibels is calculated using the logarithmic relation dB = 10·log10(I/I0), where I0 is the reference intensity corresponding to the threshold of hearing.

Q20EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

In order to attain clean air, the EPA established the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in the year

  1. A.

    1977

  2. B.

    1988

  3. C.

    1970

    Correct
  4. D.

    1996

Explanation

The US EPA established the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) in 1970 under the Clean Air Act to set limits for criteria air pollutants.

Q21EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

In gravitational settling chamber the particles that are smaller than about 30 μm\mu m, with density much greater than air

  1. A.

    V=dtV = \frac{d}{t}

  2. B.

    V=1NR2/3S1/2V = \frac{1}{N} R^{2/3} S^{1/2}

  3. C.

    Vh=8gf(ρsρp)d2V_h = \sqrt{\frac{8g}{f} (\rho_s - \rho_p) d^2}

  4. D.

    V=d2ρg18ηV = \frac{d^2 \rho g}{18 \eta}

    Correct

Explanation

For small, dense particles settling under gravity in laminar (Stokes) flow, the terminal settling velocity is given by V = d²ρg/18η, derived from Stokes' law balancing gravity, buoyancy and viscous drag.

Q22EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

When the environmental lapse rate is greater than the dry adiabatic lapse rate, then the atmosphere is said to be

  1. A.

    Simple adiabatic lapse rate

  2. B.

    Super adiabatic lapse rate

    Correct
  3. C.

    Sub-adiabatic lapse rate

  4. D.

    Low adiabatic lapse rate

Explanation

When the environmental (actual) lapse rate exceeds the dry adiabatic lapse rate, a rising air parcel stays warmer than its surroundings and keeps accelerating upward, a condition called the super-adiabatic (highly unstable) lapse rate.

Q23EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In the wastewater treatment plant the tube settler is used to remove

  1. A.

    BOD5BOD_5 from wastewater

  2. B.

    Heavy metals from wastewater

  3. C.

    Organic contaminants from wastewater

  4. D.

    Suspended solids from wastewater

    Correct

Explanation

Tube settlers increase the effective settling area within a sedimentation basin, improving the removal of suspended solids from wastewater before further treatment.

Q24EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Rapid mixing of waste water effluent with the river water can be achieved by adopting

  1. A.

    Bank outfall

  2. B.

    Single diffuser

  3. C.

    Single river middle outfall

  4. D.

    Multiple diffuser

    Correct

Explanation

A multiple-port diffuser distributes effluent across the width/depth of the river through several openings, achieving much faster and more complete initial mixing than a single-point or bank outfall.

Q25EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In one-dimensional analysis of mixing zone studies, the basic assumption made will be

  1. A.

    Wastewater is mixed fully with the streamflow.

    Correct
  2. B.

    River water temperature is assumed to be constant.

  3. C.

    Dissolved oxygen concentration in the river remains constant.

  4. D.

    Velocity of the water in the river remains constant.

Explanation

One-dimensional mixing-zone models assume that the wastewater becomes fully and uniformly mixed across the river's cross-section, simplifying the analysis to variation along the flow direction only.

Q26EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

The combustion of prepared Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) refusal in power plant boilers will

  1. A.

    Increase power production cost

  2. B.

    Achieve maximum heat recovery from MSW refuse

  3. C.

    Conserve non-renewable natural resources

  4. D.

    Both (1) and (2)

    Correct

Explanation

Burning processed refuse (RDF) in power-plant boilers recovers useful heat from the waste, but because refuse-derived fuel is a less consistent, more corrosive fuel than coal, it also tends to raise operating and maintenance costs — so both effects occur together.

Q27EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Identify the filling technique of disposal of Municipal Solid Waste in the sanitary landfill, in which a long narrow excavation is made in the earth and soil removed from this excavation is stock piled.

  1. A.

    Area method

  2. B.

    Trench method

    Correct
  3. C.

    Ramp method

  4. D.

    Deep burial

Explanation

In the trench method of sanitary landfilling, a long narrow trench is excavated, the excavated soil is stockpiled alongside, and waste is placed in the trench and covered daily with this stockpiled soil.

Q28EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

During initial composting development, the predominate flora that is responsible for most metabolic activity is

  1. A.

    Mesophilic flora

    Correct
  2. B.

    Thermophilic flora

  3. C.

    Natural flora

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

In the early stage of composting, mesophilic microorganisms (thriving at moderate temperatures) dominate and drive most of the initial metabolic breakdown before the pile heats up and thermophiles take over.

Q29EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The Gaussian plume air pollutant dispersion model uses

  1. A.

    Ambient temperature

  2. B.

    The mixing length concept based on Eddy diffusion model

    Correct
  3. C.

    The Stoke's law concept

  4. D.

    Darcy's law

Explanation

The Gaussian plume dispersion model represents the spreading of pollutants downwind using dispersion coefficients derived from the mixing-length/eddy-diffusivity concept of atmospheric turbulence.

