KPSC Departmental Exams 2021 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Indian Polity, Current Affairs, Geography of India, Karnataka Geography, Economy, Schemes & Social Justice, General Mental Ability, Physics, Chemistry, Environment, Agriculture Science, Biology, Post-Independence Consolidation, Physical Geography (World), Karnataka History, Ancient & Medieval History (India), Modern History (India).

Questions
100 questions
Duration
90 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.500
Q1Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Who appoints Lokayukta of Karnataka?

  1. A.

    Chief Minister of a State

  2. B.

    President of India

  3. C.

    Chief Justice of High Court

  4. D.

    Governor of a State

    Correct

Explanation

The Governor of a state appoints the Lokayukta, generally on the advice of the Chief Minister after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court and the Leader of the Opposition.

Q2Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Which of the following Article in the Constitution is considered as heart and soul of the Constitution as per Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

  1. A.

    Article 21

  2. B.

    Article 19

  3. C.

    Article 32

    Correct
  4. D.

    Article 14

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called Article 32, the Right to Constitutional Remedies, the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution because it lets citizens directly approach the Supreme Court to enforce their Fundamental Rights.

Q3Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

What is the name of the mobile app developed by the Karnataka state government to combat COVID-19?

  1. A.

    Aptharakshaka

  2. B.

    Arogyarakshaka

  3. C.

    Apthamithra

    Correct
  4. D.

    Arogyasethu

Explanation

Apthamithra was the mobile app and call-centre helpline launched by the Karnataka government for COVID-19 information, self-assessment and contact tracing.

Q4Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

When was the first case of Covid-19 confirmed in Karnataka?

  1. A.

    31st December 2019

  2. B.

    27th January 2020

  3. C.

    3rd March 2020

  4. D.

    8th March 2020

    Correct

Explanation

Karnataka's first confirmed COVID-19 case, in a person who had returned from the US via Wuhan travel history, was reported on 8 March 2020.

Q5Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

Which city is hosting Karnataka's first tribal museum?

  1. A.

    Bangalore

  2. B.

    Mangalore

  3. C.

    Mysore

    Correct
  4. D.

    Shivamogga

Explanation

Mysuru is confirmed as the site of Karnataka's first Tribal Museum, set up by the Karnataka State Tribal Research Institute (KSTRI) at Kergalli and inaugurated by Tribal Welfare Minister B. Sriramulu; Mysuru was chosen as KSTRI's head office given the sizeable tribal population across Mysuru, Chamarajanagar, Kodagu and Udupi.

Q6Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEnvironmental & Global Rankings

Which of the following cities was the only city in Karnataka to get ranked in 'Swachh Survekshan's in the year 2020 and got the 5th place?

  1. A.

    Bangalore

  2. B.

    Hassan

  3. C.

    Udupi

  4. D.

    Mysore

    Correct

Explanation

In the Swachh Survekshan 2020 rankings, Mysuru was the only Karnataka city to place in the top 5 cleanest cities in India.

Q7Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

Which of the following date is observed as world population day?

  1. A.

    July 1

  2. B.

    July 11

    Correct
  3. C.

    July 21

  4. D.

    July 31

Explanation

World Population Day is observed on 11 July every year, a date instituted by the United Nations in 1989.

Q8Current AffairsEvents in NewsNatural Events (disasters, discoveries)

What was the name of the comet which was closest to the sun and visible to naked eye in July 2020?

  1. A.

    Borelly

  2. B.

    Neowise

    Correct
  3. C.

    Holmes

  4. D.

    Machholz

Explanation

Comet NEOWISE (C/2020 F3) made its closest approach to the Sun in July 2020 and was visible to the naked eye from Earth.

Q9Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

India's largest Ropeway over a River was inaugurated in August 2020 which River it is located?

  1. A.

    Ganga

  2. B.

    Godavari

  3. C.

    Bhageerathi

  4. D.

    Brahmaputra

    Correct

Explanation

India's longest ropeway over a river, linking Guwahati with North Guwahati across the Brahmaputra, was inaugurated in August 2020.

Q10Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

'Venkatraipur' a village which was declared as 'Tsunami Ready' by intergovernmental oceanographic commission of UNESCO is located in which state?

  1. A.

    Odisha

    Correct
  2. B.

    West Bengal

  3. C.

    Maharastra

  4. D.

    Andrapradesh

Explanation

Venkatrayapur village in Odisha's Jagatsinghpur district was recognised as 'Tsunami Ready' by UNESCO's Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission.

Q11Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

Karnataka State's position in India innovation Index 2020 is

  1. A.

    First

    Correct
  2. B.

    Second

  3. C.

    Fourth

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Karnataka ranked first among major states in the India Innovation Index 2020 released by NITI Aayog.

Q12Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

On which River 'Maitri Setu' Bridge is planned to connect Tripura with Bangladesh

  1. A.

    Feni

    Correct
  2. B.

    Teesta

  3. C.

    Lohith

  4. D.

    Ganga

Explanation

The Maitri Setu, connecting Tripura with Bangladesh, is built over the Feni river.

