Q1Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
To Safeguard its environment India passed the 42nd amendment to its constitution in
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Article 48-A (a Directive Principle on environmental protection) and Article 51-A(g) (a Fundamental Duty), marking India's first explicit constitutional environmental provisions.
Q2Environment › International Environmental Efforts › UN Environmental Reports
'Agenda 21' is associated with
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan for sustainable development adopted at the UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
Q3Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Waste water treatment plants use lime to
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Lime (calcium hydroxide) is an alkaline chemical added in wastewater treatment to raise the pH of acidic effluents and to aid coagulation and softening.
Q4Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
An easily flammable substance is said to be hazardous if it has a flash point of below
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Under hazardous chemical classification norms, a substance with a flash point below 60°C is classified as easily flammable and therefore hazardous.
Q5Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In water treatment plants boiler corrosion is due to dissolved
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Dissolved oxygen in boiler feed water is highly corrosive to metal surfaces, causing pitting corrosion inside boilers; it is normally removed by deaeration before use.
Q6Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The process of wet steam formation in boilers is called
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Priming is the phenomenon in boilers where water droplets are carried along with the steam due to violent boiling or an excessively high water level, producing wet steam.
Q7Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Peeling of ozone umbrella which protects us from UV rays is caused by
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), once widely used as refrigerants and aerosol propellants, release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere that catalytically destroy ozone molecules, depleting the ozone layer that shields Earth from UV radiation.
Q8Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Where was the 33 nation UN conference on acid rain held in july 1982?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
A UN conference on acid rain involving 33 nations was held in Stockholm, Sweden, in July 1982, amid growing international concern over transboundary acid rain damage.
Q9Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
ISO 14000 families of standards was created in 1996 for the purpose of
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The ISO 14000 family of standards, introduced in 1996, gives organizations a framework for an effective environmental management system to control and improve their environmental performance in production processes.
Q10Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In an effluent treatment plant the secondary treatment stage results in the formation of
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
In an effluent treatment plant, the secondary (biological) treatment stage breaks down organic matter using microorganisms, producing biosolids (settled biological sludge) as a by-product.
Q11Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following is not in the 3T's principle of the combustion?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The 3T's principle of efficient combustion refers to Temperature, Time, and Turbulence; turbidity is a water-clarity parameter unrelated to combustion.
Q12Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Poisoning due to which of the following chemical leads to minamata disease
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Minamata disease is a severe neurological disorder caused by mercury poisoning, first identified in Minamata, Japan, after industrial wastewater discharged methylmercury into the bay.
Q13Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › Wetlands & Ramsar Sites
Revolution involving conservation and management of freshwater is said to be
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The 'Blue Revolution' (also called the Neel Kranti Mission) is India's fisheries and aquaculture development programme, centred on the sustainable use and management of the country's water resources -- including ponds, tanks, and other freshwater bodies -- for fish production. Its scope is narrower than a generic 'freshwater conservation' programme, but it is the only water-resource-linked colour revolution among the given options and is the standard answer used in Indian exam convention for this category of question.
Q14Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Emphysema in urban population is associated with accumulation of
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Chronic accumulation of particulate matter in the lungs of urban residents damages alveolar walls over time, contributing to emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
Q15Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Fluoride pollution mainly effects
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Excess fluoride in drinking water primarily affects teeth, causing dental fluorosis (mottling and discoloration of enamel); at higher chronic doses it can also affect bones (skeletal fluorosis).
Q16Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
Which of the following ISO standards is used to implement effective environment management system?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
ISO 14001 is the international standard specifying requirements for an effective Environmental Management System (EMS), enabling organizations to manage their environmental responsibilities systematically.
Q17Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Pollution due to which of the following natural disasters leads to 0.5-10% reduction in direct sunlight?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Volcanic eruptions inject large quantities of ash and sulphate aerosols into the atmosphere, which scatter and block a fraction (roughly 0.5-10%) of incoming direct sunlight, sometimes causing measurable short-term cooling.