Q30EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

In the process of composting of Municipal Solid Waste, thermophilic microorganisms are dominating in the range of temperature between

  1. A.

    25C25^{\circ}\text{C} and 45C45^{\circ}\text{C}

  2. B.

    10C10^{\circ}\text{C} and 18C18^{\circ}\text{C}

  3. C.

    45C45^{\circ}\text{C} and 70C70^{\circ}\text{C}

    Correct
  4. D.

    85C85^{\circ}\text{C} and 92C92^{\circ}\text{C}

Explanation

As composting progresses, temperatures rise into the thermophilic range, roughly 45°C to 70°C, where heat-loving microorganisms dominate and accelerate decomposition and pathogen destruction.

Q31EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Air quality index range for moderate air pollution in the process of EIA is

  1. A.

    26 to 50

  2. B.

    0 to 25

  3. C.

    76 to 100

  4. D.

    51 to 75

    Correct

Explanation

On the air-quality index scale commonly used in EIA studies (0-100 split into four bands of 25), the 51-75 range is classified as the 'moderate' pollution category.

Q32EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Chloroform causes renal toxicity in humans after

  1. A.

    2 to 3 hours of exposure

  2. B.

    100 hours of exposure

  3. C.

    24 to 48 hours of exposure

    Correct
  4. D.

    8 to 10 hours of exposure

Explanation

Chloroform is a nephrotoxic and hepatotoxic solvent; its renal (kidney) toxicity typically manifests 24 to 48 hours after significant exposure, following its metabolism into reactive intermediates.

Q33EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Dust of which size range is a health hazard of producing, after variable periods of exposure, a lung disease known as pneumoconiosis?

  1. A.

    10 to 25 microns

  2. B.

    0.5 to 3 microns

    Correct
  3. C.

    5 to 9 microns

  4. D.

    30 to 50 microns

Explanation

Fine respirable dust particles roughly in the 0.5 to 3 (up to about 5) micron range penetrate deep into the lung alveoli and, over prolonged exposure, cause fibrotic lung diseases collectively known as pneumoconiosis.

Q34EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Ventilation coefficient is a measure of atmospheric dispersion, capability of which can be expressed in terms of

  1. A.

    m2/sec\text{m}^2/\text{sec}

    Correct
  2. B.

    m3/day\text{m}^3/\text{day}

  3. C.

    m3/m2/day\text{m}^3/\text{m}^2/\text{day}

  4. D.

    m/sec\text{m}/\text{sec}

Explanation

The ventilation coefficient, the product of average wind speed and mixing height, expresses the atmosphere's pollutant-dispersing capacity and is measured in units of m²/sec.

Q35BiologyDiseasesCommunicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)

The disease “lymphatic filariasis”, covers infection with closely related microfilariae nematode worms. Identify which worms are responsible.

  1. A.

    Wuchereria bancrofti

  2. B.

    Brugia malayi

  3. C.

    Entamoeba hystolytica

  4. D.

    Both (1) and (2)

    Correct

Explanation

Lymphatic filariasis in humans is caused by thread-like filarial nematodes, chiefly Wuchereria bancrofti (responsible for most cases) and Brugia malayi, both transmitted by mosquito bites.

Q36EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

What is the colour coding of bags used in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical waste?

  1. A.

    Black

  2. B.

    Yellow

    Correct
  3. C.

    Red

  4. D.

    Blue

Explanation

Under India's Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, human anatomical waste is segregated into yellow-coloured bags/containers for incineration or deep burial.

Q37EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The major disadvantages of bag filters while collecting particulate matter from industrial flue gas is due to

  1. A.

    Large size and high construction cost

    Correct
  2. B.

    Retention of particulate in dry form

  3. C.

    Retention of finest particle

  4. D.

    Relatively low pressure drop

Explanation

Fabric (bag) filters achieve very high particulate collection efficiency but require large housings with many bags and correspondingly high capital/construction costs compared to some other control devices.

Q38EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Water categorized as A II can be best suited for

  1. A.

    Unfiltered public water supply after approved disinfection

  2. B.

    Public water supply with approved treatment equal to coagulation, sedimentation and disinfection

    Correct
  3. C.

    Not fit for human consumption, fish and wildlife propagation

  4. D.

    Fit for agriculture, industrial cooling and process water

Explanation

Under the water-quality classification scheme, Class A-II sources are those requiring conventional treatment equivalent to coagulation, sedimentation, filtration and disinfection before being used as public water supply.

Q39EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

__________ is used for taste and odour control in surface and ground water.

  1. A.

    Alum

  2. B.

    Potassium permanganate

    Correct
  3. C.

    Trihalomethanes

  4. D.

    Ferric salts

Explanation

Potassium permanganate is commonly dosed in water treatment to oxidize taste- and odour-causing compounds (and control iron/manganese) in both surface and ground water.

