KPSC Departmental Exams - Environmental Eng/AEO 2019 — Paper 2 - Specific Paper

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Environment, Indian Polity, Current Affairs, Physical Geography (World), Physics, Biology.

Questions
100 questions
Duration
120 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.500
Q1EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

To Safeguard its environment India passed the 42nd amendment to its constitution in

  1. A.

    1961

  2. B.

    1980

  3. C.

    1976

    Correct
  4. D.

    1986

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 inserted Article 48-A (a Directive Principle on environmental protection) and Article 51-A(g) (a Fundamental Duty), marking India's first explicit constitutional environmental provisions.

Q2EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsUN Environmental Reports

'Agenda 21' is associated with

  1. A.

    UNESCO

  2. B.

    UNICEF

  3. C.

    WHO

  4. D.

    UNCED

    Correct

Explanation

Agenda 21 is a non-binding action plan for sustainable development adopted at the UN Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.

Q3EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Waste water treatment plants use lime to

  1. A.

    Reduce pH

  2. B.

    Increase pH

    Correct
  3. C.

    Coagulate

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Lime (calcium hydroxide) is an alkaline chemical added in wastewater treatment to raise the pH of acidic effluents and to aid coagulation and softening.

Q4EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

An easily flammable substance is said to be hazardous if it has a flash point of below

  1. A.

    0 °C

  2. B.

    30 °C

  3. C.

    60 °C

    Correct
  4. D.

    90 °C

Explanation

Under hazardous chemical classification norms, a substance with a flash point below 60°C is classified as easily flammable and therefore hazardous.

Q5EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In water treatment plants boiler corrosion is due to dissolved

  1. A.

    Carbon

  2. B.

    Hydrogen

  3. C.

    Nitrogen

  4. D.

    Oxygen

    Correct

Explanation

Dissolved oxygen in boiler feed water is highly corrosive to metal surfaces, causing pitting corrosion inside boilers; it is normally removed by deaeration before use.

Q6EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The process of wet steam formation in boilers is called

  1. A.

    priming

    Correct
  2. B.

    foaming

  3. C.

    steaming

  4. D.

    softening

Explanation

Priming is the phenomenon in boilers where water droplets are carried along with the steam due to violent boiling or an excessively high water level, producing wet steam.

Q7EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Peeling of ozone umbrella which protects us from UV rays is caused by

  1. A.

    PAN

  2. B.

    CFCs

    Correct
  3. C.

    CO2CO_{2}

  4. D.

    SO2SO_{2}

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), once widely used as refrigerants and aerosol propellants, release chlorine atoms in the stratosphere that catalytically destroy ozone molecules, depleting the ozone layer that shields Earth from UV radiation.

Q8EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Where was the 33 nation UN conference on acid rain held in july 1982?

  1. A.

    India

  2. B.

    Japan

  3. C.

    Stockholm

    Correct
  4. D.

    California

Explanation

A UN conference on acid rain involving 33 nations was held in Stockholm, Sweden, in July 1982, amid growing international concern over transboundary acid rain damage.

Q9EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

ISO 14000 families of standards was created in 1996 for the purpose of

  1. A.

    Production

    Correct
  2. B.

    Marketing

  3. C.

    Transportation

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

The ISO 14000 family of standards, introduced in 1996, gives organizations a framework for an effective environmental management system to control and improve their environmental performance in production processes.

Q10EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In an effluent treatment plant the secondary treatment stage results in the formation of

  1. A.

    Bio solids

    Correct
  2. B.

    Biocides

  3. C.

    Aerosols

  4. D.

    VOCs

Explanation

In an effluent treatment plant, the secondary (biological) treatment stage breaks down organic matter using microorganisms, producing biosolids (settled biological sludge) as a by-product.

Q11EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Which of the following is not in the 3T's principle of the combustion?

  1. A.

    Temperature

  2. B.

    Time

  3. C.

    Turbidity

    Correct
  4. D.

    Turbulence

Explanation

The 3T's principle of efficient combustion refers to Temperature, Time, and Turbulence; turbidity is a water-clarity parameter unrelated to combustion.

Q12EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Poisoning due to which of the following chemical leads to minamata disease

  1. A.

    Fluorine

  2. B.

    Lead

  3. C.

    Nickel

  4. D.

    Mercury

    Correct

Explanation

Minamata disease is a severe neurological disorder caused by mercury poisoning, first identified in Minamata, Japan, after industrial wastewater discharged methylmercury into the bay.

Q13EnvironmentConservation & Protected AreasWetlands & Ramsar Sites

Revolution involving conservation and management of freshwater is said to be

  1. A.

    green

  2. B.

    white

  3. C.

    blue

    Correct
  4. D.

    brown

Explanation

The 'Blue Revolution' (also called the Neel Kranti Mission) is India's fisheries and aquaculture development programme, centred on the sustainable use and management of the country's water resources -- including ponds, tanks, and other freshwater bodies -- for fish production. Its scope is narrower than a generic 'freshwater conservation' programme, but it is the only water-resource-linked colour revolution among the given options and is the standard answer used in Indian exam convention for this category of question.

Q14EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Emphysema in urban population is associated with accumulation of

  1. A.

    particulate matter

    Correct
  2. B.

    ethylene

  3. C.

    PAN

  4. D.

    ozone

Explanation

Chronic accumulation of particulate matter in the lungs of urban residents damages alveolar walls over time, contributing to emphysema, a form of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.

Q15EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Fluoride pollution mainly effects

  1. A.

    kidney

  2. B.

    brain

  3. C.

    teeth

    Correct
  4. D.

    heart

Explanation

Excess fluoride in drinking water primarily affects teeth, causing dental fluorosis (mottling and discoloration of enamel); at higher chronic doses it can also affect bones (skeletal fluorosis).

