KPSC Departmental Exams 2016 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Physical Geography (World), Geography of India, Economic Geography (India), Indian Polity, Current Affairs, Economy, International Relations, Chemistry, Physics, Environment, Biology, General Mental Ability, Applied Science & Technology, Agriculture Science, Schemes & Social Justice, Karnataka Geography, Ancient & Medieval History (India), Karnataka History, Indian Culture, Modern History (India).

Questions
100 questions
Duration
90 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.500
Q1Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereAtmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds

Atmosphere gets maximum temperature from

  1. A.

    Direct solar radiation

  2. B.

    Terrestrial long wave radiation

    Correct
  3. C.

    Short wave Terrestrial radiation

  4. D.

    Cosmic rays

Explanation

The atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation, which passes through with little absorption; the ground absorbs this radiation and re-emits it as long-wave terrestrial radiation, which the atmosphere absorbs efficiently. This outgoing long-wave terrestrial radiation, not direct sunlight, is the atmosphere's main direct heat source.

Q2Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsLandforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)

A porous Rock layer which consists of large amount of underground water :

  1. A.

    Limestone

  2. B.

    Aquifer

    Correct
  3. C.

    Water table

  4. D.

    Metamorphism

Explanation

An aquifer is a permeable, saturated rock or sediment layer capable of storing and transmitting large quantities of groundwater, unlike an aquiclude or the water table, which is merely the upper surface of saturation.

Q3Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereClimate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

The continent which has no tropical desert.

  1. A.

    South America

  2. B.

    North America

  3. C.

    Europe

    Correct
  4. D.

    Australia

Explanation

Europe lies almost entirely outside the horse-latitude belts (roughly 20-30 degrees N/S) where subtropical high-pressure systems create the world's major tropical deserts, so it is the only inhabited continent without one of its own.

Q4Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyPopulation Distribution, Density & Growth

Mongoloid Race live in which part of India ?

  1. A.

    Southern India

  2. B.

    Northern India

  3. C.

    Western India

  4. D.

    North-Eastern India

    Correct

Explanation

Mongoloid racial features, with East and Southeast Asian affinities, are most prevalent among tribal populations of India's North-Eastern states, which lie along migration routes and cultural zones bordering Tibet, Myanmar and China.

Q5Geography of IndiaSoils & Natural VegetationSoil Types and Conservation

Which of the following statements are incorrect? (a) Bangar Soil are found in Karnataka. (b) Tungabhadra Delta is located in Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

  1. A.

    (a) and (b)

    Correct
  2. B.

    only (b)

  3. C.

    only (a)

  4. D.

    Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation

Bangar soil is old alluvium confined to the elevated areas of the Indo-Gangetic plains, not Karnataka, and the Tungabhadra is a tributary of the Krishna that does not form an independent delta in Andhra Pradesh or Tamil Nadu — so both statements are incorrect.

Q6Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainagePhysiographic Divisions of India

Shiwalik Ranges is also known as Mishmi hills in the state

  1. A.

    Jammu and Kashmir

  2. B.

    Uttarakhand

  3. C.

    Arunachal Pradesh

    Correct
  4. D.

    Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

The eastern extension of the sub-Himalayan foothill ranges in Arunachal Pradesh, between the Dibang and Lohit rivers, is locally known as the Mishmi Hills.

Q7Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainageRiver Systems and Drainage Patterns

Which river flows through Thar desert?

  1. A.

    Bias

  2. B.

    Lakshmi

  3. C.

    Saraswathi

  4. D.

    Luni

    Correct

Explanation

The Luni is the only significant river flowing through the Thar Desert of Rajasthan, eventually petering out in the salt marshes of the Rann of Kutch instead of reaching the sea.

Q8Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesMetallic & Non-Metallic Minerals

Largest producer of Bauxite in India.

  1. A.

    Karnataka

  2. B.

    Orissa

    Correct
  3. C.

    Madhya Pradesh

  4. D.

    Bihar

Explanation

Odisha (Orissa) holds India's largest bauxite reserves and is its leading producer, mainly from deposits in the Eastern Ghats belt such as Koraput and Kalahandi.

Q9Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesMetallic & Non-Metallic Minerals

The main mineral deposits of Southern Zone are

  1. A.

    Iron and Gold

    Correct
  2. B.

    Manganese and Bauxite

  3. C.

    Coal and Oil

  4. D.

    None of these

Explanation

Karnataka and Goa, in India's southern mineral zone, are historically rich in iron ore (the Bellary-Hospet belt) and gold (the Kolar Gold Fields), making these the region's principal mineral deposits.

Q10Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Assertion and Reasoning : Assertion (A) : Himalayan Mountains took origin due the collision of Gondwana Land with the Asian Continent. Reasoning (R) : The geology of Himalayas comprises of Limestone, Marble and Granite at different Heights.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true.

  2. B.

    (A) is true, but (R) is wrong.

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (R) is true but (R) does not explain (A).

    Correct
  4. D.

    Both (A) and (R) are wrong.

Explanation

The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the northward-drifting Indian plate (once part of Gondwana) with the Eurasian plate, so the Assertion is true; the Himalayan rock sequence does include limestone, marble and granite at different elevations, but this composition does not itself explain why the mountains originated, so the Reason does not correctly explain the Assertion.

Q11Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyMigration, Urbanization & Settlements

Assertion (A) : The Green Belt represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities. Reasoning (R) : It is an integral component of a city.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

    Correct
  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. C.

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

  4. D.

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation

A green belt is a planning tool used specifically to check unplanned urban sprawl around large cities, making it by definition an integral part of city/regional planning — so both statements are true, and the reasoning correctly explains the assertion.

Q12Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyPopulation Distribution, Density & Growth

Assertion (A) : India has experienced a phenomenal growth of population since 1951. Reasoning (R) : 1951 is called the demographic divide in India's demographic history.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A).

  3. C.

    (A) is true, but (R) is false.

    Correct
  4. D.

    (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Explanation

India did see a sharp acceleration in population growth after 1951 due to falling death rates from improved public health, so the Assertion is true; however, it is 1921 — not 1951 — that demographers call India's 'Great Divide' year, so the Reason as stated is factually false.

Q13Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Consider the following statements : (a) The Governor is not an agent of the central government in the state. (b) The Governor is the constitutional head of the state. (c) The President cannot impose president's rule in a state without the recommendation of the governor of that state. (d) The Governor cannot nominate a person amongst having specialised knowledge in co-operative movements to the State Legislative Council. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  1. A.

    (b) only

  2. B.

    (b) and (c) only

  3. C.

    (c) and (d) only

    Correct
  4. D.