Q18Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › National Environmental Authorities
The apex administrative body in the country for regulating and ensuring environmental protection is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the apex administrative body in India responsible for regulating and ensuring environmental protection.
Q19Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The health impact indicated by an AQI of 0-50 is
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
As per the Central Pollution Control Board's Air Quality Index, a score of 0-50 falls in the 'Good' category, indicating minimal health impact.
Q20Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The number of Sections in the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) act 1981 is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 contains 54 sections spread across its chapters, providing the legal framework for air pollution regulation in India.
Q21Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
No untreated bio medical watse shall be stored beyond a period of
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, untreated biomedical waste must not be stored for more than 48 hours, to limit decomposition and infection risk.
Q22Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
Watse from toilets is labelled as
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Under biomedical/liquid waste colour-coding norms, waste from toilets and similar chemical liquid waste is designated as black category waste.
Q23Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
Chapter III of the water (prevention and control pollution) Act 1974 deals with
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Chapter III (Sections 13-15) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is titled 'Joint Boards' and deals with the constitution of Joint Boards formed by agreement between contiguous States (or the Centre and a Union Territory). It is actually Chapter II that establishes the main Central and State Pollution Control Boards, and Chapter VI that covers 'Funds, Accounts and Audit'; among the given options, 'constitution of boards' (option B) is still the closest and intended match, since the entirety of Chapter III's content is the constitution of a board (a joint one).
Q24Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
A waste is said to be toxic if it has a toxicity level of above
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
A waste is classified as toxic under hazardous waste rules if its lethality exceeds the LD50 threshold specified in the relevant schedules.
Q25Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The section of Chapter III of Environment Protection Act 1986 that deals with penalties is
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 prescribes penalties for contravention of the Act's provisions, rules, orders, and directions.
Q26Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
The most common method for treatment of biomedical waste is
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Incineration — controlled high-temperature combustion — is the most common method for treating biomedical waste, since it effectively destroys pathogens and reduces waste volume.
Q27Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
A very effective medium for adsorption of organic molecules in industrial waste effluent is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Activated charcoal has an extremely high surface area and porosity, making it a highly effective adsorbent for removing organic molecules from industrial waste effluent.
Q28Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
In STPs particulates are separated from dusty gases using
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Cyclone separators, wet scrubbers, and fabric filters are all standard equipment used to separate particulate matter from dusty industrial gas streams.
Q29Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
Arrange the thermal process and its respective conversion products
| |
|---|
| (a) Combustion | (i) Low-energy gas |
| (b) Gasification | (ii) Medium-energy gas, liquid fuels |
| (c) Wet Oxidation | (iii) Energy in the form of steam |
| (d) Pyrolysis | (iv) Organic acids |
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Combustion yields energy in the form of steam, gasification yields low-energy gas, wet oxidation produces organic acids, and pyrolysis yields medium-energy gas and liquid fuels — giving the matching code (iii)(i)(iv)(ii).
Q30Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In an STP the portion of imhoff tank which prevents the entry of sludge particles into the sedimentation chamber through the slot is called
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
In an Imhoff tank, the neutral zone is the gap between the sedimentation chamber's slot and the sludge digestion chamber below, preventing rising sludge/gas from re-entering the settling zone.
Q31Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
According to the bio medical waste management rules, Human Anatomical Waste should be discarded only in
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, human anatomical waste must be discarded only in yellow-coloured bags/containers meant for incineration or deep burial.
Q32Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The bio medical waste management (Amendment) rules 2018 stipulates that it shall be the duty of every occupier to phase out use of chlorinated plastic bags (except blood bags) and gloves by
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The Bio-Medical Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2018 required occupiers to phase out chlorinated plastic bags (except blood bags) and gloves by 27th March 2019.
Q33Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Which article of Indian Constitution recognizes Environment Protection as one of the Fundamental duties of a citizen?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Article 51-A(g), inserted by the 42nd Amendment, casts a Fundamental Duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.