Q16EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

Which of the following ISO standards is used to implement effective environment management system?

  1. A.

    14004

  2. B.

    14001

    Correct
  3. C.

    14015

  4. D.

    14023

Explanation

ISO 14001 is the international standard specifying requirements for an effective Environmental Management System (EMS), enabling organizations to manage their environmental responsibilities systematically.

Q17EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Pollution due to which of the following natural disasters leads to 0.5-10% reduction in direct sunlight?

  1. A.

    Floods

  2. B.

    Earthquakes

  3. C.

    Tsunami

  4. D.

    Volcano

    Correct

Explanation

Volcanic eruptions inject large quantities of ash and sulphate aerosols into the atmosphere, which scatter and block a fraction (roughly 0.5-10%) of incoming direct sunlight, sometimes causing measurable short-term cooling.

Q18EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesNational Environmental Authorities

The apex administrative body in the country for regulating and ensuring environmental protection is

  1. A.

    MEA

  2. B.

    MHA

  3. C.

    MHFA

  4. D.

    MoFECC

    Correct

Explanation

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) is the apex administrative body in India responsible for regulating and ensuring environmental protection.

Q19EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The health impact indicated by an AQI of 0-50 is

  1. A.

    nil

  2. B.

    minimum

    Correct
  3. C.

    moderate

  4. D.

    maximum

Explanation

As per the Central Pollution Control Board's Air Quality Index, a score of 0-50 falls in the 'Good' category, indicating minimal health impact.

Q20EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

The number of Sections in the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) act 1981 is

  1. A.

    54

    Correct
  2. B.

    44

  3. C.

    34

  4. D.

    24

Explanation

The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 contains 54 sections spread across its chapters, providing the legal framework for air pollution regulation in India.

Q21EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

No untreated bio medical watse shall be stored beyond a period of

  1. A.

    24 h

  2. B.

    48 h

    Correct
  3. C.

    72 h

  4. D.

    96 h

Explanation

Under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, untreated biomedical waste must not be stored for more than 48 hours, to limit decomposition and infection risk.

Q22EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Watse from toilets is labelled as

  1. A.

    yellow

  2. B.

    black

    Correct
  3. C.

    green

  4. D.

    red

Explanation

Under biomedical/liquid waste colour-coding norms, waste from toilets and similar chemical liquid waste is designated as black category waste.

Q23EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

Chapter III of the water (prevention and control pollution) Act 1974 deals with

  1. A.

    preliminaries

  2. B.

    constitution of boards

    Correct
  3. C.

    funds and accounts

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

Chapter III (Sections 13-15) of the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 is titled 'Joint Boards' and deals with the constitution of Joint Boards formed by agreement between contiguous States (or the Centre and a Union Territory). It is actually Chapter II that establishes the main Central and State Pollution Control Boards, and Chapter VI that covers 'Funds, Accounts and Audit'; among the given options, 'constitution of boards' (option B) is still the closest and intended match, since the entirety of Chapter III's content is the constitution of a board (a joint one).

Q24EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

A waste is said to be toxic if it has a toxicity level of above

  1. A.

    LD 50

    Correct
  2. B.

    LD 70

  3. C.

    LD 80

  4. D.

    LD 90

Explanation

A waste is classified as toxic under hazardous waste rules if its lethality exceeds the LD50 threshold specified in the relevant schedules.

Q25EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

The section of Chapter III of Environment Protection Act 1986 that deals with penalties is

  1. A.

    12

  2. B.

    15

    Correct
  3. C.

    21

  4. D.

    25

Explanation

Section 15 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 prescribes penalties for contravention of the Act's provisions, rules, orders, and directions.

Q26EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

The most common method for treatment of biomedical waste is

  1. A.

    composting

  2. B.

    sanitary land fill

  3. C.

    incineration

    Correct
  4. D.

    vermiculture

Explanation

Incineration — controlled high-temperature combustion — is the most common method for treating biomedical waste, since it effectively destroys pathogens and reduces waste volume.

Q27EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

A very effective medium for adsorption of organic molecules in industrial waste effluent is

  1. A.

    activated charcoal

    Correct
  2. B.

    gravel

  3. C.

    sand

  4. D.

    phosphates

Explanation

Activated charcoal has an extremely high surface area and porosity, making it a highly effective adsorbent for removing organic molecules from industrial waste effluent.

Q28EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

In STPs particulates are separated from dusty gases using

  1. A.

    cyclone separators

  2. B.

    wet scrubbers

  3. C.

    fabric filters

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Cyclone separators, wet scrubbers, and fabric filters are all standard equipment used to separate particulate matter from dusty industrial gas streams.

Q29EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Arrange the thermal process and its respective conversion products

(a) Combustion(i) Low-energy gas
(b) Gasification(ii) Medium-energy gas, liquid fuels
(c) Wet Oxidation(iii) Energy in the form of steam
(d) Pyrolysis(iv) Organic acids

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    ii iii i iv

  2. B.

    ii i iv iii

  3. C.

    iii i iv ii

    Correct
  4. D.

    ii iv iii i

Explanation

Combustion yields energy in the form of steam, gasification yields low-energy gas, wet oxidation produces organic acids, and pyrolysis yields medium-energy gas and liquid fuels — giving the matching code (iii)(i)(iv)(ii).

Q30EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In an STP the portion of imhoff tank which prevents the entry of sludge particles into the sedimentation chamber through the slot is called

  1. A.

    Neutral Zone

    Correct
  2. B.

    Scum Chamber

  3. C.

    Sedimentation Chamber

  4. D.

    Digestion Chamber

Explanation

In an Imhoff tank, the neutral zone is the gap between the sedimentation chamber's slot and the sludge digestion chamber below, preventing rising sludge/gas from re-entering the settling zone.