Q40EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

During transportation of ground water to municipal pipelines, the purpose of adding ammonia is to

  1. A.

    Suppress the growth of iron bacteria in pipes and initiate oxidation of Fe and Mn

  2. B.

    Increase dissolved O2\text{O}_2

  3. C.

    Remove Fe and Mn floc

  4. D.

    Convert free chlorine residual to combined chlorine residual

    Correct

Explanation

Adding ammonia after chlorination converts free chlorine residual into combined (chloramine) residual, which persists longer in distribution pipelines and produces fewer disinfection by-products such as trihalomethanes.

Q41EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Eutrophication of lakes receiving sewage water can be retarded by removal of

  1. A.

    Suspended solids

  2. B.

    Phosphorus

    Correct
  3. C.

    Refractory contaminants

  4. D.

    Organic nitrogenous compounds

Explanation

Phosphorus is usually the limiting nutrient for algal growth in freshwater lakes, so removing phosphorus from incoming sewage effectively slows down eutrophication.

Q42EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Deep trickling filters are also known as

  1. A.

    Rotating Biological contactors

  2. B.

    Biological towers

    Correct
  3. C.

    Activated sludge process

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Deep, high-rate trickling filters packed with modern synthetic media are commonly called 'biological towers' because of their tall, tower-like structure.

Q43EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Full scale field pumping tests are carried out to evaluate

  1. A.

    Quantity of shallow well water

    Correct
  2. B.

    Natural lakes

  3. C.

    Impounding reservoirs

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

Full-scale field pumping tests are conducted on wells to determine aquifer characteristics and evaluate the safe yield (quantity) of water obtainable, typically from shallow wells.

Q44EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

A flow meter that establishes a relationship between the upper head 'h' and discharge 'Q' under free flowing conditions is

  1. A.

    Orifice meter

  2. B.

    Weir

  3. C.

    Parshall Flume

    Correct
  4. D.

    Flow nozzle

Explanation

A Parshall flume is an open-channel flow measuring device that develops a fixed relationship between upstream head 'h' and discharge 'Q' under free-flow conditions.

Q45EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Anionic exchanger is used to remove _________ from boiler feed water.

  1. A.

    Sodium sulphite

  2. B.

    Hydrazine phosphate

  3. C.

    Soluble silica

    Correct
  4. D.

    Suspended silica

Explanation

Strong-base anion exchange resins are used in boiler feed water treatment to remove dissolved (soluble) silica, which exists as a silicate anion and can otherwise deposit as hard scale on turbine blades.

Q46EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Persistent foam in polluted water streams is due to

  1. A.

    Non-biodegradable substances like alkyl benzene sulphonate

    Correct
  2. B.

    Chlorine

  3. C.

    Phenol and cyanide

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

Persistent foam in polluted streams historically resulted from non-biodegradable surfactants like alkyl benzene sulphonate (ABS) used in older detergent formulations, which resist microbial breakdown.

Q47EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

13 metals are treated as pollutants. Identify the metal which is not a pollutant.

  1. A.

    Mercury

  2. B.

    Arsenic

  3. C.

    Aluminium

    Correct
  4. D.

    Lead

Explanation

The US EPA's list of 13 priority pollutant metals includes antimony, arsenic, beryllium, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, mercury, nickel, selenium, silver, thallium and zinc — aluminium is not on this list.

Q48EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Which one of the following is category-1 of Bio-medical waste in India?

  1. A.

    Human anatomical waste

    Correct
  2. B.

    Animal waste

  3. C.

    Microbiological waste

  4. D.

    Discarded medicine

Explanation

Under India's Bio-Medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998, Category 1 waste is defined as human anatomical waste (human tissues, organs, body parts).

Q49EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Ringelmann chart no. 2 corresponds to ________ % black smoke.

  1. A.

    10

  2. B.

    20

  3. C.

    40

    Correct
  4. D.

    80

Explanation

On the Ringelmann smoke chart, which grades smoke opacity from 0 to 5 in steps of roughly 20%, chart No. 2 corresponds to about 40% black smoke density.

Q50EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Respiratory Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM) is also designated as

  1. A.

    PM2.5\text{PM}_{2.5}

  2. B.

    PM5\text{PM}_{5}

  3. C.

    PM10\text{PM}_{10}

    Correct
  4. D.

    PM25\text{PM}_{25}

Explanation

Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM), as used in Indian air-quality monitoring, refers to particles up to 10 microns in diameter and is also designated PM10.

Q51PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsRadioactivity Basics

Spent fuels generated in nuclear power plants contain plutonium-239, have a very long half-life period of the order of ________ years.

  1. A.

    1,000

  2. B.

    5,000

  3. C.

    24,000

    Correct
  4. D.

    48,000

Explanation

Plutonium-239, a major constituent of spent nuclear fuel, has a half-life of about 24,100 years, making its long-term radioactive decay and storage a major nuclear waste management concern.

Q52EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Methamoglobinemia is due to the presence of excess of ________ in drinking water.

  1. A.

    Chlorides

  2. B.

    Nitrates

    Correct
  3. C.