Q13Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

Government of India planned to setting up new major port Vadhavan' in the state of

  1. A.

    Gujarath

  2. B.

    Kerala

  3. C.

    Goa

  4. D.

    Maharastra

    Correct

Explanation

Vadhavan Port, a proposed major all-weather deep-draft port, is planned in Palghar district, Maharashtra.

Q14Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainagePhysiographic Divisions of India

India's Andaman and Nicobar Island share a Maritime border with which among the following

  1. A.

    Thailand

  2. B.

    Thailand and Indonesia

    Correct
  3. C.

    Thailand, Indonesia and Srilanka

  4. D.

    Thailand and Srilanka

Explanation

India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands share maritime boundaries with both Thailand and Indonesia.

Q15Geography of IndiaSoils & Natural VegetationForest Cover and Vegetation Types

How many states in India have a forest cover more than 75 percent of their Geographical land area. (according to 2019 report)

  1. A.

    3 states

  2. B.

    4 states

  3. C.

    5 states

    Correct
  4. D.

    6 states

Explanation

As per the India State of Forest Report 2019, exactly five states had forest cover exceeding 75% of their geographical area: Mizoram (85.41%), Arunachal Pradesh (79.63%), Meghalaya (76.33%), Manipur (75.46%) and Nagaland (75.31%) — all narrowly but genuinely above the 75% threshold.

Q16Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyBiogeographic Regions

The length of Karnataka from Bidar to Chamarajnagar

  1. A.

    750 kms

    Correct
  2. B.

    400 kms

  3. C.

    700 kms

  4. D.

    680 kms

Explanation

Karnataka extends roughly 750 km from Bidar in the north to Chamarajanagar in the south.

Q17Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyBiogeographic Regions

Mullayyangiri highest mountain peak of Karnataka located in which of the following district

  1. A.

    Uttar Kannada

  2. B.

    Chikmagaluru

    Correct
  3. C.

    Shivamoga

  4. D.

    Hassan

Explanation

Mullayyanagiri, Karnataka's highest peak at about 1,930 metres, is located in Chikkamagaluru district.

Q18Karnataka GeographySoil & VegetationKarnataka Soil Types & Natural Vegetation

Which of the following-district of Karnataka has least area under forest as per 2011?

  1. A.

    Kalaburgi

  2. B.

    Vijayapur

    Correct
  3. C.

    Bagalkot

  4. D.

    Yadgiri

Explanation

Vijayapura, part of Karnataka's dry northern plains with low rainfall, had the least forest cover among the state's districts as per 2011 data.

Q19EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingSchemes

Expand ODOP.

  1. A.

    One Department One Power

  2. B.

    One Data One Perfect

  3. C.

    One District One Product

    Correct
  4. D.

    One Definition One Power

Explanation

ODOP (One District One Product) is a Government of India initiative to identify and promote a unique product from each district to boost local economies and exports.

Q20EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyMoney Supply

Crypto-currency refers to

  1. A.

    Digital Money

    Correct
  2. B.

    Market Money

  3. C.

    Shares Money

  4. D.

    Bank Money

Explanation

Cryptocurrency is a form of digital money secured by cryptography, existing only in electronic form rather than as physical currency.

Q21Schemes & Social JusticeRural Development SchemesJalamrutha Scheme

Jalamrutha Scheme was initiated by the

  1. A.

    Agriculture Department

  2. B.

    Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department

    Correct
  3. C.

    Rural Water Supply and Sanitation Department

  4. D.

    Women and Child Welfare Department

Explanation

Jalamrutha, a Karnataka scheme for groundwater recharge and water conservation, was launched under the Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department.

Q22EconomyBankingBanking Reforms

Which is the right answer for the Merger of Banks?

  1. A.

    Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank merged with Bank of Baroda

  2. B.

    Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India merged with Punjab National Bank

  3. C.

    Corporation Bank and Andhra Bank merged with Union Bank of India

  4. D.

    All the above

    Correct

Explanation

In the 2019-20 bank amalgamation, Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank merged into Bank of Baroda, Oriental Bank of Commerce and United Bank of India merged into Punjab National Bank, and Corporation Bank and Andhra Bank merged into Union Bank of India — all three statements are correct.

Q23Schemes & Social JusticeHealth SchemesHealth Budget Allocations

Jyothi Sanjeevini Scheme for

  1. A.

    Karnataka State Government Employees

    Correct
  2. B.

    Central Government Employees

  3. C.

    Garments Employees

  4. D.

    Industrial Employees

Explanation

Jyothi Sanjeevini is a health insurance scheme meant for Karnataka State Government employees and their dependents.

Q24EconomyMicroeconomics BasicsTheory of Firm, Costs & Production

Block Pricing means

  1. A.

    Seller charges same prices for different quantities of a good

  2. B.

    Seller charges different prices for different quantities of a good

    Correct
  3. C.

    Buyer purchases different quantities of a good at different prices

  4. D.

    Buyer purchases same quantities of a good at different prices

Explanation

Block pricing is a form of price discrimination where a seller charges different prices for different quantity blocks of the same good.