Q31EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

According to the bio medical waste management rules, Human Anatomical Waste should be discarded only in

  1. A.

    red begs

  2. B.

    yellow begs

    Correct
  3. C.

    blue bags

  4. D.

    black bags

Explanation

Under the Bio-Medical Waste Management Rules, human anatomical waste must be discarded only in yellow-coloured bags/containers meant for incineration or deep burial.

Q32EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

The bio medical waste management (Amendment) rules 2018 stipulates that it shall be the duty of every occupier to phase out use of chlorinated plastic bags (except blood bags) and gloves by

  1. A.

    27th Jan., 2019

  2. B.

    27th Oct., 2018

  3. C.

    27th March, 2019

    Correct
  4. D.

    27th April, 2019

Explanation

The Bio-Medical Waste Management (Amendment) Rules, 2018 required occupiers to phase out chlorinated plastic bags (except blood bags) and gloves by 27th March 2019.

Q33Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

Which article of Indian Constitution recognizes Environment Protection as one of the Fundamental duties of a citizen?

  1. A.

    Article 42

  2. B.

    Article 48-A

  3. C.

    Article 51-A(g)

    Correct
  4. D.

    Article 52

Explanation

Article 51-A(g), inserted by the 42nd Amendment, casts a Fundamental Duty on every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife.

Q34EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

The Karnataka State Pollution Control Board has to follow the guidelines of Environment (Protection) Act 1986 under

  1. A.

    Schedule VI

    Correct
  2. B.

    Schedule I

  3. C.

    Schedule III

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

State Pollution Control Boards, including KSPCB, follow the standards laid down under Schedule VI of the Environment (Protection) Rules framed under the EPA, 1986.

Q35EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The oil spills in water that can be removed by using the by-product of paper industry is

  1. A.

    Bregoli

    Correct
  2. B.

    Saw dust

  3. C.

    Enamel

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Bregoli, a lightweight cellulose-based by-product of the paper industry, is used to absorb and remove oil spills from water surfaces.

Q36Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

The water (Prevention and control of pollution) act 1974 was enacted in Indian constitution under

  1. A.

    Article 252(1)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Article 356

  3. C.

    Article 272(1)

  4. D.

    Article 72

Explanation

The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974 was enacted under Article 252(1) of the Constitution, which allows Parliament to legislate on a State List subject at the request of two or more states.

Q37EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The Most Probable Number test is conducted to detect the coliforms from

  1. A.

    Waste Sample

  2. B.

    Air Sample

  3. C.

    Soil Sample

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

The Most Probable Number (MPN) test estimates coliform bacteria concentration and can be applied to water, soil, air, and other environmental samples to assess microbial contamination.

Q38EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

For children, the World Health Organization (WHO) recommends no exposure above

  1. A.

    100 dB

  2. B.

    140 dB

  3. C.

    120 dB

    Correct
  4. D.

    80 dB

Explanation

The World Health Organization recommends that children's noise exposure should not exceed 120 dB, since exposure beyond this threshold significantly raises the risk of noise-induced hearing damage.

Q39EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The permissible range of pH for drinking water as per the India standards

  1. A.

    6-9

  2. B.

    6.5-7.5

  3. C.

    6-8

  4. D.

    6.5-8.5

    Correct

Explanation

As per Indian drinking water standards (BIS IS 10500), the permissible pH range for potable water is 6.5 to 8.5.

Q40EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

The part 4 copy of the manifest system of hazardous waste according to "Hazardous Waste Management, handling and trans boundary movement rules" is retained by

  1. A.

    Generator

  2. B.

    Transporter

    Correct
  3. C.

    TSDF facility

  4. D.

    State EPA

Explanation

Under the six-copy, colour-coded manifest (Form 13) prescribed by the Hazardous Wastes Rules, the operator of the treatment/storage/disposal facility (TSDF), on receiving the consignment, returns Copy 4 (orange) to the transporter as proof of delivery, while the generator/occupier keeps Copy 2, the TSDF retains Copy 3, and Copies 1, 5 and 6 go to the State Pollution Control Board and back to the generator. This confirms the transporter as the party that retains Part 4.

Q41EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Handigodu Syndrome of Malnadu region mainly causes

  1. A.

    Osteoarthritis

    Correct
  2. B.

    Fluorosis

  3. C.

    Asthma

  4. D.

    Cancer

Explanation

Handigodu Syndrome, endemic to the Malnad region of Karnataka, is a crippling, deforming osteoarthritis of the joints, believed to be linked to toxins from contaminated local food/water sources.

Q42EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Which is the most reliable method of measuring water pollution?

  1. A.

    Biological Oxygen Demand

  2. B.

    Chemical Oxygen Demand

    Correct
  3. C.

    Biochemical Oxygen Demand

  4. D.

    Photochemical Oxygen Demand

Explanation

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) measures the total oxidizable content of a water sample using a strong oxidant, giving fast, reproducible results independent of microbial variability, making it a reliable indicator of pollution load.

Q43EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Blue Baby Syndrome is caused by the contamination of water due to

  1. A.

    Arsenic

  2. B.

    Sulphur

  3. C.

    Nitrate

    Correct
  4. D.

    Fluoride

Explanation

Blue Baby Syndrome (infant methemoglobinemia) is caused by high nitrate levels in drinking water, which convert hemoglobin into methemoglobin and reduce the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity in infants.

Q44EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

As per the Karnataka State Pollution Control Board, the BOD standard value of the UGD effluent discharge should be

  1. A.

    20 mg/L

    Correct
  2. B.

    1 mg/L

  3. C.

    5 mg/L

  4. D.

    100 mg/L

Explanation

As per Karnataka State Pollution Control Board discharge standards, the permissible BOD level for underground drainage (UGD) effluent discharge is 20 mg/L.