Q34Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board has to follow the guidelines of Environment (Protection) Act 1986 under
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
State Pollution Control Boards, including KSPCB, follow the standards laid down under Schedule VI of the Environment (Protection) Rules framed under the EPA, 1986.
Q35Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The oil spills in water that can be removed by using the by-product of paper industry is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Bregoli, a lightweight cellulose-based by-product of the paper industry, is used to absorb and remove oil spills from water surfaces.
Q36Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
The water (Prevention and control of pollution) act 1974 was enacted in Indian constitution under
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was enacted under Article 252(1) of the Constitution, which allows Parliament to legislate on a State List subject at the request of two or more states.
Q37Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The Most Probable Number test is conducted to detect the coliforms from
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Most Probable Number (MPN) test estimates coliform bacteria concentration and can be applied to water, soil, air, and other environmental samples to assess microbial contamination.
Q38Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
For children, the World Health Organization (WHO) recommends no exposure above
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The World Health Organization recommends that children's noise exposure should not exceed 120 dB, since exposure beyond this threshold significantly raises the risk of noise-induced hearing damage.
Q39Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the India standards
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
As per Indian drinking water standards (BIS IS 10500), the permissible pH range for potable water is 6.5 to 8.5.
Q40Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
The part 4 copy of the manifest system of hazardous waste according to "Hazardous Waste Management, handling and trans boundary movement rules" is retained by
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Under the six-copy, colour-coded manifest (Form 13) prescribed by the Hazardous Wastes Rules, the operator of the treatment/storage/disposal facility (TSDF), on receiving the consignment, returns Copy 4 (orange) to the transporter as proof of delivery, while the generator/occupier keeps Copy 2, the TSDF retains Copy 3, and Copies 1, 5 and 6 go to the State Pollution Control Board and back to the generator. This confirms the transporter as the party that retains Part 4.
Q41Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Handigodu Syndrome of Malnadu region mainly causes
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Handigodu Syndrome, endemic to the Malnad region of Karnataka, is a crippling, deforming osteoarthritis of the joints, believed to be linked to toxins from contaminated local food/water sources.
Q42Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Which is the most reliable method of measuring water pollution?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
Biochemical Oxygen Demand
- D.
Photochemical Oxygen Demand
Explanation
Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total oxidizable content of a water sample using a strong oxidant, giving fast, reproducible results independent of microbial variability, making it a reliable indicator of pollution load.
Q43Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of water due to
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Blue Baby Syndrome (infant methemoglobinemia) is caused by high nitrate levels in drinking water, which convert hemoglobin into methemoglobin and reduce the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity in infants.
Q44Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
As per the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board, the BOD standard value of the UGD effluent discharge should be
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
As per Karnataka State Pollution Control Board discharge standards, the permissible BOD level for underground drainage (UGD) effluent discharge is 20 mg/L.
Q45Current Affairs › Days & Observances › International & National Observance Days
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer (World Ozone Day) is observed on 16th September every year, marking the 1987 signing of the Montreal Protocol.
Q46Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The particulate pollutants of air can be controlled by
(A) Cyclonic separators
(B) Trajectory separators
(C) Scrubbers
Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Cyclonic separators, trajectory separators, and scrubbers are all recognized mechanical methods for removing particulate pollutants from air streams.
Q47Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The formation of photochemical smog under intense solar radiation and warm conditions is called
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Photochemical smog, formed when sunlight reacts with nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds under warm conditions, is commonly called 'brown air' due to the brownish haze of nitrogen dioxide and ozone.
Q48Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
Which of the following industrial area is the highest critically polluted area?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Ankleshwar in Gujarat has consistently ranked among India's most critically polluted industrial clusters under the Central Pollution Control Board's Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI).
Q49Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
According to "Hazardous Waste Management, handling and trans boundary movement rules" which of the following is a false statement?
- A.