Q25General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningClocks & Calendars

The First Republic Day of India was celebrated on 26th January 1950. It was

  1. A.

    Tuesday

  2. B.

    Wednesday

  3. C.

    Thursday

    Correct
  4. D.

    Friday

Explanation

26 January 1950 fell on a Thursday, which is why India's first Republic Day landed on that day of the week.

Q26General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningClocks & Calendars

The angle between the minute hand and hour hand if a clock when the time is 4 hour 20 minutes

  1. A.

    00^{\circ}

  2. B.

    1010^{\circ}

    Correct
  3. C.

    55^{\circ}

  4. D.

    2020^{\circ}

Explanation

At 4:20, the hour hand is at 130° and the minute hand is at 120° from the 12 mark, so the angle between them is 10°.

Q27General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

2, 12, 36, 80, 150 _________.

  1. A.

    252

    Correct
  2. B.

    250

  3. C.

    260

  4. D.

    262

Explanation

The series follows n²(n+1): 1²×2=2, 2²×3=12, 3²×4=36, 4²×5=80, 5²×6=150, so the next term is 6²×7=252.

Q28PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsStandard Model of Particle Physics

As an object approaches the speed of light, it's mass becomes

  1. A.

    zero

  2. B.

    double

  3. C.

    remains same

  4. D.

    infinite

    Correct

Explanation

Under special relativity, an object's relativistic mass increases without bound as its speed approaches the speed of light, becoming infinite at c.

Q29PhysicsOptics & SoundReflection, Refraction & Lenses

Raman effect is scattering of

  1. A.

    Atoms

  2. B.

    Protons

  3. C.

    Neutrons

  4. D.

    Photons

    Correct

Explanation

The Raman effect is the inelastic scattering of photons (light) by molecules, producing a shift in the scattered light's wavelength.

Q30PhysicsOptics & SoundSound Waves, Echo & Navigation (SONAR, Bat Echolocation)

What sort of waves exhibits in Doppler effect?

  1. A.

    Light waves

  2. B.

    Water waves

  3. C.

    Sound waves

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Doppler effect is classically illustrated with sound waves, where the perceived frequency changes as the source moves relative to the observer.

Q31PhysicsElectricity & MagnetismCurrent, Voltage, Resistance & SI Units

Semiconductor diodes can be used in the following circuits

  1. A.

    Rectifiers

  2. B.

    Logic Gates

  3. C.

    LED Lamps

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Semiconductor diodes are used in rectifier circuits to convert AC to DC, in logic gates for digital circuits, and as LEDs for light emission.

Q32PhysicsOptics & SoundReflection, Refraction & Lenses

Which of the following is not a characteristic of LASERS?

  1. A.

    Monochromatic

  2. B.

    Coherent

  3. C.

    Divergent

    Correct
  4. D.

    Intense

Explanation

Laser light is monochromatic, coherent and intense, but it is highly directional (collimated), not divergent.

Q33PhysicsMechanics & MotionLaws of Motion & Force

When milk is churned cream gets separated due to

  1. A.

    gravitational force

  2. B.

    frictional force

  3. C.

    centripetal force

  4. D.

    centrifugal force

    Correct

Explanation

Churning applies centrifugal force, which separates the lighter, lower-density cream from the denser milk.

Q34ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsChemical Bonding

Fog is an example of a

  1. A.

    Liquid dispersed in gas

    Correct
  2. B.

    Gas dispersed in liquid

  3. C.

    Solid dispersed in liquid

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Fog is a colloid of tiny liquid water droplets dispersed in air, i.e. a liquid dispersed in a gas.

Q35EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

A car parked in the sun with its windows closed gets terribly hot inside. This is due to

  1. A.

    The heat emitted by the engine

  2. B.

    The good conducting power of the metal body

  3. C.

    The green house effect

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of these

Explanation

Sunlight enters through the car's glass and is absorbed inside, which then re-radiates heat as infrared radiation that cannot easily escape — the same greenhouse-effect principle that warms the atmosphere.

Q36PhysicsElectromagnetic Waves & SpectrumApplications of EM Waves (Radar, Microwave, X-Ray)

The ultraviolet radiations find their applications in which of the following? (a) Simulate the human body to produce vitamin-D (b) Distinguish between fake and real diamonds (c) Detect any alteration in the bank cheques (d) Detect forged currency notes Select the correct option from the codes given below :

  1. A.

    Only (a)

  2. B.

    Only (a) and (b)

  3. C.

    Only (a), (b) and (c)

  4. D.

    All the above

    Correct

Explanation

Ultraviolet radiation stimulates vitamin-D synthesis in skin, is used to authenticate diamonds and currency notes, and helps detect alterations in bank cheques via fluorescent markers.

Q37Agriculture ScienceCrops, Cropping Systems & HorticultureMajor Crops and Cropping Patterns

Father of green revolution in India

  1. A.

    M.S. Swaminathan

    Correct
  2. B.

    Huxley

  3. C.

    Darwin

  4. D.

    Fox

Explanation

Dr. M.S. Swaminathan is regarded as the Father of the Green Revolution in India for pioneering high-yielding wheat and rice varieties in the 1960s.