    Dissolved oxygen

  4. D.

    pH

Explanation

Methemoglobinemia ('blue baby syndrome') results from excess nitrate in drinking water, which is reduced to nitrite in the infant gut and oxidizes haemoglobin's iron, impairing oxygen transport.

Q53EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Leachate is

  1. A.

    a by-product of waste incineration

  2. B.

    a type of waste storage container used in “clean coal” plants

  3. C.

    a non-recyclable type of plastic

  4. D.

    a liquid that results when garbage substances in a landfill dissolve in water

    Correct

Explanation

Leachate is the contaminated liquid formed when rainwater or moisture percolates through solid waste in a landfill, dissolving and carrying out pollutants from the decomposing garbage.

Q54EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

What are LEED standards used for?

  1. A.

    They dictate the amount of emissions certain manufacturing building can emit.

  2. B.

    They guide the design and certification for the construction of green and sustainable buildings.

    Correct
  3. C.

    They are used to certify industries as environment friendly.

  4. D.

    They dictate whether a forest is being cut in a sustainable manner or not.

Explanation

LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) provides a rating and certification framework that guides the design and construction of green, resource-efficient and sustainable buildings.

Q55EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Which of the following countries is the world's leader in innovative recycling?

  1. A.

    Brazil

  2. B.

    Canada

  3. C.

    Japan

    Correct
  4. D.

    China

Explanation

Japan is widely regarded as a global leader in innovative recycling technologies and practices, driven by strict waste segregation laws and limited landfill space.

Q56EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Incineration often is an undesirable process for managing our solid wastes because waste incinerators emit heavy metals (such as mercury) and some other pollutants. Pollution control devices typically remove hazardous gases from the smokestack. What is the residue from this pollution control process?

  1. A.

    Fly ash

    Correct
  2. B.

    Activated sludge

  3. C.

    Bottom ash

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Air pollution control devices on incinerator stacks (such as fabric filters/ESPs) capture fine particulate and condensed pollutants from the flue gas as fly ash, distinct from the bottom ash left in the furnace.

Q57EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

What does EPR stand for?

  1. A.

    Extended Product Responsibility

    Correct
  2. B.

    Electronic Product Recycling

  3. C.

    Efficient Product Reuse

  4. D.

    Elementary Product Recycling

Explanation

EPR stands for Extended Producer/Product Responsibility, a policy approach that makes producers responsible for the environmental impacts of their products through their entire life cycle, including post-consumer disposal.

Q58EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Soil contaminated with dioxins is subjected to thermal desorption treatment at

  1. A.

    450C450^{\circ}\text{C}

  2. B.

    500C500^{\circ}\text{C}

  3. C.

    550C550^{\circ}\text{C}

    Correct
  4. D.

    600C600^{\circ}\text{C}

Explanation

Thermal desorption treatment for dioxin-contaminated soil is typically carried out at around 550°C, high enough to volatilize the dioxins for subsequent capture and destruction without full incineration of the soil matrix.

Q59EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsUN Environmental Reports

The Basal Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal came into effect in

  1. A.

    1990

  2. B.

    1992

    Correct
  3. C.

    2001

  4. D.

    2011

Explanation

The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted in 1989 and entered into force in 1992.

Q60EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The air quality index for good category PM 10 (24 hr exposure period) is

  1. A.

    21 - 40

  2. B.

    00 - 50

    Correct
  3. C.

    31 - 60

  4. D.

    00 - 30

Explanation

Under India's National Air Quality Index, the 'Good' category for PM10 (24-hour average) corresponds to the 0-50 µg/m³ range.

Q61EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

For the propagation of wildlife and fisheries, the free Ammonia content as N must be

  1. A.

    1.0 mg/l or less

  2. B.

    0.5 mg/l or less

  3. C.

    1.2 mg/l or less

    Correct
  4. D.

    0.2 mg/l or less

Explanation

Per Indian CPCB water-quality tolerance limits for propagation of wildlife and fisheries, free ammonia (as N) should not exceed about 1.2 mg/l, since higher levels are toxic to aquatic life.

Q62EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The rain water criteria for E. coli based according to WHO is

  1. A.

    < 20 cfu / 100 ml

  2. B.

    < 10 cfu / 100 ml

    Correct
  3. C.

    < 50 cfu / 100 ml

  4. D.

    < 100 cfu / 100 ml

Explanation

WHO guidance for harvested rainwater intended for drinking sets a benchmark of less than 10 CFU of E. coli per 100 ml to indicate acceptably low faecal contamination.

Q63EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

According to Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, Ministry of Agriculture shall

  1. A.

    Make flexible Fertilizer Control Order, promote utilization of compost, testing facility for compost and issue guidelines

    Correct
  2. B.