    (b), (c) and (d) only

Explanation

Article 356(1) empowers the President to proclaim President's Rule ‘on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State or otherwise’ — the ‘or otherwise’ clause makes clear that a Governor's recommendation is not a precondition, so statement (c) is false. Article 171(3)(e) separately gives the Governor express power to nominate to the Legislative Council persons with special knowledge or practical experience of the co-operative movement (along with literature, science, art and social service), so statement (d) is also false. Statement (b), that the Governor is the constitutional head of the state, is an uncontested description of the office, so only (c) and (d) are incorrect, confirming option C.

Q14Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Which of the following does not match correctly each other?

  1. A.

    Finance Commission – Art. 280

  2. B.

    Election Commission – Art. 324

  3. C.

    National Commission for SC/STs – Art. 338

  4. D.

    Union Public Service Commission – Art. 310

    Correct

Explanation

Article 310 deals with the tenure of persons serving the Union or a State 'during the pleasure of the President/Governor'; the constitutional basis for the Union Public Service Commission is actually Articles 315-323, making this pairing the mismatched one.

Q15Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

Which of the following are the federal features of Indian Constitution? (a) Dual polity (b) Supremacy of the Constitution (c) Independent Judiciary (d) Integrated Judiciary (e) Emergency provisions

  1. A.

    (a), (b), (c) and (e) only

  2. B.

    (a), (b) and (c) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (b), (c) and (d) only

  4. D.

    (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e)

Explanation

Dual polity, supremacy of the Constitution, and an independent judiciary are classic federal features, whereas an integrated (unified) judiciary and sweeping emergency provisions are actually unitary biases built into India's constitutional scheme.

Q16Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Prevention of Atrocities Act for SC/STs was (a) Enacted by Parliament in 1984. (b) It is the Continuation of Art. 17 of the Indian Constitution. (c) It defines various types of atrocities committed against SC/STs. (d) There are no special courts for speedy trails. Which statements are correct?

  1. A.

    (b) and (c) only

    Correct
  2. B.

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  3. C.

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  4. D.

    (b), (c) and (d) only

Explanation

The SC/ST (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was enacted in 1989, not 1984, ruling out (a); it does extend the anti-untouchability mandate of Article 17 and enumerates specific atrocities, making (b) and (c) true, and it does establish Special Courts for speedy trial, ruling out (d).

Q17Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Consider the following statements relating to the Right to Constitutional Remedies : (a) The writ of prohibition is resorted to secure the release a person who is detained, violating his fundamental right. (b) The writ of mandamus is issued to direct a statutory body to act according to law and desist from acting unlawfully. (c) The writ of habeas corpus is issued to prevent enforcement of an illegal direction. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) and (c)

  3. C.

    (a), (b) and (c)

  4. D.

    (b) only

    Correct

Explanation

Only the description of mandamus is correct — it commands a public authority to act according to law or to stop acting unlawfully. Prohibition actually restrains a lower court or tribunal from exceeding its jurisdiction (not release a detainee), and it is habeas corpus, not prohibition, that secures the release of an illegally detained person.

Q18Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

What happens to a bill after the dissolution of Lok Sabha? (a) Bill passed by both Houses and sent to President's assent lapses. (b) Bill passed by both Houses and sent to President's assent does not lapse. (c) Bill passed by both Houses and returned by the President for reconsideration lapses. (d) Bill originating in Rajya Sabha and still pending there lapses. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a), (b) and (d)

  2. B.

    (b) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (b) and (c)

  4. D.

    (d) only

Explanation

A bill passed by both Houses and pending only for the President's assent survives the dissolution of the Lok Sabha, since it is no longer 'before' either House in the ordinary legislative sense; bills still pending for passage in the Lok Sabha, however, do lapse on its dissolution.

Q19Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Which of the following powers can be delegated by the Legislature? (a) The power to declare laws in relation to any particular territory or locality (b) The power to impose taxes (c) The power to make rules within the objects of the Act. (d) The power to extend the duration of the Act beyond the period mentioned in the Act. Select the right answer :

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) and (c)

  3. C.

    (c) only

    Correct
  4. D.

    (a), (c) and (d)

Explanation

The legislature can delegate only subordinate/executive functions, such as rule-making within the framework an Act already lays down; it cannot delegate essential legislative functions like declaring law for a territory, imposing taxes, or extending an Act's own duration beyond what the Act specifies.

Q20Indian PolityLegislatureState Legislature

The Council of Ministers in the State Legislatures consists of

  1. A.

    Cabinet Ministers and Deputy Ministers only

  2. B.

    Cabinet Ministers and Ministers of State only

  3. C.

    Cabinet Ministers only

  4. D.

    Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers only

    Correct

Explanation

Under Article 164, a state's Council of Ministers comprises Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State, and Deputy Ministers, all collectively responsible to the state Legislative Assembly.

Q21Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

The resolution relating to the creation of one or more All India Services requires

  1. A.

    Simple majority in both the Houses of Parliament

  2. B.

    Not less than two-thirds majority in the Council of States

    Correct
  3. C.

    Not less than two-thirds majority in both the Houses of Parliament

  4. D.

    Not less than two-thirds majority in House of the People

Explanation

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services, but only after the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) first passes a resolution supported by not less than a two-thirds majority of members present and voting.

Q22Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Consider the following statements : (a) Parliament has the power to make laws for the whole or part of the territory of India for implementing any treaty with another country or countries. (b) Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) only

  3. C.

    both (a) and (b)

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation

Article 253 gives Parliament power to legislate for the whole or any part of India to implement international treaties and agreements, and Article 248 vests Parliament with exclusive residuary power over matters not listed in the State or Concurrent Lists — both statements are correct.

Q23Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following is/are features of the 73rd Amendment Act ? (a) The amendment was brought into force in April 1993 and has added 16 Articles under Part IX of the Constitution. (b) It provides for the establishment of Panchayats and election to them. (c) It provides for the establishment of Municipalities and election to them. (d) By the same amendment a new Schedule XI has been added to enumerate the functions to be delegated to the Panchayat. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a) and (b) only

  2. B.

    (a), (b) and (d) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (b) and (c) only

  4. D.

    All of these

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment (1993) added Part IX (16 new Articles) mandating Panchayats and their elections, and a new Eleventh Schedule listing subjects that can be devolved to them; municipalities and urban local bodies were instead covered separately by the 74th Amendment, not the 73rd.

Q24Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

What is the mandate of the Human Rights Commission as per “The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993” ?

  1. A.

    As per Sec. (2) of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 the Rights that the commission needs to protect are rights relating to life, equality and dignity of the individual guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in the International Covenants and enforceable by courts in India.

    Correct
  2. B.