Q38BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyBasics of Genetics & DNA

Sum total of all the genes found in the individuals of the population of a particular species is known as

  1. A.

    Gene pool

    Correct
  2. B.

    Gene frequency

  3. C.

    Genome

  4. D.

    Karyotype

Explanation

The gene pool is the total sum of all genes and their alleles present among the individuals of a population of a given species.

Q39BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyBasics of Genetics & DNA

RT-PCR means

  1. A.

    Replication transposon polymerase chemical reaction

  2. B.

    Reverse transformation polyembryo chain reaction

  3. C.

    Reverse transcription polymerase chain reaction

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

RT-PCR (Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction) converts viral RNA into complementary DNA and then amplifies it, which is why it is used to detect RNA viruses such as SARS-CoV-2.

Q40ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsChemical Bonding

For HF molecule the percentage of ionic characters is

  1. A.

    45%

    Correct
  2. B.

    50%

  3. C.

    42%

  4. D.

    55%

Explanation

Using the standard dipole-moment method (observed μ ≈ 1.91-1.98 D versus the theoretical 100%-ionic value of ~4.42 D from q×d with bond length 0.92 Å) gives roughly 43-45% ionic character for HF; 45% is the figure conventionally quoted in exam literature as part of the well-known decreasing series HF (45%) > HCl (17%) > HBr (11%) > HI (4%) that tracks falling H-halogen electronegativity difference down the group.

Q41PhysicsHeat & ThermodynamicsLaws of Thermodynamics

The absolute zero pressure can be attained at a temperature of

  1. A.

    0C0^{\circ}C

  2. B.

    273C-273^{\circ}C

    Correct
  3. C.

    273K273 K

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Absolute zero, the temperature at which an ideal gas would exert zero pressure, corresponds to -273°C (0 Kelvin).

Q42BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyStem Cell Therapy & CAR-T Cell Therapy

Stem cell is an alternative term for which one of the following?

  1. A.

    Redifferentiated cell

  2. B.

    Undifferentiated cell

    Correct
  3. C.

    Differentiated cell

  4. D.

    Dedifferentiated cell

Explanation

Stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have not committed to a specialised function and can develop into various cell types.

Q43BiologyCell BiologyCell Structure & Organelles

Match the following and choose the correct option given below : (a) Adipose tissue (i) Nose (b) Stratified epithelium (ii) Blood (c) Hyaline cartilage (iii) Skin (d) Connective tissue (iv) Fat storage

  1. A.

    (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

  2. B.

    (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

  4. D.

    (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Explanation

Adipose tissue stores fat, stratified epithelium lines the skin, hyaline cartilage is found in the nose, and connective tissue includes blood — giving the correct match order (iv)(iii)(i)(ii).

Q44BiologyHuman Physiology & SystemsDigestive System

Which one of the following hormone is not synthesized by Islets of Langerhans?

  1. A.

    Insulin

  2. B.

    Glucagon

  3. C.

    Somatostatin

  4. D.

    Vasopressin

    Correct

Explanation

The Islets of Langerhans in the pancreas secrete insulin, glucagon and somatostatin; vasopressin (ADH) is instead produced by the hypothalamus and released via the posterior pituitary.

Q45BiologyDiseasesNon-Communicable & Lifestyle Diseases

Lowered body temperature is called

  1. A.

    Hyperthermia

  2. B.

    Isothermia

  3. C.

    Hypothermia

    Correct
  4. D.

    Nausea

Explanation

Hypothermia is the medical term for an abnormally low body temperature, typically below 35°C.

Q46Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

Competent to prescribe conditions for acquiring 'Citizenship of India'

  1. A.

    President of India

  2. B.

    Attorney General of India

  3. C.

    Parliament of India

    Correct
  4. D.

    Advocate General

Explanation

Article 11 empowers Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship, including prescribing the conditions for acquiring or terminating Indian citizenship.

Q47Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

The Constitution of India provides (a) Presidential form of Government (b) Cabinet system of Government (c) Parliamentary system (d) Bicameral system

  1. A.

    (a)

  2. B.

    (a) and (b)

  3. C.

    (a), (b) and (c)

  4. D.

    (b), (c) and (d)

    Correct

Explanation

India's Constitution establishes a parliamentary system with a cabinet responsible to the legislature and a bicameral Parliament, but not a presidential form of government.

Q48Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

This Article is related to "Equal Justice and Free legal aid"

  1. A.

    Article 38

  2. B.

    Article 40

  3. C.

    Article 39

  4. D.

    Article 39A

    Correct

Explanation

Article 39A, inserted by the 42nd Amendment, directs the State to ensure equal justice and provide free legal aid to those unable to afford it.

Q49Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

The Union Government gives grant-in-aid to the states on the recommendations of the

  1. A.

    Planning Commission

  2. B.

    Finance Commission

    Correct
  3. C.

    Cabinet

  4. D.

    Parliament

Explanation

Under Article 275, the Union Government gives statutory grants-in-aid to states based on the recommendations of the Finance Commission.

Q50Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

Which of the Article provides the creation of All India Services?