Import of hazardous waste from any country shall be permitted only for recycling, recovery and reuse
- B.
Import of hazardous waste from any country shall be permitted only for disposal
Correct - C.
No import of waste specified in schedule IV of HWM
- D.
Import of wastes in Schedule III may be allowed to actual users with MOEF permission
Explanation
Under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules, import of hazardous waste is permitted only for recycling, recovery, and reuse — not for disposal — so the claim that import is allowed 'only for disposal' is false.
Q50Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
The following recycled plastic powder was mixed with bitumen that is used to lay roads in bangalore
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Polyblend, a shredded waste-plastic powder, is mixed with bitumen to lay more durable plastic-modified roads, a technique used in Bangalore.
Q51Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Environment & Energy Initiatives
What is the BOD value of Ulsoor lake as per the Central Pollution Control Board report 2011?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
As per the Central Pollution Control Board's 2011 report, Ulsoor Lake in Bangalore recorded a BOD value of about 13 mg/L, reflecting significant organic pollution.
Q52Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The plant growth is seriously stopped due to the dust released from thermal power stations contain
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Pulverized fly ash released from thermal power station chimneys settles on plant leaves and soil, blocking stomata and photosynthesis, seriously stunting plant growth.
Q53Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Sound levels exceeding about 80 decibels are generally classified as hazardous noise pollution, capable of causing hearing damage with prolonged exposure.
Q54Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
The ambient noise levels at the industrial zone as per the CPCB are
- A.
75 dB (day) and 70 dB (Night)
Correct - B.
100 dB (day) and 90 dB (Night)
- C.
50 dB (day) and 45 dB (Night)
- D.
60 dB (day) and 55 dB (Night)
Explanation
As per CPCB ambient noise standards, the permissible level in industrial zones is 75 dB during the day and 70 dB at night.
Q55Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
When the ambient sound intensity is equals to the reference intensity, the sound level will be
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Sound level in decibels is 10·log10(I/I0); when the measured intensity equals the reference intensity, the ratio is 1 and log(1)=0, giving a sound level of 0 dB.
Q56Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
The stress levels of a person may be increased due to the secretion of which of the following hormone by the noise pollution?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Chronic exposure to noise pollution triggers elevated secretion of Neuropeptide Y, a stress-related neurohormone linked to increased anxiety and cardiovascular stress responses.
Q57Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
During the incineration of a large biomedical waste the following carcinogenic substance is released
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Incineration of biomedical or chlorinated plastic waste, especially at insufficient temperature, can generate dioxins — a group of highly toxic, persistent, carcinogenic compounds.
Q58Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
ISO 14010 deals with
(A) Environmental Auditing
(B) Environmental Assurance
(C) Sustainable Development
Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
ISO 14010 lays down the general principles of environmental auditing, distinct from ISO standards dealing with EMS certification or performance evaluation.
Q59Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › National Environmental Authorities
The Indian eco mark logo is
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Indian Ecomark logo, used to certify environment-friendly products, is depicted as an earthen pot, symbolizing traditional, resource-efficient practices.
Q60Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Interior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes
- A.
Debris released from volcano
Correct - B.
Substances injected faults to relieve pressure
- C.
Material released from rifts on the floor of the ocean
- D.
The depressed region inside the cone of an inactive volcano
Explanation
Ejecta refers to the ash, rock fragments, and pyroclastic debris violently expelled from a volcano during an eruption.
Q61Environment › Biodiversity › Coral Reefs
Coral reefs are widely distributed in
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Coral reefs are built by colonies of coral polyps whose symbiotic zooxanthellae algae need sunlight to photosynthesize, restricting reef-building corals to warm (roughly 20-32C), shallow, clear tropical and subtropical waters -- which is why major reef systems such as the Great Barrier Reef, Lakshadweep, and the Andamans all occur in warm shallow seas rather than cold or deep water.