    Promote utilization of compost and establish testing facility for compost

  3. C.

    Assist in market development for city compost and make it available to farmers

  4. D.

    Facilitate infrastructure for waste-to-energy plants

Explanation

Under Rule 11 of the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016, the Ministry of Agriculture's duties on compost are a bundled set: providing flexibility in the Fertilizer Control Order (FCO) for the manufacture and sale of city compost, promoting/propagating compost use on farmland, setting up or authorising laboratories to test compost quality, and issuing guidelines on the ratio of compost to chemical fertiliser use — this matches option A precisely. The market-development-assistance (subsidy) role for city compost described in option C is instead a distinct duty assigned to the Department of Fertilizers under the same rule, not the Ministry of Agriculture.

Q64EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In a flash mixer, Alum acts upon the sludge to facilitate the settling of

  1. A.

    Particulate matter

  2. B.

    Suspended solids

    Correct
  3. C.

    Calcium and Magnesium

  4. D.

    Both suspended solids and particulate matter

Explanation

In a flash mixer, alum reacts to form flocs that entrap fine suspended solids, making them heavier so they settle out readily in the following sedimentation stage.

Q65EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

According to Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989, waste under Category No. 9 includes

  1. A.

    Paints, pigments, glue, varnish and printing ink

  2. B.

    Dyes and dye intermediates containing organic chemical compounds

    Correct
  3. C.

    Pesticides and herbicides and their residues from formulation units

  4. D.

    Containers and container linears of hazardous and toxic wastes

Explanation

The Schedule to the Hazardous Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 1989 explicitly lists Waste Category No. 8 as 'wastes from dyes and dye-intermediates containing inorganic chemical compounds' and Waste Category No. 9 as 'wastes from dyes and dye-intermediates containing organic chemical compounds' (each with its own regulatory quantity threshold calculated as organic vs. inorganic chemicals). This confirms option B as the correct match for Category 9.

Q66EnvironmentConservation & Protected AreasWetlands & Ramsar Sites

According to the National Lake Conservation Plan, the size of the lakes generally considered for conservation is

  1. A.

    5 Ha

  2. B.

    10 Ha

    Correct
  3. C.

    5 Ha

  4. D.

    10 Ha

Explanation

Under the National Lake Conservation Plan, lakes with a water-spread area of around 10 hectares or more are generally taken up for conservation and management interventions.

Q67EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

According to the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the target for outdoor bathing is

  1. A.

    Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 500 (max. permissible), or less (desirable)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 1000 (max. permissible), or 100 (desirable)

  3. C.

    Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 500 (max. permissible), or 50 (desirable)

  4. D.

    Total Coliforms MPN/100 ml shall be 100 (max. permissible), or 10 (desirable)

Explanation

The Central Pollution Control Board's primary water quality criteria for outdoor bathing require total coliform levels (MPN/100 ml) of 500 or less, with lower values being desirable.

Q68EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

ISO-14000 is similar to ISO-9000 in

  1. A.

    Resources developing

  2. B.

    Quality management

    Correct
  3. C.

    Achieving and maintaining the environmental policy

  4. D.

    Planning activities, procedures and processes

Explanation

ISO 14001 (environmental management) and ISO 9000 (quality management) share the same generic management-system structure — plan, implement, check, review — despite covering different subject areas.

Q69EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

ISO-14031 deals with

  1. A.

    Environmental performance evaluation

    Correct
  2. B.

    Post-production environmental assessment

  3. C.

    Assessment of sites and organizations

  4. D.

    Life-cycle Assessment and LCA

Explanation

ISO 14031 is the international standard specifically dealing with Environmental Performance Evaluation, providing guidance on how organizations can assess their environmental performance.

Q70EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The consequence of discharge of endocrine disruptors into waste water results in

  1. A.

    Intersex among roaches and snails

    Correct
  2. B.

    Birth control among exposed organisms

  3. C.

    Elimination of pathogenic microorganisms

  4. D.

    Destroying of mechanisms inside bacteria

Explanation

Endocrine-disrupting chemicals discharged in wastewater interfere with hormone systems in aquatic organisms, a well-documented effect being intersex characteristics observed in exposed fish and molluscs such as roach and snails.

Q71EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Sequencing Batch Reactor (SBR) process allows

  1. A.

    Ideal filtration method for small to large-scale membrane facilities

  2. B.

    Combines the aeration and secondary clarifier in one and the same tank

  3. C.

    Batch treatment by combining, primary settling, aeration, secondary settling and decanting the treated sewage

    Correct
  4. D.

    Enhances primary treatment with addition of coagulants and flocculents

Explanation

A Sequencing Batch Reactor treats sewage in a single tank by cycling through fill, aeration (reaction), settling and decanting phases, combining what would otherwise be separate primary settling, aeration and secondary clarification steps in a batch mode.

Q72EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The advantage of High Rate Activated Sludge BIOFOR-F Technology is

  1. A.

    Reduces plant footprint by 25 - 40% compared to a conventional STP

  2. B.

    Undigested sludge from primary clarification does not require post treatment

  3. C.

    Higher aeration efficiency through co-current diffused aeration system

    Correct
  4. D.