  1. A.

    Article 311

  2. B.

    Article 312

    Correct
  3. C.

    Article 312A

  4. D.

    Article 309

Explanation

Article 312 empowers Parliament to create new All India Services common to the Union and the states, such as the IAS and IPS.

Q51Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Procedure for Impeachment of the President

  1. A.

    Article 61

    Correct
  2. B.

    Article 141

  3. C.

    Article 152

  4. D.

    Article 72

Explanation

Article 61 lays down the procedure for impeaching the President of India for violation of the Constitution.

Q52Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

Form of Oath or Affirmation to be made by the Judges of the Supreme Court and Comptroller and Auditor General of India

  1. A.

    Schedule 1

  2. B.

    Schedule 2

  3. C.

    Schedule 3

    Correct
  4. D.

    Schedule 4

Explanation

The Third Schedule of the Constitution prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for various functionaries, including Supreme Court judges and the CAG.

Q53Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

According to Article 12 of Constitution of India “the State” includes (a) The Government and The Parliament of India (b) The Government and The Legislature of each state (c) All local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of Government of India

  1. A.

    Only (a) is correct

  2. B.

    Both (a) and (b) is correct

  3. C.

    (b) and (c) is correct

  4. D.

    All the above

    Correct

Explanation

Article 12 defines 'the State' broadly to include the Union and state governments and legislatures, as well as all local and other authorities within Indian territory or under the Government of India's control.

Q54Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Salient features of Fundamental Rights in India is

  1. A.

    These are not elaborate

  2. B.

    These are both negative and positive

    Correct
  3. C.

    There can't be maintained through courts of law

  4. D.

    These are absolute

Explanation

Fundamental Rights in India are both negative (restraining state action, e.g. against discrimination) and positive (mandating action, e.g. certain entitlements) in character.

Q55Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. A.

    Equal representation is given to States in Rajya Sabha

    Correct
  2. B.

    The central government is very strong

  3. C.

    Both centre and the States can legislate on concurrent list

  4. D.

    Residuary powers are with the Centre

Explanation

Unlike the US Senate, the Rajya Sabha does not give equal representation to states — seats are allocated roughly in proportion to population, making this statement the incorrect one.

Q56Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

In a secular state the religion

  1. A.

    of majority is promoted

  2. B.

    of minority is protected

  3. C.

    of state is promoted

  4. D.

    has nothing to do with politics

    Correct

Explanation

In a secular state, religion is kept separate from politics and governance, with the state neither promoting nor discriminating against any faith.

Q57Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed among the States?

  1. A.

    Duty on Medicines

  2. B.

    Stamp Duty

  3. C.

    Tax on Railways

  4. D.

    Income Tax

    Correct

Explanation

Income tax is levied and collected by the Union Government but its proceeds are shared with the states as per Finance Commission recommendations under Article 270.

Q58Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

The Council of Ministers under Article 75(3) is

  1. A.

    Collectively responsible to the House of the people

    Correct
  2. B.

    Collectively responsible to the Council of States

  3. C.

    Collectively responsible to the President of India

  4. D.

    Collectively responsible to the House of the people as well as the Council of States

Explanation

Article 75(3) makes the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the directly elected House of the People.

Q59Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

The right to property is

  1. A.

    An absolute right

  2. B.

    Fundamental right

  3. C.

    A moral right

  4. D.

    An individual privileges not guaranteed by the state

    Correct

Explanation

Since the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978), the right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights and made a legal right under Article 300A, not an absolute state-guaranteed entitlement.

Q60Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Who appoints the chairman of the Finance Commission?

  1. A.

    Prime Minister

  2. B.

    President

    Correct
  3. C.

    Vice-President

  4. D.

    Speaker

Explanation

The Chairman and members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President of India under Article 280.

Q61Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Money Bill can only be introduced in the

  1. A.

    Lok Sabha

    Correct
  2. B.

    Rajya Sabha

  3. C.

    Joint Session of both house

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

As per Article 109, a Money Bill can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha.

Q62Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

If the President of India wants to resign, he has to Address the letter of resignation to the

  1. A.

    Chief Justice of India

  2. B.

    Prime Minister

  3. C.

    Speaker

  4. D.

    Vice-President

    Correct

Explanation

Under Article 56(1)(a), the President of India addresses their resignation letter to the Vice-President of India.

Q63Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

The members of the National Commission for SC/ST were appointed by

  1. A.

    Prime Minister

  2. B.

    President

    Correct
  3. C.

    Parliament

  4. D.

    Cabinet

Explanation

The Chairperson and members of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes/Scheduled Tribes are appointed by the President of India.

Q64Indian PolityJudiciarySupreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review

Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights of Indian Citizens?

  1. A.

    International Court of Justice

  2. B.

    Supreme Court

    Correct
  3. C.

    The State Legislature

  4. D.

    Law Minister

Explanation

The Supreme Court is regarded as the guardian and custodian of the Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens, empowered under Article 32 to enforce them.