Q62Environment › Pollution › Pollution Laws & Rules
The principle type of chemical hazards include all of the following except
- A.
toxic and hazardous substance
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The principal categories of chemical hazards include toxic/hazardous substances, mutagens, and teratogens; 'zymogenes' is not a recognized hazard classification (a zymogen is an inactive enzyme precursor).
Q63Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
Which of the following method should not be used for treating the yellow category of biomedical waste?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Yellow category biomedical waste (human anatomical waste, soiled waste, expired drugs, etc.) is treated by incineration, deep burial, or plasma pyrolysis; microwave treatment is used for other categories such as plastics and sharps, not yellow category waste.
Q64Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Photochemical smog is formed when primary pollutants interact with
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Photochemical smog forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react in the presence of strong sunlight, producing secondary pollutants like ozone and PAN.
Q65Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
- A.
causes the blood to carry too much oxygen
- B.
- C.
causes headaches and dizziness
Correct - D.
sharpens thinking and perceptions
Explanation
Carbon monoxide binds strongly to hemoglobin, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, which causes symptoms such as headaches and dizziness even at moderate exposure.
Q66Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
A good indicator of water quality for drinking or swimming is the absence of number of colonies of
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The absence of coliform bacteria colonies is a standard indicator used to judge whether water is safe for drinking or swimming, since coliforms signal likely fecal contamination.
Q67Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Of the following chemicals, which is least likely to be biologically magnified as it moves through food webs
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Unlike persistent, fat-soluble compounds such as DDT, mercury compounds, and radioactive isotopes, nitrates are water-soluble and readily metabolized or excreted, so they do not significantly biomagnify up the food chain.
Q68Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
A waste is considered hazardous if it possesses one of the four properties. Which of the following is not one of those properties?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The standard criteria that classify a waste as hazardous are flammability, corrosivity, reactivity (instability), and toxicity; solubility is not one of these defining characteristics.
Q69Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
Of the following materials the most difficult to recycle is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Whether glass or plastic is 'hardest to recycle' depends on the criterion used: by actual recycling rates and reprocessing complexity, plastics are generally considered harder because of the many distinct polymer types, chemical additives, and quality loss with each reprocessing cycle, whereas glass, though heavy and prone to breakage, can in principle be recycled indefinitely without loss of quality. This option is taken as correct per the source's convention, which instead emphasizes glass's need for colour-sorting and energy-intensive high-temperature remelting, though plastic is equally defensible as the more commonly cited answer.
Q70Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
Flying foxes are recognized as
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Flying foxes (large fruit bats) are a textbook keystone species: their long-distance foraging makes them primary pollinators and seed dispersers for many tropical trees (e.g., durian, wild fig, mango), and documented declines in flying-fox colonies have been linked to reduced forest regeneration disproportionate to the bats' own population size -- the defining trait of a keystone species. They are also native, not alien, to the regions where this ecological role is documented, ruling out option B.
Q71Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
The green house gas produced from paddy field is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Flooded paddy fields create waterlogged, anaerobic soil conditions in which methanogenic archaea decompose organic matter and release methane as a metabolic by-product. This makes rice cultivation one of the largest anthropogenic sources of atmospheric methane -- a far more potent greenhouse gas per molecule than water vapour -- which is the standard, well-documented textbook answer.
Q72Current Affairs › Days & Observances › International & National Observance Days
World water day is observed on
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
World Water Day is observed annually on 22nd March to raise awareness about the importance of freshwater and the sustainable management of water resources.
Q73Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
The term acid rain in 1872 was coined by
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The term 'acid rain' was coined in 1872 by the Scottish chemist Robert Angus Smith, who studied the effects of industrial air pollution on rainfall around Manchester.
Q74Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Atmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds
The ozone is found in which of the following atmospheric layer
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The ozone layer sits in the stratosphere (roughly 15-50 km altitude), where UV radiation splits O2 molecules that recombine into O3, absorbing most of the sun's harmful UV-B and UV-C radiation. 'Hemisphere' is a geographic division of the globe, not an atmospheric layer, so it cannot be a valid option, confirming the stratosphere as correct.