    Does not require separate secondary clarifiers and major return sludge pumping stations

Explanation

High-rate activated sludge BIOFOR-type systems use a co-current diffused aeration arrangement that improves oxygen transfer efficiency compared to conventional aeration layouts.

Q73EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The benefits of well run STP is

  1. A.

    Acidity/alkalinity balance is altered

  2. B.

    Performance unaffected by turbidity

  3. C.

    Enormous savings in fresh water costs

    Correct
  4. D.

    No need to remove debris collected in the launder

Explanation

A well-run sewage treatment plant enables treated water reuse (for irrigation, industry, etc.), resulting in substantial savings on fresh water procurement costs.

Q74ChemistryImportant Chemicals & Compounds in NewsIndustrial & Agricultural Chemicals

Which of the following is not a component of gasoline?

  1. A.

    C3toC6paraffinsC_{3}\,to\,C_{6}\, paraffins

  2. B.

    C4toC9paraffinsC_{4}\,to\,C_{9} \,paraffins

  3. C.

    C4toC13paraffinsC_{4}\,to\,C_{13}\, paraffins

    Correct
  4. D.

    C4toC12paraffinsC_{4}\,to\,C_{12} \,paraffins

Explanation

Gasoline's hydrocarbons are conventionally tabulated with an overall carbon-number span of roughly C4 to C12 (boiling range about 30-210 degrees C), and paraffins spanning C4 to C12 are the standard reference range cited in environmental engineering texts — so option D (C4 to C12) is in fact a genuine gasoline paraffin fraction, not the odd one out. Option C (C4 to C13) extends one carbon number past gasoline's recognized upper limit and does not correspond to any standard gasoline paraffin fraction, making it the correct answer to 'not a component.' The original marking of D was therefore incorrect.

Q75ChemistryImportant Chemicals & Compounds in NewsGases – Properties & Uses

An extremely effective fire extinguishing agent is

  1. A.

    Helium

  2. B.

    Halons

    Correct
  3. C.

    Halogens

  4. D.

    Argon

Explanation

Halons (halogenated hydrocarbons such as Halon 1301) are extremely effective fire-suppressing agents because they chemically interrupt the combustion chain reaction, not just displace oxygen like inert gases.

Q76EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Inter-distance between ventilation columns in a sewer line is kept between

  1. A.

    25 m to 50 m

  2. B.

    50 m to 100 m

  3. C.

    100 m to 150 m

  4. D.

    150 m to 300 m

    Correct

Explanation

Ventilation shafts/columns along sewer lines are typically spaced 150 to 300 metres apart to allow adequate release of sewer gases and prevent their accumulation.

Q77EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

A plastic float is dropped into a wastewater channel and is found to travel 10 feet in 4.2 seconds. The channel is 2.4 feet wide and is flowing 1.8 feet deep. The flow rate of the wastewater is

  1. A.

    2.3ft3/sec2.3 ft^{3}/sec

  2. B.

    4.2ft3/sec4.2 ft^{3}/sec

  3. C.

    5.7ft3/sec5.7 ft^{3}/sec

  4. D.

    10.3ft3/sec10.3 ft^{3}/sec

    Correct

Explanation

Velocity = 10 ft / 4.2 s ≈ 2.38 ft/s, and cross-sectional area = 2.4 ft × 1.8 ft = 4.32 ft²; multiplying gives a flow rate of about 10.3 ft³/sec.

Q78EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In the activated sludge process

  1. A.

    Aeration is continued till stability is achieved

  2. B.

    Aeration is done with an admixture of previously aerated sludge

    Correct
  3. C.

    Sludge is activated by constant stirring

  4. D.

    Water is removed by centrifugal action

Explanation

In the activated sludge process, incoming wastewater is aerated together with an admixture of previously aerated (return activated) sludge, which supplies the active microbial biomass needed for treatment.

Q79EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

If the moisture content of sludge is reduced from 90% to 80% in a sludge digestion tank, the percentage decrease in the volume of sludge, is

  1. A.

    25%

  2. B.

    50%

    Correct
  3. C.

    10%

  4. D.

    5%

Explanation

If solids mass is held constant, reducing sludge moisture from 90% to 80% means the solids fraction doubles (from 10% to 20%), so the sludge volume is halved — a 50% decrease.

Q80BiologyBlood, Immunity & VaccinesBlood Composition & Blood Groups

Which of the following metals interferes with the enzyme ferrochelatase?

  1. A.

    Pb

    Correct
  2. B.

    Hg

  3. C.

    Cd

  4. D.

    Zn

Explanation

Lead inhibits ferrochelatase, the enzyme that inserts iron into protoporphyrin IX during the final step of heme synthesis, which is why lead poisoning disrupts haemoglobin production and causes anaemia.

Q81EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

A company operating a vehicle manufacturing plant has developed Environmental Management System (EMS) to enhance its performance and to improve quality of its products. The key aspects of this EMS would include

  1. A.

    Audit of manufacturing plant safety procedures

  2. B.

    Maximizing returns to stakeholders of the company

  3. C.

    The development of an overall framework for environmental affairs of the company

    Correct
  4. D.