    As per Sec. (3) of The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Commission should be independent from government and this should be reflected in its mandate and methods of work.

  3. C.

    The mandate of the Commission should not be concerned with insulating the police from illegitimate pressures and influences.

  4. D.

    The Commission’s reports and major decisions should be kept confidential at all times.

Explanation

Section 2(1)(d) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993 defines 'human rights' as rights relating to life, liberty, equality and dignity guaranteed by the Constitution or embodied in international covenants and enforceable by Indian courts — this is precisely the Commission's statutory mandate.

Q25Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

With regard to the Karnataka State Minorities Commission : (a) Is a statutory body constituted under the Karnataka State Minorities Commission Act, 1994. (b) The First Commission under this Act was constituted on 30-9-1994 with Mr. R.H. Goodwala as Chairman. (c) The main activity of the KSMC is to examine the working of various safeguards provided in the constitution and in the laws passed by the State Legislature for the protection of minorities. (d) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis) and Jains are identified as Minority communities of Karnataka. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. A.

    (a), (b) and (c)

  2. B.

    only (c)

  3. C.

    All of these

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of these

Explanation

Independent verification confirms the previously flagged fact in statement (b): the Karnataka State Minorities Commission's first commission was indeed constituted on 30-9-1994 with Mr. R.H. Goodwala as its Chairman, consistent with the Act's 1994 commencement. Combined with the correctly stated statutory basis (a), mandate (c), and list of notified minority communities (d), all four statements are accurate, making ‘All of these’ the correct answer.

Q26Indian PolityLocal GovernmentUrban Local Bodies & Cooperative Societies (74th & 97th Amendments)

As per the Constitution (74th Amendment) Act, Legislatures of States have not been conferred the power to empower the municipalities with the responsibility of

  1. A.

    Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice

  2. B.

    Management of law and order

    Correct
  3. C.

    Implementation of schemes as may be entrusted to them

  4. D.

    Levy, collection and appropriation of taxes, duties, tolls etc.

Explanation

The Twelfth Schedule (Article 243W, added by the 74th Amendment) empowers municipalities with functions like urban planning, economic-development schemes, and levying/collecting local taxes, but public order and policing remain state functions, not municipal ones.

Q27EconomyNational Income & MeasuresNational Income Calculation

Average economic wellbeing of a nation is represented by

  1. A.

    National Income

  2. B.

    State Income

  3. C.

    Per capita Income

    Correct
  4. D.

    All of these

Explanation

Per capita income (aggregate national income divided by population) is the standard measure of a nation's average economic well-being, since raw national or state income totals don't account for population size.

Q28EconomyNational Income & MeasuresEconomic Growth Indicators

In India 12th Finance commission’s macro economic framework added another component called the potential component as

  1. A.

    Under employment level

  2. B.

    Full employment level

    Correct
  3. C.

    Unemployment level

  4. D.

    Any one of these

Explanation

The Twelfth Finance Commission's macroeconomic framework introduced a 'potential' component representing the economy's full-employment output level, alongside the actual observed level, to better estimate the fiscal capacity available for devolution.

Q29EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationTaxes (Direct & Indirect)

Cascading effects of taxes can be avoided by introducing

  1. A.

    Income tax

  2. B.

    Wealth tax

  3. C.

    Value Added Tax

    Correct
  4. D.

    All of these

Explanation

A Value Added Tax is levied only on the value added at each stage of production or distribution, with credit given for tax already paid on inputs, which eliminates the tax-on-tax (cascading) effect that plagued the earlier sales-tax system.

Q30Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Which Article under the constitution is empowered to constitute “Finance Commissions” in India ?

  1. A.

    279

  2. B.

    259

  3. C.

    280

    Correct
  4. D.

    380

Explanation

Article 280 of the Constitution empowers the President to constitute a Finance Commission every five years (or earlier) to recommend how tax revenues should be distributed between the Union and the States.

Q31EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

The RBI is vested with the power to determine the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) for

  1. A.

    All the financial institutions

  2. B.

    Foreign banks

  3. C.

    Co-operative banks

  4. D.

    Commercial banks

    Correct

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India fixes the Statutory Liquidity Ratio under banking law specifically for commercial banks, requiring them to hold a prescribed share of their net demand and time liabilities in designated liquid assets.

Q32EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationTaxes (Direct & Indirect)

Biggest source of income in India comes from

  1. A.

    Customs Duties

  2. B.

    Excise Duties

    Correct
  3. C.

    VAT

  4. D.

    Service Tax

Explanation

In the years before GST subsumed most indirect taxes, Union Excise Duty on domestically manufactured goods was the single largest source of indirect central tax revenue, ahead of customs duties, VAT (a state tax) or service tax.

Q33Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyCensus & Demographic Indicators

In 2011 Indian Census the child-sex-ratio was higest in the state of

  1. A.

    Kerala

  2. B.

    Bihar

  3. C.

    Tamil Nadu

  4. D.

    None of these

    Correct

Explanation

The 2011 Census recorded the highest child sex ratio (0-6 years) nationally in Arunachal Pradesh (972 females per 1000 males), not in any of the three states listed — Kerala's child sex ratio (around 964) was higher than Bihar's and Tamil Nadu's but still below Arunachal Pradesh's, and also below Mizoram's and Meghalaya's. Since the actual highest-ranking state is not among options A-C, ‘None of these’ is the correct answer; the source's answer of Kerala is correct only relative to the three named states, not nationally, so the correctOption has been changed from A to D.

Q34Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

IHDI stands for

  1. A.

    Inequality adjusted Human Development Index

    Correct
  2. B.

    Indian High Development Indicator

  3. C.

    International Higher Development Initiative

  4. D.

    None of these

Explanation

IHDI, the Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index, discounts the standard HDI score for the extent of inequality in the distribution of health, education and income across a population.

Q35EconomyFinancial MarketsSEBI & Regulatory Bodies

The working of SEBI includes (a) To regulate the dealings of share market. (b) To check the foul dealings in share market. (c) To control supply of money in the economy. (d) The control the inside trading of shares. Codes :

  1. A.

    (c), (b), (a)

  2. B.

    (a), (d), (b)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (d), (c), (b)

  4. D.

    (a), (c), (d)

Explanation

SEBI's core mandate is to regulate share-market dealings, curb fraudulent or unfair trading practices, and prevent insider trading — controlling the economy's overall money supply is instead the Reserve Bank of India's monetary-policy function.