Q45Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

Ozone day is observed on

  1. A.

    30th January

  2. B.

    21st April

  3. C.

    16th September

    Correct
  4. D.

    8th June

Explanation

The International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer (World Ozone Day) is observed on 16th September every year, marking the 1987 signing of the Montreal Protocol.

Q46EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The particulate pollutants of air can be controlled by

(A) Cyclonic separators (B) Trajectory separators (C) Scrubbers

Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    A only

  2. B.

    B only

  3. C.

    C only

  4. D.

    A, B and C

    Correct

Explanation

Cyclonic separators, trajectory separators, and scrubbers are all recognized mechanical methods for removing particulate pollutants from air streams.

Q47EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The formation of photochemical smog under intense solar radiation and warm conditions is called

  1. A.

    Brown air

    Correct
  2. B.

    Grey air

  3. C.

    Blue air

  4. D.

    Red air

Explanation

Photochemical smog, formed when sunlight reacts with nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds under warm conditions, is commonly called 'brown air' due to the brownish haze of nitrogen dioxide and ozone.

Q48EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

Which of the following industrial area is the highest critically polluted area?

  1. A.

    Ankleshwar

    Correct
  2. B.

    Mahabaleshwar

  3. C.

    Noida

  4. D.

    Bangalore

Explanation

Ankleshwar in Gujarat has consistently ranked among India's most critically polluted industrial clusters under the Central Pollution Control Board's Comprehensive Environmental Pollution Index (CEPI).

Q49EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

According to "Hazardous Waste Management, handling and trans boundary movement rules" which of the following is a false statement?

  1. A.

    Import of hazardous waste from any country shall be permitted only for recycling, recovery and reuse

  2. B.

    Import of hazardous waste from any country shall be permitted only for disposal

    Correct
  3. C.

    No import of waste specified in schedule IV of HWM

  4. D.

    Import of wastes in Schedule III may be allowed to actual users with MOEF permission

Explanation

Under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules, import of hazardous waste is permitted only for recycling, recovery, and reuse — not for disposal — so the claim that import is allowed 'only for disposal' is false.

Q50EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

The following recycled plastic powder was mixed with bitumen that is used to lay roads in bangalore

  1. A.

    polyblend

    Correct
  2. B.

    polyester

  3. C.

    polyamines

  4. D.

    tar

Explanation

Polyblend, a shredded waste-plastic powder, is mixed with bitumen to lay more durable plastic-modified roads, a technique used in Bangalore.

Q51Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Environment & Energy Initiatives

What is the BOD value of Ulsoor lake as per the Central Pollution Control Board report 2011?

  1. A.

    5 mg/L

  2. B.

    13 mg/L

    Correct
  3. C.

    89 mg/L

  4. D.

    2 mg/L

Explanation

As per the Central Pollution Control Board's 2011 report, Ulsoor Lake in Bangalore recorded a BOD value of about 13 mg/L, reflecting significant organic pollution.

Q52EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The plant growth is seriously stopped due to the dust released from thermal power stations contain

  1. A.

    PAN

  2. B.

    Pulverized Fly Ash

    Correct
  3. C.

    CO2CO_{2}

  4. D.

    SO2SO_{2}

Explanation

Pulverized fly ash released from thermal power station chimneys settles on plant leaves and soil, blocking stomata and photosynthesis, seriously stunting plant growth.

Q53EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

Sound becomes hazardous noise pollution at decibels

  1. A.

    Above 30

  2. B.

    Above 80

    Correct
  3. C.

    Above 10

  4. D.

    Above 120

Explanation

Sound levels exceeding about 80 decibels are generally classified as hazardous noise pollution, capable of causing hearing damage with prolonged exposure.

Q54EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

The ambient noise levels at the industrial zone as per the CPCB are

  1. A.

    75 dB (day) and 70 dB (Night)

    Correct
  2. B.

    100 dB (day) and 90 dB (Night)

  3. C.

    50 dB (day) and 45 dB (Night)

  4. D.

    60 dB (day) and 55 dB (Night)

Explanation

As per CPCB ambient noise standards, the permissible level in industrial zones is 75 dB during the day and 70 dB at night.

Q55EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

When the ambient sound intensity is equals to the reference intensity, the sound level will be

  1. A.

    1 dB

  2. B.

    0 dB

    Correct
  3. C.

    10 dB

  4. D.

    120 dB

Explanation

Sound level in decibels is 10·log10(I/I0); when the measured intensity equals the reference intensity, the ratio is 1 and log(1)=0, giving a sound level of 0 dB.

Q56EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

The stress levels of a person may be increased due to the secretion of which of the following hormone by the noise pollution?

  1. A.

    Cytokinin

  2. B.

    Auxin

  3. C.

    Neuropeptide Y

    Correct
  4. D.

    Abzyme

Explanation

Chronic exposure to noise pollution triggers elevated secretion of Neuropeptide Y, a stress-related neurohormone linked to increased anxiety and cardiovascular stress responses.

Q57EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

During the incineration of a large biomedical waste the following carcinogenic substance is released

  1. A.

    Dioxins

    Correct
  2. B.

    Polyoxins

  3. C.

    Dextrans

  4. D.

    Dendrons

Explanation

Incineration of biomedical or chlorinated plastic waste, especially at insufficient temperature, can generate dioxins — a group of highly toxic, persistent, carcinogenic compounds.

Q58EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

ISO 14010 deals with

(A) Environmental Auditing (B) Environmental Assurance (C) Sustainable Development

Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    A only

    Correct
  2. B.

    B only

  3. C.

    C only

  4. D.

    A, B and C

Explanation

ISO 14010 lays down the general principles of environmental auditing, distinct from ISO standards dealing with EMS certification or performance evaluation.