    The aspects of costs involved in developing an environmental policy

Explanation

A key purpose of an Environmental Management System like ISO 14001 is to give an organization an overall structured framework for managing and continually improving its environmental affairs.

Q82Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Which one of the following elements contributes maximum to the earth's crust by weight?

  1. A.

    Iron

  2. B.

    Silicon

  3. C.

    Oxygen

    Correct
  4. D.

    Carbon

Explanation

Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust by weight (about 46%), followed by silicon, aluminium and iron.

Q83EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

Consider the following statements regarding EIA guidelines 1994 : A. Schedule-I of the guidelines list the project requiring environment clearance. B. EIA notification is applicable to all the States/Union Territories. C. Responsibility of implementation of EIA notification lies with MoEF. Which of the above statements is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    A only

  2. B.

    B and C only

  3. C.

    A and C only

  4. D.

    A, B and C

    Correct

Explanation

Under India's EIA Guidelines/Notification of 1994, Schedule I listed the projects requiring mandatory environmental clearance, the notification applied nationwide to all States and Union Territories, and the Ministry of Environment and Forests was responsible for its implementation.

Q84Physical Geography (World)BiogeographySoils, Vegetation & Forestry

Which one among the following covers the highest percentage of forest area in the world?

  1. A.

    Temperate Coniferous forests

    Correct
  2. B.

    Temperate Deciduous forests

  3. C.

    Tropical Monsoon forests

  4. D.

    Tropical Rain forests

Explanation

Coniferous (largely boreal/taiga) forests cover the largest share of the world's total forested area of any single forest biome, more than tropical rainforests or deciduous forests.

Q85EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

In which EIA guidelines notification were development projects categorized as 'A' and 'B' in India ?

  1. A.

    EIA guidelines notification, 1994

  2. B.

    EIA guidelines notification, 1986

  3. C.

    EIA guidelines notification, 2006

    Correct
  4. D.

    EIA guidelines notification, 2000

Explanation

India's EIA Notification of 2006 introduced the two-tier classification of development projects into Category A (cleared by the central Ministry) and Category B (cleared by State-level authorities).

Q86EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

Which of the following statements is incorrect ?

  1. A.

    Chromium (VI) is highly toxic.

  2. B.

    Methyl mercury is the most toxic mercury species.

  3. C.

    Arsenic (III) is more toxic than Arsenic (V).

  4. D.

    Cadmium is not a criteria pollutant.

    Correct

Explanation

Independent verification shows all four statements are individually true: Cr(VI) is well-documented as far more toxic than Cr(III); methylmercury is the mercury species responsible for essentially all human dietary bioaccumulation and neurotoxicity risk (the even-more-lethal dimethylmercury is a distinct, rarely encountered lab compound, not what 'methyl mercury' means in standard toxicology); arsenite As(III) is more toxic than arsenate As(V) because of its higher cell-membrane permeability and enzyme-binding reactivity; and cadmium is genuinely excluded from USEPA's six 'criteria pollutants' (CO, Pb, O3, NO2, PM, SO2) — lead, not cadmium, holds that status. Since no statement is actually false, this question is flawed at the source; option D is retained only because it matches the original key, not because it is demonstrably the incorrect statement.

Q87EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Which of the following is a secondary pollutant ?

  1. A.

    SO2SO_2

  2. B.

    CO2CO_2

  3. C.

    CO

  4. D.

    O3O_3

    Correct

Explanation

Ozone (O3) is a classic secondary pollutant, formed in the atmosphere through photochemical reactions between primary pollutants like nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds, unlike SO2, CO2 and CO which are emitted directly.

Q88EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Carbon monoxide is a pollutant because

  1. A.

    It reacts with oxygen

  2. B.

    It reacts with haemoglobin

    Correct
  3. C.

    It inhibits glycolysis

  4. D.

    It makes the nervous system inactive

Explanation

Carbon monoxide is toxic because it binds to haemoglobin far more strongly than oxygen does, forming carboxyhaemoglobin and reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity.

Q89Indian PolityJudiciarySupreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review

The Supreme Court of India imposed a ban on smoking of tobacco in public places all over the country in the year

  1. A.

    2003

  2. B.

    2002

  3. C.

    2001

    Correct
  4. D.

    2004

Explanation

In Murli S. Deora v. Union of India (2001), the Supreme Court of India banned smoking in public places across the country.

Q90EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

The carbon dioxide content in the earth's atmosphere is currently 400 ppm. It is estimated that before 1500 AD, the carbon dioxide content in the earth's atmosphere was between 200 and 250 ppm. Which of the following greatly contributed to this change ?

  1. A.

    American Revolution

  2. B.

    Industrial Revolution

    Correct
  3. C.