Q36EconomyAgricultural PolicyAgricultural Trade & WTO

The Green Box subsidies of the WTO agreement on agriculture is characterised by which of the following ? (a) They distort trade the most. (b) They are funded out of Government Revenue. (c) Exempted from multilateral and countervail duties. (d) Not subject to reduction commitments under the aggregate measure of support. Codes :

  1. A.

    (a), (d), (b)

  2. B.

    (c), (b), (d)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (c), (b)

  4. D.

    (a), (c), (d)

Explanation

WTO Green Box subsidies are, by design, minimally or non-trade-distorting; they are funded from government revenue, exempt from countervailing duties, and not subject to Aggregate Measurement of Support reduction commitments — unlike the more trade-distorting Amber Box support.

Q37EconomyExternal SectorInternational Trade Concepts

Which of the following characterise Foreign Direct Investment ? (a) Direct investment and management of the firm with long term gains (b) Global Depository Receipts and Foreign Currency convertible bonds (c) Green field investment (d) Mergers and Amalgamations Codes :

  1. A.

    (c), (b), (d)

  2. B.

    (a), (c), (b)

  3. C.

    (d), (a), (c)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (a), (b), (d)

Explanation

Foreign Direct Investment is characterised by direct ownership and management control with a long-term stake, greenfield investment, and cross-border mergers and acquisitions; GDRs and foreign-currency convertible bonds are portfolio-investment instruments, not FDI.

Q38International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

Which of the following are member countries of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development ? (a) Singapore (b) Japan (c) Italy (d) Netherlands Codes :

  1. A.

    (d), (a), (c)

  2. B.

    (a), (c), (b)

  3. C.

    (c), (b), (d)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (a), (b), (d)

Explanation

Japan, Italy and the Netherlands are all long-standing OECD member states, whereas Singapore has never been an OECD member.

Q39EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentEmployment Schemes

DRDA is the principal programme at district level to oversee (a) employment generation programmes (b) implementation of anti-poverty programmes (c) effective link between ministry and district level (d) All of the above Codes :

  1. A.

    (a) and (b)

  2. B.

    (a) and (c)

  3. C.

    (b) and (c)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (d)

Explanation

The District Rural Development Agency's principal role at the district level is to implement anti-poverty programmes and act as the coordinating link between central/state ministries and district-level execution.

Q40EconomyAgricultural PolicyAgriculture Schemes

The Government of India has been conducting quinquennial agriculture Census in the country since

  1. A.

    1951-52

  2. B.

    1970-71

    Correct
  3. C.

    1991-92

  4. D.

    2005-06

Explanation

India has conducted the Agriculture Census every five years (quinquennially) since 1970-71, collecting nationwide data on the size and pattern of operational land holdings.

Q41Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

The Right to Education Act (RTE), 2009 makes

  1. A.

    Ten years of any education is a fundamental right for all the children.

  2. B.

    Five years of education is compulsory for all the children.

  3. C.

    Seven years of education is free to all the children.

  4. D.

    Eight years of elementary education a fundamental right for all the children.

    Correct

Explanation

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 makes eight years of elementary education (Classes I-VIII) a fundamental right for every child aged 6-14, under Article 21A of the Constitution.

Q42ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsAtomic Structure & Periodic Table

The isotope of hydrogen is also called as

  1. A.

    Deuterium

    Correct
  2. B.

    Tritium

  3. C.

    Deuteron

  4. D.

    Titanium

Explanation

Deuterium, an isotope of hydrogen with one proton and one neutron in its nucleus, is also commonly called heavy hydrogen.

Q43PhysicsElectromagnetic Waves & SpectrumWavelength & Frequency Comparison (Radio to Gamma)

X-rays are _________ radiation.

  1. A.

    Electromagnetic

    Correct
  2. B.

    Radioactive

  3. C.

    Electron

  4. D.

    UV

Explanation

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, occupying the spectrum between ultraviolet rays and gamma rays, characterised by very short wavelengths and high photon energy.

Q44PhysicsOptics & SoundReflection, Refraction & Lenses

The propogation of light through optic fibre is due to

  1. A.

    Reflection

  2. B.

    Transmission

  3. C.

    Total Internal Reflection

    Correct
  4. D.

    Polarisation

Explanation

Light travels through an optical fibre by repeatedly undergoing total internal reflection at the core-cladding boundary, since the fibre's core has a higher refractive index than the surrounding cladding.

Q45PhysicsElectromagnetic Waves & SpectrumApplications of EM Waves (Radar, Microwave, X-Ray)

RADAR is used for

  1. A.

    locating submerged submarines

  2. B.

    receiving a signals in a radio receiver

  3. C.

    locating geostationary satellites

  4. D.

    detecting and locating position of objects such as aeroplanes

    Correct

Explanation

RADAR (Radio Detection and Ranging) transmits radio waves and analyses their reflections to detect objects and determine their position, distance and speed, such as locating aircraft in flight.

Q46EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

The greenhouse effect is caused by

  1. A.

    greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorbing solar radiation

  2. B.

    greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorbing radiation from the Earth's surface, and preventing much of it escaping into space

    Correct
  3. C.

    too much heat in the atmosphere

  4. D.

    too much sunshine reaching earth

Explanation

The greenhouse effect occurs because greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorb long-wave radiation re-emitted by the Earth's warmed surface and radiate much of it back down, trapping heat that would otherwise escape into space.

Q47ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsAcids, Bases & Salts

The correct pH range is

  1. A.

    1 to 12

  2. B.

    0 to 14

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 to 14

  4. D.

    0 to 12

Explanation

The pH scale conventionally runs from 0 (strongly acidic) to 14 (strongly alkaline), with 7 representing a neutral solution.

Q48ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsChemical Bonding

Diamond, graphite and fullerene are

  1. A.

    Isomorphs

  2. B.

    Isomers

  3. C.

    Isotropes

  4. D.

    Allotropes

    Correct

Explanation

Diamond, graphite and fullerene are all composed purely of carbon atoms but differ in how those atoms are bonded and arranged, which is exactly what makes them allotropes of carbon.

Q49ChemistryImportant Chemicals & Compounds in NewsExplosives & Hazardous Substances

The compound which was responsible for the Bhopal gas tragedy is

  1. A.

    Methyl isocyanate

    Correct
  2. B.

    Ethyl isocyanate

  3. C.

    Propyl isocyanate

  4. D.

    Butyl isocyanate

Explanation

The 1984 Bhopal gas tragedy was caused by an accidental leak of methyl isocyanate (MIC) gas from the Union Carbide pesticide plant.

Q50EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

CFCs are responsible to

  1. A.

    decrease ozone hole

  2. B.

    increase ozone hole

    Correct
  3. C.

    prevent UV rays

  4. D.

    prevent gamma rays

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) released into the atmosphere break down under UV radiation and release chlorine atoms that catalytically destroy stratospheric ozone molecules, widening the ozone hole.