Q59EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesNational Environmental Authorities

The Indian eco mark logo is

  1. A.

    Cool drink bottle

  2. B.

    Earthen pot

    Correct
  3. C.

    Plastic bucket

  4. D.

    Cardboard box

Explanation

The Indian Ecomark logo, used to certify environment-friendly products, is depicted as an earthen pot, symbolizing traditional, resource-efficient practices.

Q60Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Ejecta is

  1. A.

    Debris released from volcano

    Correct
  2. B.

    Substances injected faults to relieve pressure

  3. C.

    Material released from rifts on the floor of the ocean

  4. D.

    The depressed region inside the cone of an inactive volcano

Explanation

Ejecta refers to the ash, rock fragments, and pyroclastic debris violently expelled from a volcano during an eruption.

Q61EnvironmentBiodiversityCoral Reefs

Coral reefs are widely distributed in

  1. A.

    cold shallow water

  2. B.

    warm shallow water

    Correct
  3. C.

    deep water

  4. D.

    bottom sea

Explanation

Coral reefs are built by colonies of coral polyps whose symbiotic zooxanthellae algae need sunlight to photosynthesize, restricting reef-building corals to warm (roughly 20-32C), shallow, clear tropical and subtropical waters -- which is why major reef systems such as the Great Barrier Reef, Lakshadweep, and the Andamans all occur in warm shallow seas rather than cold or deep water.

Q62EnvironmentPollutionPollution Laws & Rules

The principle type of chemical hazards include all of the following except

  1. A.

    toxic and hazardous substance

  2. B.

    mutagens

  3. C.

    teratogens

  4. D.

    zymogenes

    Correct

Explanation

The principal categories of chemical hazards include toxic/hazardous substances, mutagens, and teratogens; 'zymogenes' is not a recognized hazard classification (a zymogen is an inactive enzyme precursor).

Q63EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Which of the following method should not be used for treating the yellow category of biomedical waste?

  1. A.

    Incineration

  2. B.

    Deep burial

  3. C.

    Microwave

    Correct
  4. D.

    Plasma pyrolysis

Explanation

Yellow category biomedical waste (human anatomical waste, soiled waste, expired drugs, etc.) is treated by incineration, deep burial, or plasma pyrolysis; microwave treatment is used for other categories such as plastics and sharps, not yellow category waste.

Q64EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Photochemical smog is formed when primary pollutants interact with

  1. A.

    sunlight

    Correct
  2. B.

    water vapor

  3. C.

    sulfur dioxide

  4. D.

    oxygen

Explanation

Photochemical smog forms when primary pollutants such as nitrogen oxides and volatile organic compounds react in the presence of strong sunlight, producing secondary pollutants like ozone and PAN.

Q65EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Carbon monoxide

  1. A.

    causes the blood to carry too much oxygen

  2. B.

    speeds up reflexes

  3. C.

    causes headaches and dizziness

    Correct
  4. D.

    sharpens thinking and perceptions

Explanation

Carbon monoxide binds strongly to hemoglobin, reducing the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity, which causes symptoms such as headaches and dizziness even at moderate exposure.

Q66EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

A good indicator of water quality for drinking or swimming is the absence of number of colonies of

  1. A.

    coliform bacteria

    Correct
  2. B.

    algae

  3. C.

    protozoa

  4. D.

    manatees

Explanation

The absence of coliform bacteria colonies is a standard indicator used to judge whether water is safe for drinking or swimming, since coliforms signal likely fecal contamination.

Q67EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Of the following chemicals, which is least likely to be biologically magnified as it moves through food webs

  1. A.

    Radioactive isotopes

  2. B.

    Mercury compounds

  3. C.

    Nitrates

    Correct
  4. D.

    DDT

Explanation

Unlike persistent, fat-soluble compounds such as DDT, mercury compounds, and radioactive isotopes, nitrates are water-soluble and readily metabolized or excreted, so they do not significantly biomagnify up the food chain.

Q68EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

A waste is considered hazardous if it possesses one of the four properties. Which of the following is not one of those properties?

  1. A.

    Flammable

  2. B.

    Unstable

    Correct
  3. C.

    Soluble

  4. D.

    Corrosive

Explanation

The standard criteria that classify a waste as hazardous are flammability, corrosivity, reactivity (instability), and toxicity; solubility is not one of these defining characteristics.

Q69EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Of the following materials the most difficult to recycle is

  1. A.

    Glass

    Correct
  2. B.

    Plastic

  3. C.

    Paper

  4. D.

    Cardboards

Explanation

Whether glass or plastic is 'hardest to recycle' depends on the criterion used: by actual recycling rates and reprocessing complexity, plastics are generally considered harder because of the many distinct polymer types, chemical additives, and quality loss with each reprocessing cycle, whereas glass, though heavy and prone to breakage, can in principle be recycled indefinitely without loss of quality. This option is taken as correct per the source's convention, which instead emphasizes glass's need for colour-sorting and energy-intensive high-temperature remelting, though plastic is equally defensible as the more commonly cited answer.

Q70EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

Flying foxes are recognized as

  1. A.

    key stone species

    Correct
  2. B.

    alien species

  3. C.

    native species

  4. D.

    thriving species

Explanation

Flying foxes (large fruit bats) are a textbook keystone species: their long-distance foraging makes them primary pollinators and seed dispersers for many tropical trees (e.g., durian, wild fig, mango), and documented declines in flying-fox colonies have been linked to reduced forest regeneration disproportionate to the bats' own population size -- the defining trait of a keystone species. They are also native, not alien, to the regions where this ecological role is documented, ruling out option B.