Q75Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following technology provides conservation of raw dust into smoke less fuel?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Torrefaction ('torketing') is a mild pyrolysis process that converts raw biomass/dust into a smokeless, energy-dense solid fuel, reducing particulate air pollution from combustion.
Q76Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Ozone hole first discovered by :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Antarctic ozone hole was first discovered in 1985 by British Antarctic Survey scientist Joe Farman and colleagues, who detected a dramatic seasonal decline in stratospheric ozone.
Q77Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Methaemoglobinemia is the disease of infants due to consumption of water polluted with :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Methaemoglobinemia (Blue Baby Syndrome) occurs when infants ingest nitrate-contaminated water; gut bacteria reduce nitrate to nitrite, which oxidizes the ferrous iron in haemoglobin to ferric iron, forming methaemoglobin that cannot carry oxygen. This is the basis for the WHO/BIS nitrate limit in drinking water and is distinct from mercury poisoning, which instead causes Minamata disease, confirming nitrate as correct.
Q78Environment › Ecology & Ecosystem › Biogeochemical Cycles (Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Sulphur)
The type of cycle which represents sedimentary phase as well as gaseous phase of nutrient cycling is known as :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The sulphur cycle is distinctive among the major biogeochemical cycles for having both a gaseous phase (sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide circulating through the atmosphere) and a sedimentary phase (sulphur locked in rocks, soils, and ocean sediments as sulphate minerals, released only by weathering). The carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen cycles are, by contrast, classified as predominantly gaseous since their main reservoir is the atmosphere, making sulphur the standard textbook example of a hybrid sedimentary-gaseous cycle.
Q79Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
- A.
Environmental Impact Assessment
Correct - B.
Educational Indirect Assessment
- C.
Environment Impact Analysis
- D.
Environment Internal Assessment
Explanation
EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a process used to evaluate the likely environmental consequences of a proposed project before it is undertaken.
Q80Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
Carbon dioxide concentration in the Earth's atmosphere is about ____
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Direct atmospheric measurement (e.g., NOAA's Mauna Loa observatory) shows CO2 has risen from a pre-industrial baseline near 280 ppm to about 420 ppm today; 400 ppm was the milestone globally crossed around 2015-16 and is the figure most textbooks and exams use as the 'current' approximate concentration, ruling out the far lower 100 ppm option.
Q81Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Conventional Energy Sources (Coal, Oil, Gas)
What is meant by cogeneration?
- A.
simultaneous generation of power and heat
Correct - B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Cogeneration, or combined heat and power (CHP), is the standard engineering term for using a single fuel source to simultaneously generate electricity and useful thermal energy (steam/heat) for industrial or space-heating use, raising overall fuel-to-useful-energy efficiency well above that of generating power alone. This matches option A exactly and has no connection to cooking-gas or coolant generation.
Q82Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
Which of the following is not a direct Greenhouse gas but an indirect greenshouse gas
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
CO2, CH4, and N2O are 'direct' greenhouse gases because their molecular structure lets them absorb and re-emit infrared radiation themselves. Nitric oxide (NO), by contrast, does not trap outgoing longwave radiation directly; it is an 'indirect' greenhouse gas because it drives atmospheric chemistry (e.g., tropospheric ozone formation and reactions affecting methane's atmospheric lifetime) that increases warming indirectly.
Q83Biology › Diseases › Communicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)
Which of the following is not a water borne disease?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Typhoid, cholera, and hepatitis A are all classic faecal-orally transmitted water-borne diseases, caused by pathogens (Salmonella typhi, Vibrio cholerae, Hepatitis A virus) spread through contaminated drinking water. Scabies, however, is caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite and spreads through direct, prolonged skin-to-skin contact (or contaminated bedding/clothing), not water, making it the correct 'not water-borne' answer.