Q65Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

The “Right of Constitutional Remedies” is mentioned in

  1. A.

    Moral Right

  2. B.

    Legal Right

  3. C.

    Natural Right

  4. D.

    Fundamental Right

    Correct

Explanation

The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) is itself a Fundamental Right, allowing citizens to move the Supreme Court to enforce other Fundamental Rights.

Q66Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

The Finance Commission is constituted for a period of

  1. A.

    Four years

  2. B.

    Five years

    Correct
  3. C.

    Six years

  4. D.

    Ten years

Explanation

Under Article 280, a new Finance Commission is constituted by the President every five years, or earlier if necessary.

Q67Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

The President of India is bound to give the assent to the bill without reconsiderations

  1. A.

    Ordinary Bill

  2. B.

    Bill passed by the both houses of Parliament

  3. C.

    Money Bill

    Correct
  4. D.

    Constitution Amendment Bill

Explanation

As per Article 111's proviso, the President must give assent to a Money Bill passed by Parliament and cannot withhold it or return it for reconsideration.

Q68Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Parliament or State Legislature can declare a sear vacant; if any member of the house remains absent for a period of ----------- without seeking primary consent.

  1. A.

    30 days

  2. B.

    60 days

    Correct
  3. C.

    90 days

  4. D.

    120 days

Explanation

Under Article 101, a member's seat can be declared vacant if the member remains absent from all sittings of the House for 60 days without permission.

Q69Post-Independence ConsolidationState Reorganization & National IntegrationLinguistic Reorganization of States

Which is the first state of India which was formed on linguistic ground?

  1. A.

    Tamil Nadu

  2. B.

    Jammu and Kashmir

  3. C.

    Andra Pradesh

    Correct
  4. D.

    Karnataka

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh, carved out of Madras State in 1953 for Telugu speakers, was the first Indian state formed purely on a linguistic basis.

Q70Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with Uniform Civil Code

  1. A.

    Article 43

  2. B.

    Article 46

  3. C.

    Article 45

  4. D.

    Article 44

    Correct

Explanation

Article 44 directs the State to endeavour to secure a Uniform Civil Code for all citizens throughout India.

Q71Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

On which Article Union Budget is presented periodically

  1. A.

    Article 115

  2. B.

    Article 114

  3. C.

    Article 113

  4. D.

    Article 112

    Correct

Explanation

Article 112 requires the President to lay the Annual Financial Statement (the Union Budget) before both Houses of Parliament for each financial year.

Q72Current AffairsInternational NewsInternational Relations, Treaties & Conflicts

Recently the Suez Canal has been in the news for the following reasons : A. Its length and width were increased B. A 400 meter long ship was trapped in the middle of the canal C. Since it adds the Mediterranean and the Red Sea D. Ship traffic loss is estimated as $1 billion

Answer using the following codes :

  1. A.

    Only A and C

  2. B.

    B and D only

    Correct
  3. C.

    A, B, C, D

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

In March 2021, the container ship Ever Given ran aground and blocked the Suez Canal for nearly a week, causing an estimated $1 billion in trade losses per day due to disrupted shipping traffic.

Q73EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsUN Environmental Reports

Which of the following organization was released 'State of the Global Climate for 2020'?

  1. A.

    Intergovernmental Panal on Climate Change (IPCC)

  2. B.

    World Meteorological Organization (WMO)

    Correct
  3. C.

    Global Atmosphere Watch (GAW)

  4. D.

    United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)

Explanation

The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) released the 'State of the Global Climate 2020' report, documenting record temperatures and climate extremes that year.

Q74Current AffairsEvents in NewsNatural Events (disasters, discoveries)

Which Institution published the corona studies series titled "Psycho-Social impact of pandemic and lockdown and how to cope with"?

  1. A.

    National Council of Education, Research and Training

  2. B.

    Central Board of Secondary Education

  3. C.

    National Book Trust

    Correct
  4. D.

    Indira Gandhi National University

Explanation

The National Book Trust published a corona studies booklet series, including one on the psycho-social impact of the pandemic and lockdown, to help readers cope during COVID-19.

Q75Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

The 14th edition of the Indian Premier League 2021 did not select the following stadium to play cricket match

  1. A.

    Ahmedabad - New Delhi - Kolkatta - Mumbai

  2. B.

    Mumbai - Chennai - Bengaluru - Ahmedabad

  3. C.

    Hyderabad - Kanpur - Mohali - Rajkot

    Correct
  4. D.

    Chennai - New Delhi - Bengaluru - Mumbai

Explanation

IPL 2021 (14th edition) was played across venues in Chennai, Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Bengaluru and Ahmedabad before being suspended; Hyderabad, Kanpur, Mohali and Rajkot were not among the chosen stadiums.

Q76Current AffairsPlaces in NewsNational and International Places

The following airports are have table top runway

  1. A.

    Mangalore, Kannur and Kazhikode

    Correct
  2. B.

    Bengaluru, Mumbai and Chennai

  3. C.

    Kolkatta, Jaipur and Ahmedabad

  4. D.

    New Delhi, Vishakpattanam and Hyderabad

Explanation

Mangalore, Kannur and Kozhikode airports sit on elevated plateaus and have 'table-top' runways, which end abruptly with a steep drop.