Q71EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

The green house gas produced from paddy field is

  1. A.

    methane

    Correct
  2. B.

    water vapour

  3. C.

    carbon dioxide

  4. D.

    sulphur dioxide

Explanation

Flooded paddy fields create waterlogged, anaerobic soil conditions in which methanogenic archaea decompose organic matter and release methane as a metabolic by-product. This makes rice cultivation one of the largest anthropogenic sources of atmospheric methane -- a far more potent greenhouse gas per molecule than water vapour -- which is the standard, well-documented textbook answer.

Q72Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

World water day is observed on

  1. A.

    16th September

  2. B.

    22nd March

    Correct
  3. C.

    16th December

  4. D.

    16th April

Explanation

World Water Day is observed annually on 22nd March to raise awareness about the importance of freshwater and the sustainable management of water resources.

Q73EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

The term acid rain in 1872 was coined by

  1. A.

    Robert Ague Smith

    Correct
  2. B.

    Robert Smith Black

  3. C.

    Robert Bin Thomas

  4. D.

    Edward

Explanation

The term 'acid rain' was coined in 1872 by the Scottish chemist Robert Angus Smith, who studied the effects of industrial air pollution on rainfall around Manchester.

Q74Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereAtmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds

The ozone is found in which of the following atmospheric layer

  1. A.

    Stratosphere

    Correct
  2. B.

    Hemisphere

  3. C.

    Thermosphere

  4. D.

    Lithosphere

Explanation

The ozone layer sits in the stratosphere (roughly 15-50 km altitude), where UV radiation splits O2 molecules that recombine into O3, absorbing most of the sun's harmful UV-B and UV-C radiation. 'Hemisphere' is a geographic division of the globe, not an atmospheric layer, so it cannot be a valid option, confirming the stratosphere as correct.

Q75EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Which of the following technology provides conservation of raw dust into smoke less fuel?

  1. A.

    Gasification

  2. B.

    Briquetting

  3. C.

    Torketing

    Correct
  4. D.

    Bucking

Explanation

Torrefaction ('torketing') is a mild pyrolysis process that converts raw biomass/dust into a smokeless, energy-dense solid fuel, reducing particulate air pollution from combustion.

Q76EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Ozone hole first discovered by :

  1. A.

    Joe Forman

    Correct
  2. B.

    Maxwell

  3. C.

    Robert de

  4. D.

    Decosta

Explanation

The Antarctic ozone hole was first discovered in 1985 by British Antarctic Survey scientist Joe Farman and colleagues, who detected a dramatic seasonal decline in stratospheric ozone.

Q77EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Methaemoglobinemia is the disease of infants due to consumption of water polluted with :

  1. A.

    Nitrate

    Correct
  2. B.

    Chloride

  3. C.

    Fluoride

  4. D.

    Mercury

Explanation

Methaemoglobinemia (Blue Baby Syndrome) occurs when infants ingest nitrate-contaminated water; gut bacteria reduce nitrate to nitrite, which oxidizes the ferrous iron in haemoglobin to ferric iron, forming methaemoglobin that cannot carry oxygen. This is the basis for the WHO/BIS nitrate limit in drinking water and is distinct from mercury poisoning, which instead causes Minamata disease, confirming nitrate as correct.

Q78EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemBiogeochemical Cycles (Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Sulphur)

The type of cycle which represents sedimentary phase as well as gaseous phase of nutrient cycling is known as :

  1. A.

    sulphur cycle

    Correct
  2. B.

    oxygen cycle

  3. C.

    carbon cycle

  4. D.

    nitrogen cycle

Explanation

The sulphur cycle is distinctive among the major biogeochemical cycles for having both a gaseous phase (sulphur dioxide and hydrogen sulphide circulating through the atmosphere) and a sedimentary phase (sulphur locked in rocks, soils, and ocean sediments as sulphate minerals, released only by weathering). The carbon, nitrogen, and oxygen cycles are, by contrast, classified as predominantly gaseous since their main reservoir is the atmosphere, making sulphur the standard textbook example of a hybrid sedimentary-gaseous cycle.

Q79EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesEnvironmental Protection Acts

EIA stands for

  1. A.

    Environmental Impact Assessment

    Correct
  2. B.

    Educational Indirect Assessment

  3. C.

    Environment Impact Analysis

  4. D.

    Environment Internal Assessment

Explanation

EIA stands for Environmental Impact Assessment, a process used to evaluate the likely environmental consequences of a proposed project before it is undertaken.

Q80EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Carbon dioxide concentration in the Earth's atmosphere is about ____

  1. A.

    1000 ppm

  2. B.

    100 ppm

  3. C.

    1400 ppm

  4. D.

    400 ppm

    Correct

Explanation

Direct atmospheric measurement (e.g., NOAA's Mauna Loa observatory) shows CO2 has risen from a pre-industrial baseline near 280 ppm to about 420 ppm today; 400 ppm was the milestone globally crossed around 2015-16 and is the figure most textbooks and exams use as the 'current' approximate concentration, ruling out the far lower 100 ppm option.

Q81PhysicsEnergy Resources & TechnologyConventional Energy Sources (Coal, Oil, Gas)

What is meant by cogeneration?

  1. A.

    simultaneous generation of power and heat

    Correct
  2. B.

    coolant generation

  3. C.

    cooking gas generation

  4. D.

    generation of power

Explanation

Cogeneration, or combined heat and power (CHP), is the standard engineering term for using a single fuel source to simultaneously generate electricity and useful thermal energy (steam/heat) for industrial or space-heating use, raising overall fuel-to-useful-energy efficiency well above that of generating power alone. This matches option A exactly and has no connection to cooking-gas or coolant generation.

Q82EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Which of the following is not a direct Greenhouse gas but an indirect greenshouse gas

  1. A.

    N2ON_2O

  2. B.

    CH4CH_4

  3. C.

    CO2CO_2

  4. D.

    NO

    Correct

Explanation

CO2, CH4, and N2O are 'direct' greenhouse gases because their molecular structure lets them absorb and re-emit infrared radiation themselves. Nitric oxide (NO), by contrast, does not trap outgoing longwave radiation directly; it is an 'indirect' greenhouse gas because it drives atmospheric chemistry (e.g., tropospheric ozone formation and reactions affecting methane's atmospheric lifetime) that increases warming indirectly.

Q83BiologyDiseasesCommunicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)

Which of the following is not a water borne disease?

  1. A.

    Typhoid

  2. B.

    Scabies

    Correct
  3. C.

    Cholera

  4. D.

    Hepatitis

Explanation

Typhoid, cholera, and hepatitis A are all classic faecal-orally transmitted water-borne diseases, caused by pathogens (Salmonella typhi, Vibrio cholerae, Hepatitis A virus) spread through contaminated drinking water. Scabies, however, is caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite and spreads through direct, prolonged skin-to-skin contact (or contaminated bedding/clothing), not water, making it the correct 'not water-borne' answer.

Q84EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

In a sedimentation tank (length L, width B, depth D) the settling velocity of a particle for a discharge Q is

  1. A.

    Q/(B × L)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Q/(B × D)

  3. C.

    Q/L

  4. D.

    Q/(L × D)

Explanation

The overflow (settling) velocity in a sedimentation tank equals the discharge divided by the tank's plan surface area, i.e., V = Q/(L×B), where L and B are the tank's length and width.

Q85EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

The total dissolved solids (TDS) can be reduced by the following method

(A) distillation (B) reverse osmosis (C) ion exchange

Which of the above given is/are correct? Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    A only

  2. B.

    B only

  3. C.

    C only

  4. D.

    A, B and C.

    Correct

Explanation

Distillation removes dissolved solids by evaporating and re-condensing pure water, leaving solids behind; reverse osmosis forces water through a semi-permeable membrane that rejects dissolved ions; and ion exchange replaces unwanted dissolved ions with other ions on a resin bed. All three are independently well-documented, standard TDS-reduction technologies in water treatment practice, so 'A, B and C' (option D) is correct.

Q86EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Air binding phenomena in rapid sand filters occur due to

  1. A.

    Excessive negative head

    Correct
  2. B.

    Mud ball formation

  3. C.

    Higher turbidity in the effluent

  4. D.

    Low temperature

Explanation

Air binding in rapid sand filters occurs when excessive negative head develops within the filter bed, causing dissolved air in the water to come out of solution and block the pores of the filter medium.

Q87EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

If 'D' is the diameter of upper circular portion, the area of cross-section of a standard egg shaped sewer, is

  1. A.

    [(12 + 5π\pi)32] D2D^2

  2. B.

    [(18 + 5π\pi)32] D2D^2

  3. C.

    [(18 + 5π\pi)16] D2D^2

    Correct
  4. D.

    [(82 + 5π\pi)32] D2D^2

Explanation

The cross-sectional area of a standard egg-shaped sewer is expressed as a fixed multiple of the square of the upper circular portion's diameter, D, a standard relation used in sewer hydraulic design.

Q88EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Match the content of fluoride and its relative disorders

(a) Less than 1.5 mg/l (i) Crippling fluorosis (b) between 1.5-3 mg/l (ii) Mottled dentition (c) between 4-8 mg/l (iii) Dental caries (d) More than 10 mg/l (iv) Skeletal fluorosis

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    ii iii i iv

  2. B.

    iii ii iv i

    Correct
  3. C.

    iii i iv ii

  4. D.

    ii iv iii i

Explanation

The dose-response relationship for fluoride in drinking water is well documented: below about 1.5 mg/l fluoride intake is often insufficient to protect against dental caries, 1.5-3 mg/l causes mottled dentition (dental fluorosis), 4-8 mg/l causes skeletal fluorosis, and above 10 mg/l causes crippling fluorosis. This gives the matching sequence (iii)(ii)(iv)(i), i.e., option B.

Q89EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

If the depletion of oxygen is found to be 3 mg/litre after incubating 5 ml of sewage diluted to 300 ml for 5 days at 20 °C, B. O. D. of the sewage is

  1. A.

    50 mg/l

  2. B.

    100 mg/l

  3. C.

    150 mg/l

  4. D.

    180 mg/l

    Correct

Explanation

BOD is calculated as the measured oxygen depletion multiplied by the dilution factor (total diluted volume divided by sample volume): 3 mg/L x (300 mL / 5 mL) = 3 x 60 = 180 mg/L. This is the arithmetically correct result of the standard BOD dilution formula, confirming option D.

Q90EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

If G is the specific gravity of particles of diameter d, the velocity of settlement V in still water at T °C, according to Stoke's law, is

  1. A.

    V = 418 (G-1)d4d^4 [(3T + 70)/100]

  2. B.

    V = 418 (G-1)d [(3T - 70)/100]

  3. C.

    V = 418 (G-1)d2d^2 [(2T + 70)/100]

  4. D.

    V = 418 (G-1)d2d^2 [(3T + 70)/100]

    Correct

Explanation

The standard simplified form of Stokes' law used for sedimentation-tank design (per Fair, Geyer & Okun and CPHEEO practice) is V = 418(G-1)d^2[(3T+70)/100]: settling velocity varies with the square of particle diameter, consistent with Stokes drag physics (drag force scales with d, particle weight scales with d^3, so terminal velocity scales with d^2), not with d^4 as option A states. Option D carries the same coefficients as A but the correct d^2 exponent, so the source's original choice of option A is corrected to option D.

Q91EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Hazen and William's formula for calculating the sewage flow under pressure is

  1. A.

    V = 0.85 C R0.63R^{0.63} S0.54S^{0.54}

    Correct
  2. B.