Q84Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a discharge Q is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The overflow (settling) velocity in a sedimentation tank equals the discharge divided by the tank's plan surface area, i.e., V = Q/(L×B), where L and B are the tank's length and width.
Q85Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
The total dissolved solids (TDS) can be reduced by the following method
(A) distillation
(B) reverse osmosis
(C) ion exchange
Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Distillation removes dissolved solids by evaporating and re-condensing pure water, leaving solids behind; reverse osmosis forces water through a semi-permeable membrane that rejects dissolved ions; and ion exchange replaces unwanted dissolved ions with other ions on a resin bed. All three are independently well-documented, standard TDS-reduction technologies in water treatment practice, so 'A, B and C' (option D) is correct.
Q86Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
Higher turbidity in the effluent
- D.
Explanation
Air binding in rapid sand filters occurs when excessive negative head develops within the filter bed, causing dissolved air in the water to come out of solution and block the pores of the filter medium.
Q87Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
If 'D' is the diameter of upper circular portion, the area of cross-section of a standard egg shaped sewer, is
- A.
[(12 + 5π)32] D2
- B.
[(18 + 5π)32] D2
- C.
[(18 + 5π)16] D2
Correct - D.
[(82 + 5π)32] D2
Explanation
The cross-sectional area of a standard egg-shaped sewer is expressed as a fixed multiple of the square of the upper circular portion's diameter, D, a standard relation used in sewer hydraulic design.
Q88Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Match the content of fluoride and its relative disorders
(a) Less than 1.5 mg/l (i) Crippling fluorosis
(b) between 1.5-3 mg/l (ii) Mottled dentition
(c) between 4-8 mg/l (iii) Dental caries
(d) More than 10 mg/l (iv) Skeletal fluorosis
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The dose-response relationship for fluoride in drinking water is well documented: below about 1.5 mg/l fluoride intake is often insufficient to protect against dental caries, 1.5-3 mg/l causes mottled dentition (dental fluorosis), 4-8 mg/l causes skeletal fluorosis, and above 10 mg/l causes crippling fluorosis. This gives the matching sequence (iii)(ii)(iv)(i), i.e., option B.
Q89Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 3 mg/litre after incubating 5 ml of sewage diluted to 300 ml for 5 days at 20 °C, B. O. D. of the sewage is
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
BOD is calculated as the measured oxygen depletion multiplied by the dilution factor (total diluted volume divided by sample volume): 3 mg/L x (300 mL / 5 mL) = 3 x 60 = 180 mg/L. This is the arithmetically correct result of the standard BOD dilution formula, confirming option D.
Q90Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
If G is the specific gravity of particles of diameter d, the velocity of settlement V in still water at T °C, according to Stoke's law, is
- A.
V = 418 (G-1)d4 [(3T + 70)/100]
- B.
V = 418 (G-1)d [(3T - 70)/100]
- C.
V = 418 (G-1)d2 [(2T + 70)/100]
- D.
V = 418 (G-1)d2 [(3T + 70)/100]
Correct
Explanation
The standard simplified form of Stokes' law used for sedimentation-tank design (per Fair, Geyer & Okun and CPHEEO practice) is V = 418(G-1)d^2[(3T+70)/100]: settling velocity varies with the square of particle diameter, consistent with Stokes drag physics (drag force scales with d, particle weight scales with d^3, so terminal velocity scales with d^2), not with d^4 as option A states. Option D carries the same coefficients as A but the correct d^2 exponent, so the source's original choice of option A is corrected to option D.
Q91Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Hazen and William's formula for calculating the sewage flow under pressure is
- A.
V = 0.85 C R0.63 S0.54
Correct - B.
V = 0.75 C R0.53 S0.54
- C.
V = 0.65 C R0.43 S0.54
- D.