Q77Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

How many seats have been allocated for Karnataka in Rajyasabha?

  1. A.

    10

  2. B.

    12

    Correct
  3. C.

    18

  4. D.

    20

Explanation

Karnataka is allocated 12 seats in the Rajya Sabha, in proportion to its population.

Q78Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsFamous Waterfalls

Which of the following is not matching :

  1. A.

    Gokaka Falls - Malaprabha River

    Correct
  2. B.

    Chunchanakatte Falls - Kaveri River

  3. C.

    Shimsha Falls - Shimsha River

  4. D.

    Lalaguli Falls - Kali River

Explanation

Gokak Falls is formed by the Ghataprabha River, not the Malaprabha River, making this the mismatched pairing.

Q79Current AffairsInternational NewsGlobal Organisations, Summits & Alliances

Which social media platformed launched Coronavirus Information Hub in partnership with WHO, UNICEF and UNDP?

  1. A.

    Twitter

  2. B.

    WhatsApp

    Correct
  3. C.

    Instagram

  4. D.

    Telegram

Explanation

WhatsApp partnered with WHO, UNICEF and UNDP to launch a Coronavirus Information Hub providing verified COVID-19 updates to users.

Q80Current AffairsEvents in NewsNatural Events (disasters, discoveries)

Which country has become the first nation to complete clinical trial of COVID-19 vaccine on humans?

  1. A.

    China

  2. B.

    United States

  3. C.

    Russia

    Correct
  4. D.

    Australia

Explanation

Russia became the first country to complete human clinical trials and register a COVID-19 vaccine (Sputnik V) in 2020.

Q81Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

'Lonar Lake' is located in which state?

  1. A.

    Odisha

  2. B.

    Maharashtra

    Correct
  3. C.

    Gujarat

  4. D.

    Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Lonar Lake, a saline crater lake formed by a meteorite impact, is located in Buldhana district, Maharashtra.

Q82Karnataka HistoryAncient & Medieval Karnataka DynastiesKadambas, Gangas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas, Hoysalas

Karnataka Bala was the name of the army consolidated by

  1. A.

    Mayursharma

  2. B.

    Krishnadevaraya

  3. C.

    Pulkesi II

    Correct
  4. D.

    Vishnuvardhana

Explanation

'Karnataka Bala' was the elite army organised by the Chalukya king Pulakesi II.

Q83Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaGupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana

Where is the Iron Pillar inscription of Chandra Gupta II?

  1. A.

    Mehrauli, New Delhi

    Correct
  2. B.

    Agra

  3. C.

    Patna

  4. D.

    Kosambi

Explanation

The Iron Pillar bearing an inscription attributed to Chandragupta II stands at the Qutub complex in Mehrauli, New Delhi.

Q84Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaPost-Mauryan Foreign Dynasties (Indo-Greeks, Kushanas, Satavahanas)

Gandhara Art was introduced by the rulers of

  1. A.

    Guptas

  2. B.

    Kushana

    Correct
  3. C.

    Vardhana

  4. D.

    Pala

Explanation

Gandhara art, blending Greco-Roman and Indian styles in Buddhist sculpture, flourished under the patronage of the Kushana rulers.

Q85Ancient & Medieval History (India)Regional & South Indian DynastiesCholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas

Uttaramerur Inscriptions dealt with Local Self-Government are belonged to

  1. A.

    Parantaka I

    Correct
  2. B.

    Vir Pandya

  3. C.

    Mahendravarmana

  4. D.

    Pulkesi I

Explanation

The Uttaramerur inscriptions, describing detailed local self-government procedures, belong to the reign of the Chola king Parantaka I.

Q86Modern History (India)Indian National MovementGandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India

Quit India Movement was launched on

  1. A.

    8th August, 1942

    Correct
  2. B.

    8th June, 1942

  3. C.

    8th February, 1942

  4. D.

    8th July, 1942

Explanation

The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942 at the Bombay session of the AICC.

Q87General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyTrains Problems

A train running at the speed of 60 km/hr crosses a pole in 9 seconds. What is the length of the train?

  1. A.

    120 meters

  2. B.

    180 meters

  3. C.

    324 meters

  4. D.

    150 meters

    Correct

Explanation

At 60 km/hr (≈16.67 m/s), a train crossing a pole in 9 seconds covers a distance equal to its own length: 16.67 × 9 ≈ 150 metres.

Q88General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyPercentage

In an examination 80% candidates passed in Kannada and 88% candidates passed in Mathematics. If 75% candidates passed in both these subjects then what percent of candidates failed in both the subjects?

  1. A.

    7

    Correct
  2. B.

    15

  3. C.

    27

  4. D.

    36

Explanation

By inclusion-exclusion, the percentage passing at least one subject is 80+88-75=93%, so the percentage failing both is 100-93=7%.

Q89General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

The sum of ages of A, B and C is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago?

  1. A.

    71 years

    Correct
  2. B.

    72 years

  3. C.

    74 years

  4. D.

    77 years

Explanation

Three years ago each of the three people was 3 years younger, so their combined age was 80 - (3×3) = 71 years.