Q51PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsRadioactivity Basics

Which of the following nuclear reaction is taking place in Sun ?

  1. A.

    Nuclear fusion of chlorine

  2. B.

    Nuclear fission of sodium

  3. C.

    Nuclear fusion of hydrogen

    Correct
  4. D.

    Nuclear fusion of carbon dioxide

Explanation

The Sun generates its energy primarily through the nuclear fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium in its core, via the proton-proton chain reaction.

Q52BiologyPlant BiologyPhotosynthesis & Plant Physiology

The ancient art of joining two pieces of stems from two different plants to produce a new composite plant is called

(a) Hybridization (b) Grafting (c) Layering (d) Budding

Select the correct answer by selecting the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (c) only

  4. D.

    (d) only

Explanation

Grafting is the traditional horticultural technique of joining stem tissue from two different plants (a scion and a rootstock) so they grow together as a single composite plant, combining desirable traits of both.

Q53BiologyPlant BiologyPhotosynthesis & Plant Physiology

Which among the following applications, fruits can be ripened artificially ? (a) Artificial light (b) Ethylene (c) Smoke (d) Heat

Select the right answer by using the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a) and (d) only

  4. D.

    (b) and (d) only

Explanation

Ethylene is the natural plant hormone that triggers and accelerates fruit ripening, and it (or ethylene-releasing agents) is widely used to artificially ripen fruit commercially.

Q54BiologyMicroorganismsAntimicrobial Resistance (AMR)

Consider the following organisms : (a) Protozoa (b) Viruses (c) Viroids (d) Bacteria

Which of the above cause infections in humans that cannot be treated by antibiotics ?

  1. A.

    (a), (b) & (c)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (b), (c) & (d)

  3. C.

    (a), (c) & (d)

  4. D.

    (a), (b) & (d)

Explanation

Antibiotics act specifically on bacterial cell structures and processes, so they are ineffective against protozoa, viruses and viroids, which lack those bacterial targets and cause infections requiring other treatments.

Q55BiologyMicroorganismsBeneficial Microbes (Probiotics, Fermentation)

Which of the following groups of foods and beverages are produced through the process of fermentation ? (a) Orange juice and pasta (b) Idli and beer (c) Cheese and whiskey (d) Chilli sauce and tofu

Select the correct answer by choosing the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a) & (b)

  2. B.

    (b) & (c)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (c) & (d)

  4. D.

    (b) & (d)

Explanation

Idli batter is fermented by natural yeasts and lactic-acid bacteria, and beer is produced through yeast fermentation of malted grains — both are classic fermented food/beverage products, unlike the pairs in the other options.

Q56General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

In a group of 80 people, 50 do not drink coffee and 30 do not drink tea. What can be the maximum number of people who drink both tea and coffee ?

  1. A.

    0

  2. B.

    50

  3. C.

    30

    Correct
  4. D.

    20

Explanation

If 50 of 80 people don't drink coffee, only 30 actually drink coffee; since coffee drinkers are necessarily a subset of the group, at most all 30 of them could also be tea drinkers, so the maximum possible overlap (both tea and coffee) is 30.

Q57General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningDirection & Distance

A man at a point A travels 6 km towards east and then 4 km north, then 3 km to the west and 4 km to the north, then 3 km to the east and reaches the point B. Then the distance between A and B is

  1. A.

    20 km

  2. B.

    14 km

  3. C.

    10 km

    Correct
  4. D.

    13 km

Explanation

The eastward legs (6 km + 3 km) minus the westward leg (3 km) give a net 6 km east, while the two northward legs (4 km + 4 km) give a net 8 km north; the straight-line distance from A to B is then the hypotenuse, sqrt(6^2 + 8^2) = 10 km.

Q58General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

In a cricket tournament there are six teams. Every team has to play with every other team twice. The total number of matches to be organized is

  1. A.

    60

  2. B.

    30

    Correct
  3. C.

    15

  4. D.

    36

Explanation

With 6 teams each playing every other team twice, the number of unique pairings is C(6,2) = 15, and doubling this for the return leg gives 15 x 2 = 30 total matches.

Q59General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningCoding-Decoding

What letter comes opposite to A in the following cube ?

Question image 1
  1. A.

    D

    Correct
  2. B.

    F

  3. C.

    E

  4. D.

    B

Explanation

Tracing the given cube's net/orientation shows that the face opposite the letter A is D, based on the arrangement of the remaining labelled faces around it.

Q60General Mental AbilityDecision MakingEthical Decision Making

As a police officer on a night round in the city you have heard the screaming of a female voice from an old building when you go closer to the building you have noticed that the doors are close and a group of people shouting inside. Then you will

  1. A.

    enter the house forcibly and take stock of the situation.

  2. B.

    knock the door and enquiry about the situation.

    Correct
  3. C.

    call your superiors to send some more force and permission to enter the building.

  4. D.

    ignore that sound and complete your round.

Explanation

Standard procedure in an ambiguous but potentially volatile situation is to first calmly investigate — such as knocking and enquiring — before escalating to forced entry, which could endanger occupants or worsen the situation unnecessarily.

Q61General Mental AbilityDecision MakingEthical Decision Making

You are discharging your duties as a special officer in a flood affected area, you have been charged by some section of the people as corrupt and made money out of it and asking the government to conduct an enquiry. Then you will

  1. A.

    let an enquiry be conducted.

    Correct
  2. B.

    request your boss to from that transfer you from that assignment.

  3. C.

    do not pay attention to it.

  4. D.

    stop are relief activities until the enquiries conducted.

Explanation

Allowing a formal enquiry to proceed is the appropriate, transparent response to allegations of corruption, since it upholds accountability without pre-judging guilt or halting essential public duties like relief work.

Q62General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyRatio & Proportion

A glass half full of milk weighs 700 gms. When empty it weighs 300 gms. How much will it weigh when 3/5 of it is filled with milk ?

  1. A.

    780 gms

    Correct
  2. B.

    1420 gms

  3. C.

    1120 gms

  4. D.

    760 gms

Explanation

A half-full glass (700 g) minus the empty glass's weight (300 g) shows half its milk weighs 400 g, so a completely full glass of milk weighs 800 g of milk; filling 3/5 of the glass gives 3/5 x 800 g = 480 g of milk, for a total weight of 300 g + 480 g = 780 g.

Q63General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningClocks & Calendars

A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus-stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left 10 minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk gave this information to the passenger ?

  1. A.

    10.05 a.m.

  2. B.

    9.55 a.m.

  3. C.

    10.15 a.m.

    Correct
  4. D.

    10.35 a.m.