    V = 0.75 C R0.53R^{0.53} S0.54S^{0.54}

  3. C.

    V = 0.65 C R0.43R^{0.43} S0.54S^{0.54}

  4. D.

    V = 0.55 C R0.33R^{0.33} S0.54S^{0.54}

Explanation

The Hazen-Williams formula for flow velocity in pressure pipes/force mains, in SI (metric) units, is V = 0.85 C R^0.63 S^0.54, where C is the pipe roughness coefficient, R the hydraulic radius, and S the slope -- this is the standard, universally tabulated form of the equation (the more precise coefficient is 0.849, rounded to 0.85 in most textbooks), confirming option A and ruling out the R^0.53 variant in option B.

Q92EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

For a grit chamber, if the recommended velocity of flow is 0.2 m/sec and detention period is 2 minutes, the length of the tank, is

  1. A.

    16 m

  2. B.

    20 m

  3. C.

    24 m

    Correct
  4. D.

    30 m

Explanation

Length of the grit chamber = flow velocity × detention time = 0.2 m/s × 120 s = 24 m.

Q93EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

For the same solid content, if the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 98% is X, then the quantity of sludge with moisture content of 96% will be

  1. A.

    X/2

    Correct
  2. B.

    X/4

  3. C.

    X

  4. D.

    2X

Explanation

For a fixed dry-solids mass, sludge volume varies inversely with the solids fraction: at 98% moisture the solids content is 2%, and at 96% moisture it is 4% (twice as concentrated), so the sludge volume at 96% moisture is half (X/2) of that at 98% moisture.

Q94EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Match the processes used to remove the solids from the waste water

(a) Suspended Solids (i) Coagulation (b) Colloidal Solids (ii) Ion exchange (c) Inorganic Solids (iii) Activated sludge process (d) Organic Solids (iv) Sedimentation

Select the code for the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    ii iii iv 1

  2. B.

    iii i iv ii

  3. C.

    ii i iv iii

  4. D.

    iv i ii iii

    Correct

Explanation

Sedimentation removes suspended (settleable) solids under gravity; coagulation destabilizes and clumps colloidal solids too small to settle on their own; ion exchange removes dissolved inorganic ions on a resin bed; and the activated sludge process biologically oxidizes organic solids. This standard treatment-train pairing gives the sequence (iv)(i)(ii)(iii), i.e., option D.

Q95EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Among the following, which one is not water to air type aerator?

  1. A.

    Spray nozzles

  2. B.

    Cascade aerators

  3. C.

    Air diffusers

  4. D.

    Mechanical aerator

    Correct

Explanation

Aerators are classified by which phase is dispersed into the other: spray nozzles and cascade aerators break water into droplets and expose them to air (water-into-air, or gravity/fountain type), whereas both diffused-air systems and mechanical (surface/turbine) aerators work by introducing or entraining air into the body of water (air-into-water). Mechanical aerators are therefore correctly the odd one out among the given options -- not a water-to-air type.

Q96EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Which of the following unit works in anaerobic conditions?

  1. A.

    Activated sludge treatment

  2. B.

    Sedimentation tank

  3. C.

    Sludge digestion tank

    Correct
  4. D.

    Trickling filters

Explanation

Sludge digestion tanks are deliberately operated as sealed, oxygen-free reactors in which anaerobic bacteria break down organic solids in sludge, producing biogas (methane and CO2) -- a classic anaerobic process. Activated sludge treatment and trickling filters, in contrast, both rely on aerobic microorganisms and require continuous oxygen supply, making sludge digestion the correct anaerobic unit among the options.

Q97EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Which of the following pollutants is not a secondary pollutant?

  1. A.

    Hydrocarbons

    Correct
  2. B.

    Ketons

  3. C.

    Sulphur trioxide

  4. D.

    PAN

Explanation

Hydrocarbons are primary pollutants, emitted directly from sources such as vehicle exhaust, whereas ketones, sulphur trioxide, and PAN are secondary pollutants formed through atmospheric photochemical reactions.

Q98EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

In an experiment with high volume air sampler, sampling rate of air at the start of the experiment with clean filter was found to be 1.8 cum/min. After the actual sampling time of 24 hours, the sampling rate of air reduced to 1.7 cum/min. If the weight of the filter at the start and end of the test was 3.523 g and 3.476 g respectively, suspended particulate concentration is

  1. A.

    18.65

    Correct
  2. B.

    37.3

  3. C.

    8.65

  4. D.

    28.3

Explanation

Suspended particulate concentration = (final filter weight - initial filter weight) / (average sampling flow rate x sampling duration) = (3.523 g - 3.476 g = 0.047 g = 47,000 micrograms) / [(1.8+1.7)/2 m3/min x 1440 min] = 47,000 / 2,520 ~= 18.65 micrograms/m3, confirming option A as the arithmetically correct result.

Q99EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

What is the volume of air required to oxidize completely the 1 tonne of waste? Assume air contains 23.15% oxygen by weight, the density of air 1.2928 kg/m3m^3, and the total amount of oxygen required is 1329 kg/tonne.

  1. A.

    4442 m3m^3/tonne

    Correct
  2. B.

    444.2 m3m^3/tonne

  3. C.

    248.0 m3m^3/tonne

  4. D.

    7423.2 m3m^3/tonne

Explanation

Air required = (oxygen required ÷ fractional oxygen content by weight) ÷ air density = (1329 kg ÷ 0.2315) ÷ 1.2928 kg/m³ ≈ 4442 m³ per tonne of waste.

Q100EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

The ISO 14001 : 2015 is a

  1. A.

    Quality Management System

  2. B.

    Environmental Management System

    Correct
  3. C.

    Occupational Health and Safety Administration System

  4. D.

    Energy Management System

Explanation

ISO 14001:2015 specifies the requirements for an Environmental Management System (EMS), helping organizations improve environmental performance through efficient resource use and waste reduction.

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