Q90General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

There are deer and peacocks in a zoo. By counting heads they are 80. The number of their legs is 220. How many peacocks are there?

  1. A.

    20

  2. B.

    30

  3. C.

    50

    Correct
  4. D.

    60

Explanation

Solving 2p+4(80-p)=220, where p is the number of peacocks (2 legs) and (80-p) deer (4 legs) among 80 heads, gives p=50 peacocks.

Q91General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracySpeed, Distance & Time

A boat can travel with a speed of 13 km/hr is still water. If the speed of the stream is 4 km/hr, find the time taken by the boat to go 68 km downstream

  1. A.

    2 hours

  2. B.

    4 hours

    Correct
  3. C.

    3 hours

  4. D.

    5 hours

Explanation

Downstream speed is 13+4=17 km/hr, so the time to cover 68 km is 68/17 = 4 hours.

Q92General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyRatio & Proportion

The length of a rectangular plot is 70 percent more than its breadth. If the difference between the length and breadth of that rectangle is 35 cm, what is the area of that rectangle?

  1. A.

    5000 sq cm

  2. B.

    6520 sq cm

  3. C.

    4250 sq cm

    Correct
  4. D.

    7250 sq cm

Explanation

If the length is 1.7 times the breadth and their difference is 35 cm, then 0.7×breadth=35 gives breadth=50 cm and length=85 cm, so the area is 50×85=4250 sq cm.

Q93General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningCoding-Decoding

Which one of the following numbers occupy the blank space?

101418
57?
531
101010
  1. A.

    5

  2. B.

    4

  3. C.

    6

  4. D.

    9

    Correct

Explanation

Two independent column rules confirm 9: row 1 is exactly double row 2 (10=2×5, 14=2×7, so the missing value must be 18÷2=9), and row 4 equals row 2 plus row 3 in every column (5+5=10, 7+3=10, so 9+1=10 also checks out). Both rules agree, so the blank is 9.

Q94General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningDirection & Distance

A man walked 20 meters towards north. Then he turned to his right and walked 30 meters. Then he turned to his right and walked 20 meters. He again turned to his left and walked 15 meters. At what distance is he from the starting point?

  1. A.

    45 meters

    Correct
  2. B.

    30 meters

  3. C.

    50 meters

  4. D.

    35 meters

Explanation

Plotting the path (20 m north, 30 m east, 20 m south, 15 m east) places the person 45 m east and back at the same north-south level as the start, so the straight-line distance is 45 metres.

Q95General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

What is the number that doesn't match the series 32, 33, 36, 42, 48, 57, 68?

  1. A.

    42

    Correct
  2. B.

    36

  3. C.

    57

  4. D.

    68

Explanation

The intended pattern adds consecutive odd numbers (+1, +3, +5, +7, +9, +11): 32, 33, 36, 41, 48, 57, 68; the given series has 42 in place of 41, making 42 the number that breaks the pattern.

Q96General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningRanking & Ordering

Ravi was standing in a queue. He was in 19th position from the beginning, and 15th position from the end. How many people were there in the queue?

  1. A.

    32

  2. B.

    34

  3. C.

    35

  4. D.

    33

    Correct

Explanation

Total people in the queue = (position from front) + (position from end) - 1 = 19+15-1 = 33.

Q97General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyRatio & Proportion

A sum of Rs. 700 divided among, A, B and C such that A gets half of B and B gets half of C. Then what is the share of C?

  1. A.

    300

  2. B.

    350

  3. C.

    375

  4. D.

    400

    Correct

Explanation

Since A=B/2 and B=C/2, the ratio A:B:C is 1:2:4; the 7 parts total Rs.700, so each part is Rs.100 and C's share is 4×100=Rs.400.

Q98General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

In an examination, a student scores 2 marks for every correct answer and loses 1 mark for every wrong answer. If he attempts all 100 question and secure 140 marks, the number of question he attempts correctly is

  1. A.

    50

  2. B.

    60

  3. C.

    70

  4. D.

    80

    Correct

Explanation

If x is the number of correct answers, 2x-(100-x)=140 gives 3x=240, so x=80 correct answers.

Q99General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyNumbers & Number Systems

A pump can fill a tank with water in 2 hours. Because of a leak, it took 2⅓ hours to fill the tank. In how many hours the leak can drain all the water of the tank?

  1. A.

    8

  2. B.

    10

  3. C.

    14

    Correct
  4. D.

    4⅓

Explanation

The pump's rate is 1/2 tank/hr; with the leak it fills at 3/7 tank/hr (since 2⅓ hours = 7/3 hours), so the leak's own rate is 1/2-3/7=1/14, meaning it would drain a full tank in 14 hours.

Q100General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracySpeed, Distance & Time

A can run 22.5 m while B runs 25 m in a kilometer race B beats A by ________

  1. A.

    100 m

    Correct
  2. B.

    111⅑m

  3. C.

    25 m

  4. D.

    50 m

Explanation

Since A covers 22.5 m for every 25 m B covers, when B finishes 1000 m, A has covered (22.5/25)×1000=900 m, so B beats A by 100 m.

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