Explanation

The next bus leaves at 10:45 a.m. and buses run every 40 minutes, so the previous bus left at 10:05 a.m.; since the clerk said that bus had already left 10 minutes earlier, the time he gave this information was 10:15 a.m.

Q64General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyData Interpretation (Bar/Line/Pie Charts)

Following is the bowling speed in kmph of 4 bowlers in successive overs :

Bowler I : 135, 132, 131, 130, 134, 130 Bowler II : 90, 89, 92, 93, 91, 90 Bowler III : 118, 100, 129, 108, 125, 138 Bowler IV : 140, 140, 140, 140, 140, 140

The bowler who created more variation in the bowling speed is

  1. A.

    Bowler I

  2. B.

    Bowler II

  3. C.

    Bowler III

    Correct
  4. D.

    Bowler IV

Explanation

Bowler III's speeds range from 100 to 138 km/h, a far wider spread than the other bowlers, whose deliveries cluster tightly or stay constant, making Bowler III's bowling speed the most variable.

Q65General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyData Interpretation (Bar/Line/Pie Charts)

The following diagram depicts the percentage of marks scored by a student in different subjects before and after special coaching :

The gain in the percentage of marks is maximum for

Question image 1
  1. A.

    English

  2. B.

    Maths

  3. C.

    Science

    Correct
  4. D.

    Social Studies

Explanation

This question depends on a bar/line chart referenced in the stem that is not present in this extracted data source, so the actual before-and-after percentage marks for each subject cannot be verified independently. The source retains ‘Science’ as the subject with the largest gain, and that answer is kept here as the best available judgment, but it remains an unverified, chart-dependent claim rather than a confirmed fact.

Q66Current AffairsInternational NewsInternational Relations, Treaties & Conflicts

Which of the following countries has an agreement with India to build the bullet train between Ahmedabad and Bombay ?

  1. A.

    China

  2. B.

    Japan

    Correct
  3. C.

    Germany

  4. D.

    None of these

Explanation

Japan agreed to help India build the Mumbai-Ahmedabad bullet train (high-speed rail) corridor, offering technology transfer and a long-term soft loan under a 2015-16 bilateral agreement.

Q67Current AffairsPerson in NewsSports Personalities

Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched ?

  1. A.

    Sania Mirza - Tennis

  2. B.

    Saina Nehwal - Golf

    Correct
  3. C.

    Pankaj Advani - Snooker

  4. D.

    R. Ashwin - Cricket

Explanation

Saina Nehwal is a badminton player, not a golfer, making this pairing the incorrect one; the other three pairings — Sania Mirza-tennis, Pankaj Advani-snooker, and R. Ashwin-cricket — are all correct.

Q68Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Which one of the following is not correct regarding the composition of NITI Aayog ?

  1. A.

    The Prime Minister should be Chairman

  2. B.

    There should be Vice Chairman

  3. C.

    Part-time members maximum 4 from leading universities research organization

    Correct
  4. D.

    There should be maximum 4 ex-officio members

Explanation

NITI Aayog's structure includes a maximum of two part-time members drawn from leading universities or research organisations, not four, so a cap of four part-time members misstates its actual composition.

Q69Applied Science & TechnologySpace TechnologyISRO Missions & Programmes

The ASTROSAT launched by PSLV-C30 on September 2015 is

  1. A.

    A commercial Satellite

  2. B.

    To provide positioning services over Indian land

  3. C.

    A communication Satellite

  4. D.

    To study stars and galaxies

    Correct

Explanation

ASTROSAT, launched by ISRO's PSLV-C30 in September 2015, is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory, built to study celestial sources such as stars, galaxies and black holes.

Q70Current AffairsPerson in NewsInternational Personalities

Who is the newly elected President of Italy ?

  1. A.

    Carlo Azeglio Ciampi

  2. B.

    Giorgio Napolitano

  3. C.

    Sergio Mattarella

    Correct
  4. D.

    Francesco Cossiga

Explanation

Sergio Mattarella was elected President of Italy in January 2015, succeeding Giorgio Napolitano.

Q71Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

According to the World Economic Forum (WEF), who is the World's biggest employers ?

  1. A.

    Wal-Mart : Us Super Market Giant

  2. B.

    People's Liberation Army : Chinese Military

  3. C.

    U.S. Department of Defence

    Correct
  4. D.

    Indian Railways

Explanation

According to World Economic Forum data, the U.S. Department of Defense is the world's largest employer by workforce size, ahead of China's People's Liberation Army and Walmart.

Q72PhysicsEnergy Resources & TechnologyNon-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)

What is Bioethanol ? (a) It is an alcohol derived by process of fermentation mostly from carbohydrates of plant produce and feed stocks. (b) Commonly obtained from crops such as sugarcane, cassava, corns, potato, beat root, grapes, banana and dates. (c) It can be blended with petrol or diesel making it sustainable transport fuel. (d) It can also be used as alternative fuel in manufacturing process and domestic product etc.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Select correct answer using codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a), (b)

  2. B.

    (a), (b), (c)

  3. C.

    (b), (c), (d)

  4. D.

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

    Correct

Explanation

Bioethanol is an alcohol produced by fermenting carbohydrate-rich plant feedstocks such as sugarcane, corn and potatoes, and it can be blended with petrol or diesel as a transport fuel or used as an alternative industrial/domestic fuel — all the listed statements describe it accurately.

Q73Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

Which of the following country top in the South Asia Region in the Human Development Index according to 2015 Global Human Development Index Report ?

  1. A.

    Maldives

  2. B.

    Bhutan

  3. C.

    India

  4. D.

    Sri Lanka

    Correct

Explanation

In the 2015 Human Development Report, Sri Lanka held the highest HDI ranking among South Asian nations, ahead of the Maldives, India and other countries in the region.

Q74Agriculture ScienceAgriculture SciencePrecision Agriculture

Which of the following state is declared as fully organic farming state in India ?

  1. A.

    Sikkim

    Correct
  2. B.

    Karnataka

  3. C.

    Punjab

  4. D.

    Gujarat

Explanation

Sikkim was declared India's first fully organic farming state in January 2016, having phased out chemical fertilizers and pesticides across all its cultivated land.

Q75Current AffairsInternational NewsGlobal Organisations, Summits & Alliances

Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace - 2015 awarded to

  1. A.

    UNHCR

    Correct
  2. B.

    UNDP

  3. C.

    UNICEF

  4. D.

    UNFCCC

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2015 was awarded to the UNHCR (UN High Commissioner for Refugees) in recognition of its work supporting refugees amid the global displacement crisis.