    Invention of Agriculture

  4. D.

    World Wars I and II

Explanation

Atmospheric CO2 concentration rose from roughly 280 ppm (pre-industrial, historically around 200-250 ppm in earlier estimates) to about 400 ppm today, an increase largely driven by fossil-fuel combustion since the Industrial Revolution.

Q91EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The temporary hardness of water is caused due to

  1. A.

    Magnesium Sulphate

  2. B.

    Magnesium Carbonate

    Correct
  3. C.

    Magnesium Chloride

  4. D.

    Calcium Sulphate

Explanation

Temporary (carbonate) hardness of water is caused by the dissolved bicarbonates/carbonates of calcium and magnesium, which precipitate out on boiling — distinguishing it from permanent hardness caused by sulphates and chlorides.

Q92EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

According to the United State Geological Survey, water having less than 500 mg/l of total dissolved solids is

  1. A.

    Fresh water

    Correct
  2. B.

    Slightly saline water

  3. C.

    Moderately saline water

  4. D.

    Brine water

Explanation

The USGS classifies water with less than 1,000 mg/l (and certainly under 500 mg/l) of total dissolved solids as fresh water, as opposed to slightly, moderately or very saline water.

Q93EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

For survival of fish in a river stream the minimum dissolved oxygen prescribed is

  1. A.

    4 ppm

    Correct
  2. B.

    3 ppm

  3. C.

    10 ppm

  4. D.

    5 ppm

Explanation

A minimum dissolved oxygen level of about 4 to 5 ppm is generally prescribed as necessary to support healthy fish survival and reproduction in river streams.

Q94EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

For treating the sewage of a large city, you will recommend

  1. A.

    A sedimentation tank with low rate trickling filter

  2. B.

    A sedimentation tank with high rate trickling filter

  3. C.

    A sedimentation tank and an activated sludge treatment plant

    Correct
  4. D.

    A plant consisting of the Imhoff tank with low rate trickling filter

Explanation

For treating the large sewage volumes of a big city, a sedimentation tank followed by an activated sludge plant is generally recommended because it offers higher treatment capacity and efficiency in a compact footprint compared to trickling filters.

Q95EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The following unit is not used to measure the turbidity of water :

  1. A.

    FTU

  2. B.

    JTU

  3. C.

    NTU

  4. D.

    ATU

    Correct

Explanation

Turbidity is conventionally measured in units such as FTU (Formazin Turbidity Unit), JTU (Jackson Turbidity Unit) or NTU (Nephelometric Turbidity Unit); 'ATU' is not a recognized turbidity measurement unit.

Q96EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Which of these produces methane during the wastewater treatment process ?

  1. A.

    Activated sludge

  2. B.

    Trickling filter

  3. C.

    Anaerobic digestion

    Correct
  4. D.

    Aerobic oxidation

Explanation

Anaerobic digestion of sludge/wastewater, carried out in the absence of oxygen, breaks down organic matter and produces biogas rich in methane.

Q97EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In water treatment procedures the purpose of coagulation and flocculation is to

  1. A.

    Disinfect water supply

  2. B.

    Remove microorganism, organic matter and suspended fine particles

    Correct
  3. C.

    Remove taste and odor problems

  4. D.

    Soften the water by removing calcium and magnesium

Explanation

Coagulation and flocculation destabilize and clump together fine suspended particles, microorganisms and organic matter into larger flocs so they can be removed by subsequent settling and filtration.

Q98EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The function of the automobile catalytic converter is to control emissions of

  1. A.

    Carbon dioxide and Hydrogen

  2. B.

    Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide

  3. C.

    Carbon monoxide and Hydrogen

  4. D.

    Carbon monoxide and Nitrogen dioxide

    Correct

Explanation

A three-way automotive catalytic converter targets exactly three pollutant classes: it oxidizes carbon monoxide (CO) and unburned hydrocarbons to CO2/H2O while reducing nitrogen oxides (NOx) to N2 — hydrogen is never a targeted combustion pollutant. Among the given options, D (carbon monoxide and nitrogen dioxide) is the only pair drawn from the converter's actual target classes (CO and NOx), confirming D as correct over any option that substitutes hydrogen or carbon dioxide for one of the real targets.

Q99EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The threshold concentration of sulphur dioxide in any industrial activity should not be permitted beyond

  1. A.

    2 ppm

  2. B.

    3 ppm

  3. C.

    4 ppm

  4. D.

    5 ppm

    Correct

Explanation

Regulatory threshold limits commonly cap permissible sulphur dioxide concentration from industrial activity at around 5 ppm to limit its respiratory and environmental impact.

Q100EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Which of the following is used as an anti knock compound in gasoline ?

  1. A.

    Tetramethyl lead

  2. B.

    Trimethyl lead

  3. C.

    Tetraethyl lead

    Correct
  4. D.

    Triethyl lead

Explanation

Tetraethyl lead was historically added to gasoline as an anti-knock compound to improve octane rating and prevent premature (knocking) combustion in engines, before being phased out due to lead pollution concerns.

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