V = 0.55 C R0.33 S0.54
Explanation
The Hazen-Williams formula for flow velocity in pressure pipes/force mains, in SI (metric) units, is V = 0.85 C R^0.63 S^0.54, where C is the pipe roughness coefficient, R the hydraulic radius, and S the slope -- this is the standard, universally tabulated form of the equation (the more precise coefficient is 0.849, rounded to 0.85 in most textbooks), confirming option A and ruling out the R^0.53 variant in option B.
Q92Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Length of the grit chamber = flow velocity × detention time = 0.2 m/s × 120 s = 24 m.
Q93Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
For a fixed dry-solids mass, sludge volume varies inversely with the solids fraction: at 98% moisture the solids content is 2%, and at 96% moisture it is 4% (twice as concentrated), so the sludge volume at 96% moisture is half (X/2) of that at 98% moisture.
Q94Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Match the processes used to remove the solids from the waste water
(a) Suspended Solids (i) Coagulation
(b) Colloidal Solids (ii) Ion exchange
(c) Inorganic Solids (iii) Activated sludge process
(d) Organic Solids (iv) Sedimentation
Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Sedimentation removes suspended (settleable) solids under gravity; coagulation destabilizes and clumps colloidal solids too small to settle on their own; ion exchange removes dissolved inorganic ions on a resin bed; and the activated sludge process biologically oxidizes organic solids. This standard treatment-train pairing gives the sequence (iv)(i)(ii)(iii), i.e., option D.
Q95Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Among the following, which one is not water to air type aerator?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Aerators are classified by which phase is dispersed into the other: spray nozzles and cascade aerators break water into droplets and expose them to air (water-into-air, or gravity/fountain type), whereas both diffused-air systems and mechanical (surface/turbine) aerators work by introducing or entraining air into the body of water (air-into-water). Mechanical aerators are therefore correctly the odd one out among the given options -- not a water-to-air type.
Q96Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?
- A.
Activated sludge treatment
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Sludge digestion tanks are deliberately operated as sealed, oxygen-free reactors in which anaerobic bacteria break down organic solids in sludge, producing biogas (methane and CO2) -- a classic anaerobic process. Activated sludge treatment and trickling filters, in contrast, both rely on aerobic microorganisms and require continuous oxygen supply, making sludge digestion the correct anaerobic unit among the options.
Q97Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following pollutants is not a secondary pollutant?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Hydrocarbons are primary pollutants, emitted directly from sources such as vehicle exhaust, whereas ketones, sulphur trioxide, and PAN are secondary pollutants formed through atmospheric photochemical reactions.
Q98Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
In an experiment with high volume air sampler, sampling rate of air at the start of the experiment with clean filter was found to be 1.8 cum/min. After the actual sampling time of 24 hours, the sampling rate of air reduced to 1.7 cum/min. If the weight of the filter at the start and end of the test was 3.523 g and 3.476 g respectively, suspended particulate concentration is
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Suspended particulate concentration = (final filter weight - initial filter weight) / (average sampling flow rate x sampling duration) = (3.523 g - 3.476 g = 0.047 g = 47,000 micrograms) / [(1.8+1.7)/2 m3/min x 1440 min] = 47,000 / 2,520 ~= 18.65 micrograms/m3, confirming option A as the arithmetically correct result.
Q99Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
What is the volume of air required to oxidize completely the 1 tonne of waste? Assume air contains 23.15% oxygen by weight, the density of air 1.2928 kg/m3, and the total amount of oxygen required is 1329 kg/tonne.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Air required = (oxygen required ÷ fractional oxygen content by weight) ÷ air density = (1329 kg ÷ 0.2315) ÷ 1.2928 kg/m³ ≈ 4442 m³ per tonne of waste.
Q100Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
The ISO 14001 : 2015 is a
- A.
Quality Management System
- B.
Environmental Management System
Correct - C.
Occupational Health and Safety Administration System
- D.
Explanation
ISO 14001:2015 specifies the requirements for an Environmental Management System (EMS), helping organizations improve environmental performance through efficient resource use and waste reduction.