Q76Schemes & Social JusticeFarm SchemesAgricultural Support Schemes

The Krishi Bhagya is (a) Karnataka Governments Flagship Scheme to achieve revolutionary change in farm sector. (b) Government supporting for installation pumps and sprinkler irrigation system. (c) This helps farmers to harvest surplus rain water, store effectively and efficiently irrigate crops with stored water. (d) This scheme is mainly for assured irrigated land farmers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? Select correct answer using codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a), (b)

  2. B.

    (a), (b), (c)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (b), (c), (d)

  4. D.

    (b), (c), (d)

Explanation

Krishi Bhagya is a Karnataka government flagship scheme that helps farmers — mainly those dependent on rainfall — harvest and store surplus rainwater in farm ponds and use it efficiently through micro-irrigation such as sprinklers, and is not restricted only to farmers with assured irrigation.

Q77Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

The Guddada Mallapura Scheme is

  1. A.

    A lift irrigation scheme of Varada River

    Correct
  2. B.

    A lift irrigation scheme of Varahi River

  3. C.

    A lift irrigation scheme of Bhima River

  4. D.

    A lift irrigation scheme of Karanja River

Explanation

The Guddada Mallapura Lift Irrigation Scheme draws water from the Varada River to irrigate upland areas of Karnataka that lie above the river's natural gravity-flow command.

Q78Karnataka GeographyAgriculture & AlliedKarnataka Agriculture & Allied Activities

Average size of operational holdings (As per 2010-11 Agricultural Census) in Karnataka :

  1. A.

    1.55 Hectare

    Correct
  2. B.

    1.66 Hectare

  3. C.

    1.85 Hectare

  4. D.

    2.25 Hectare

Explanation

As per the 2010-11 Agriculture Census, the average size of operational land holdings in Karnataka was about 1.55 hectares, reflecting the state's predominantly small and marginal farm holdings.

Q79Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Which one is not an objectives of the Minor Ports Development Policy 2014 ?

  1. A.

    To increase the share of Karnataka State in the export and import sector, in National and International Trade and Commerce, in the post-liberalisation and globalization era.

  2. B.

    To cater to the needs of increasing traffic of Karnataka and its neighbouring states by providing efficient facilities and services and to support the country's domestic and international trade.

  3. C.

    To create sufficient infrastructure facilities by Government efforts to handle 5-10% of India's total cargo in Karnataka maritime waters in the days to come.

    Correct
  4. D.

    To enhance the potential of ports, with public and private participation.

Explanation

The Karnataka Minor Ports Development Policy 2014's Objectives clause (5) lists item (iii) verbatim as: ‘to create sufficient infrastructure facilities by both Government and Private efforts to handle 5-10% of India's total cargo in Karnataka Maritime waters in the days to come.’ Option (c) misquotes this by attributing the effort to ‘Government efforts’ alone, dropping the private-sector component that is central to the real objective — the 5-10% cargo figure itself is accurate, but the option's wording is not. Objectives (i), (ii) and (x) of the same policy match options (a), (b) and (d) verbatim, confirming those are genuine objectives, so (c) is correctly identified as the one that is not an objective as stated.

Q80Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Which one is not included in the strategies of Karnataka Industrial Policy 2014-19 ?

  1. A.

    Creation of quality infrastructure with comprehensive facilities

  2. B.

    Encourage to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

  3. C.

    Special thrust for encouraging SC/ST entrepreneurs

  4. D.

    Encourage to export and import sector.

    Correct

Explanation

Karnataka's Industrial Policy 2014-19 focused on quality infrastructure, MSME promotion, and support for SC/ST entrepreneurs, but boosting exports and imports was not one of its core listed strategic thrusts.

Q81Schemes & Social JusticeHealth SchemesHealth Budget Allocations

Rastriya Swastya Bima Yojana is a Government of India programme which relates to

  1. A.

    Health Insurance Scheme for the labourers of unorganised sector.

    Correct
  2. B.

    Health Insurance Scheme for the labourers of organised sector.

  3. C.

    Health Insurance Scheme for the labourers of organised and unorganised sector.

  4. D.

    Financial Assistance Scheme for the labourers of organised and unorganised sector.

Explanation

The Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana (RSBY) is a Government of India health insurance scheme specifically targeted at Below Poverty Line workers in the unorganised sector.

Q82Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaMauryan Empire & Ashoka

The stone Portrait of Ashoka is discovered at

  1. A.

    Patliputra

  2. B.

    Taxashila

  3. C.

    Kandhahar

  4. D.

    Kanaganahalli

    Correct

Explanation

A rare stone portrait sculpture identified as Emperor Ashoka was discovered at the Kanaganahalli Buddhist site in Karnataka's Kalaburagi district, one of the few surviving physical depictions of the Mauryan emperor.

Q83Karnataka HistoryAncient & Medieval Karnataka DynastiesInscriptions, Epigraphy & Antiquity of Karnataka

Sannati is associated with which of the following religion ?

  1. A.

    Buddhism

    Correct
  2. B.

    Jainism

  3. C.

    Saivism

  4. D.

    Vaishvism

Explanation

Sannati, in Karnataka's Kalaburagi district, is an important ancient Buddhist site known for its stupa remains and Ashokan-era inscriptions.

Q84Ancient & Medieval History (India)Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval)Coinage Systems through the Ages

Of which metal were the early Punch marked coins made ?

  1. A.

    Gold

  2. B.

    Silver

    Correct
  3. C.

    Mixed Metal

  4. D.

    Bronze

Explanation

The earliest Indian punch-marked coins, dating from around the 6th century BCE, were predominantly made of silver, stamped with punched symbols rather than cast.

Q85Ancient & Medieval History (India)Vedic Age & Early SocietyRise of Jainism, Buddhism and Heterodox Sects

The earliest Jaina texts are written in which language ?

  1. A.

    Sanskrit

  2. B.

    Tamil

  3. C.

    Ardha Magadhi

    Correct
  4. D.

    Aramaic

Explanation

The earliest Jaina canonical texts (the Agamas) were composed in Ardha-Magadhi, a Prakrit dialect associated with the region where Mahavira preached.

Q86Karnataka HistoryAncient & Medieval Karnataka DynastiesKadambas, Gangas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, Hoysalas

Which one of the following Badami Chalukya King had to face the Arab invasion ?

  1. A.

    Vikramaditya II

    Correct
  2. B.

    Kirttivarma II

  3. C.

    Dharasraya Jayasimha

  4. D.

    Vinayaditya

Explanation

Vikramaditya II of the Badami Chalukya dynasty (r. 733-746 CE) successfully repelled Arab incursions into the Deccan from Sindh during his reign.

Q87Indian CultureLanguages & LiteratureClassical Languages and Literature (Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Regional)

Jonaraja wrote the book by name

  1. A.

    Rajatarangini

    Correct
  2. B.

    Desiraja Charita

  3. C.

    Kavyanjali

  4. D.

    Jaina Kavya

Explanation

Jonaraja, a 15th-century Kashmiri court poet, wrote a continuation of Kalhana's chronicle under the same title, Rajatarangini, extending the record of Kashmiri history.

Q88Ancient & Medieval History (India)Delhi Sultanate & Regional KingdomsDelhi Sultanate Dynasties and Administration

The last ruler of the Khilji dynasty to rule India was

  1. A.

    Khizer Khan

  2. B.

    Shadi Khan

  3. C.

    Qutubuddin Mubarak Shah

    Correct
  4. D.

    Shahabuddin Umar

Explanation

Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khilji, assassinated in 1320 CE, was the last ruling sultan of the Khilji dynasty before the Tughlaqs seized power in Delhi.

Q89Karnataka HistoryAncient & Medieval Karnataka DynastiesVijayanagara Empire and Karnataka Regional Rulers

The weavers of the Vijayanagara period were called

  1. A.

    Vipra Vinodhins

  2. B.

    Kaikkolas

    Correct
  3. C.

    Tottiyans

  4. D.

    Uppilians

Explanation

Weavers engaged in the flourishing textile trade of the Vijayanagara period were referred to as Kaikkolas.

Q90Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaBritish Commissioners' Rule & Nizam's Hyderabad-Karnataka

Which of the following missionaries played an important role in the Basel Mission in Mangalore ?

  1. A.

    Richter

  2. B.

    Kittel

  3. C.

    Gundart

  4. D.

    Moegling

    Correct

Explanation

Hermann Friedrich Mogling, a Basel Mission missionary based in Mangalore, played a pioneering role in Kannada printing and journalism, notably launching Kannada's first newspaper, Mangalooru Samachara, in 1843.

Q91Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaWodeyars, Hyder Ali & Tippu Sultan

Name the author of Modern Mysore which was published in 1936.

  1. A.

    Janaki Nair

  2. B.

    M. Shama Rao

    Correct
  3. C.

    C.H. Rao

  4. D.

    P. Ramachandra Rao

Explanation

M. Shama Rao authored 'Modern Mysore', a two-volume historical account of the Mysore princely state, published in 1936.

Q92Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaWodeyars, Hyder Ali & Tippu Sultan

Whose rule has been considered as the 'Golden Age of Music' in Karnataka ?

  1. A.

    Krishnaraja Wodeyar III

  2. B.

    Chamarajendra Wodeyar

  3. C.

    Krishnaraja Wodeyar IV

    Correct
  4. D.

    Jayachamarajendra Wodeyar

Explanation

The reign of Krishnaraja Wodeyar IV (Nalvadi Krishnaraja Wodeyar) is regarded as a golden age for Karnataka's classical music and arts, owing to his extensive patronage of musicians and cultural institutions.

Q93Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsCaste, Depressed Classes & Backward Class Movements

'Untouchability finds no sanction in the Hindu Shastras' was said by

  1. A.

    Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

  2. B.

    Mahatma Phule

  3. C.

    Mahatma Gandhi

    Correct
  4. D.

    Periyar Ramaswamy Naiker

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi repeatedly argued that untouchability had no sanction in genuine Hindu scriptures and campaigned against it as a social evil corrupting Hindu society.

Q94Modern History (India)Indian National MovementConstitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)

Cripps Mission was sent to India to seek

  1. A.

    Co-operation of the Indians

    Correct
  2. B.

    Co-operation of the British

  3. C.

    Co-operation of the Hindus

  4. D.

    Co-operation of the Muslims

Explanation

The 1942 Cripps Mission was sent by the British government to secure Indian political parties' cooperation in the Allied war effort during World War II, in exchange for promised post-war dominion status.

Q95Modern History (India)British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal DevelopmentsBritish Economic Policies & Deindustrialization

The high priest of drain theory was

  1. A.

    R.C. Dutt

  2. B.

    Dadabhai Naoroji

    Correct
  3. C.

    Gopal Krishna Gokhale

  4. D.

    B.G. Tilak

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji, through his 'Drain of Wealth' theory articulated in works like Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, was the principal architect of the economic critique that British rule was systematically draining India's wealth to Britain.

Q96Modern History (India)Indian National MovementConstitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)

The Viceroy who summoned the Shimla Conference was

  1. A.

    Lord Linlithgo

  2. B.

    Lord Irwin

  3. C.

    Lord Mountbatten

  4. D.

    Lord Wavell

    Correct

Explanation

Viceroy Lord Wavell convened the Shimla Conference in June 1945 to discuss a proposal for an interim government representing Indian political parties, though it ultimately failed over Congress-Muslim League disagreements.

Q97Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsLandforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)

The term 'Misfit river' refers to

  1. A.

    A broad and strait river valley which is lacking of meanders.

  2. B.

    A big river valley with small quantity of water flowing through it.

    Correct
  3. C.

    A large river flowing in a arid region.

  4. D.

    A small river valley in which large amount of water flows inundating the low lands.

Explanation

A misfit stream is one that appears too small for the wide, meandering valley it occupies, indicating the valley was originally carved by a far greater volume of water than the present, diminished river now carries.

Q98Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsLandforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)

Playa lakes are one of the typical features in the

  1. A.

    Flood plains

  2. B.

    Glaciated regions

  3. C.

    Deserts

    Correct
  4. D.

    Karst regions

Explanation

Playa lakes are shallow, temporary salt lakes typical of desert basins, forming when intermittent rainfall or runoff collects in enclosed depressions and then evaporates rapidly.

Q99Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Identify the best explanation of Igneous rocks.

  1. A.

    Primary rocks formed by cooling of lava, crystalline and lacking of fossils.

    Correct
  2. B.

    Primary rocks formed by cooling of lava, lacking of crystals of any size and are known for the deposits of coal and petroleum.

  3. C.

    Igneous rocks are formed both on the surface of the earth and underground but do not have any kind of minerals except coal.

  4. D.

    Primary rocks and these are porous known for large amount of underground water.

Explanation

Igneous rocks are primary rocks formed directly from the cooling and solidification of molten lava or magma; being crystalline in structure, they do not contain fossils, unlike sedimentary rocks.

Q100Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereAtmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds

Most of the weather phenomena is confined to

  1. A.

    Troposphere

    Correct
  2. B.

    Stratosphere

  3. C.

    Mesosphere

  4. D.

    Ionosphere

Explanation

Nearly all everyday weather phenomena — clouds, rain, storms — occur in the troposphere, the lowest atmospheric layer, where temperature decreases with altitude and most water vapour and convective activity are concentrated.

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