KPSC KAS Prelims 2024 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

As per standard physical-geography classification of intrusive igneous landforms: a Dyke solidifies in a near-vertical fissure and forms a wall-like structure perpendicular to the ground (matches 'a'). A Sill is a thick, roughly horizontal sheet of intruded magma between rock strata (matches 'b'). A Batholith is a very large, deep-seated body of magma that cools slowly into an extensive dome-like mass, often exposed after long denudation to form the core of mountain ranges (matches 'c'). A Laccolith is a dome-shaped intrusion with a flat/level base that is fed by a pipe-like conduit connecting it to the magma chamber below (matches 'd'). This gives A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c, i.e., option (1).

Kali Tiger Reserve, located in Uttara Kannada district and formed by merging Anshi National Park with Dandeli Wildlife Sanctuary, is one of the largest protected areas in Karnataka, considerably bigger than Bandipur Tiger Reserve and Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary. Sharavathi Valley Lion-tailed Macaque Sanctuary is comparatively much smaller and is specifically notified for the conservation of the lion-tailed macaque along the Sharavathi valley. Among the four options, Kali Tiger Reserve therefore covers the largest area.

In February 2024 (around World Wetlands Day), three Karnataka wetlands were formally added to the Ramsar list of Wetlands of International Importance: Magadi Kere Conservation Reserve (Gadag district), Ankasamudra Bird Conservation Reserve (Vijayanagara district), and the Aghanashini Estuary (Uttara Kannada district) — i.e., A, B and E. Bonal Bird Conservation Reserve and Kokkarebellur Community Reserve, while important bird habitats in Karnataka, were not among the sites notified as Ramsar sites in this 2024 round. Hence option (3), A, B and E only, is correct.

Israel shares a land border with exactly four countries: Lebanon (north), Syria (northeast), Jordan (east), and Egypt (southwest). Saudi Arabia does not share a direct land border with Israel (Jordan lies between them, and their closest approach is across the Gulf of Aqaba), and Iran is far away with no shared border at all. So of the six listed countries, only 4 (Lebanon, Syria, Jordan, Egypt) actually border Israel, making 'Only 4 of them' correct.

A. Correct — the Moyar river flows along the Karnataka-Tamil Nadu boundary through the Bandipur-Mudumalai forest belt. B. Incorrect — the Palar is an independent east-flowing river that rises near the Nandi Hills (Chikkaballapur/Kolar) and drains directly into the Bay of Bengal through Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu; it is not a tributary of the Cauvery. C. Correct — the Karanja river (flowing through Bidar district) is a tributary of the Manjira, which in turn is a tributary of the Godavari. D. Correct — the Uttara Pinakini (Penna/Pennar river) originates in the Nandi Hills of Chikkaballapur district and flows as an interstate river between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Since A, C and D are correct and only B is wrong, 'Only three statements are correct' is the right answer.

A. Correct — the homosphere (up to about 90 km, where gases remain well-mixed) comprises the troposphere, stratosphere and mesosphere. B. Correct — the ozone layer lies within the stratosphere. C. Correct — the mesosphere, particularly its upper boundary (mesopause), is the coldest layer of the atmosphere, with temperatures dropping to around -90°C. D. Correct — the heterosphere, above the homosphere, includes the thermosphere and the ionosphere (and exosphere), where gases separate by molecular weight rather than remaining mixed. All four statements are accurate, so 'All of the above' is correct.

Russia shares a land border with Finland, Norway, Kazakhstan and North Korea. Armenia does not border Russia directly — Georgia and Azerbaijan lie in between. So 4 of the 5 listed countries (Finland, Norway, Kazakhstan, North Korea) border Russia, making 'Only four countries' the correct answer.

A. Incorrect — the Tiber flows through Rome, not Lisbon. B. Correct — the Danube flows through Vienna, Austria's capital. C. Incorrect — the Tagus flows through Lisbon, not Rome (the Tiber/Tagus cities have been swapped in options A and C). D. Incorrect — the Nile does not flow through Cape Town at all; Cape Town lies far to the south on South Africa's coast, unconnected to the Nile system. Only pair B is correctly matched, so 'One pair only' is correct.

A. Correct — the Sand Dollar is the Bahamas' central bank digital currency, launched in 2020. B. Incorrect — e-CNY (digital yuan) is China's CBDC, not Nigeria's. C. Correct — SOV is the digital sovereign currency initiative of the Marshall Islands. D. Incorrect — eNaira is Nigeria's CBDC, not China's (statements B and D have swapped the countries). Only A and C are correctly matched.

In October 2024, the United Kingdom agreed to cede sovereignty over the Chagos Archipelago (which Mauritius had long claimed was wrongly detached from it before independence) to Mauritius, while the UK/US retained operational control of the Diego Garcia military base under a long-term lease. Seychelles, Madagascar and Comoros were not parties to this agreement.

In October 2024, the Union Cabinet approved classical language status for five languages: Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali. Among the options given, Pali, Prakrit and Marathi (A, B, C) received this status, while Maithili and Gujarati (D, E) were not included in this round. Hence 'A, B and C only' is correct.

'NATO Plus' is an informal security arrangement that extends NATO-like intelligence-sharing and defence cooperation to five non-NATO partner countries: Australia, New Zealand, Japan, South Korea and Israel. USA and France are themselves original NATO member states, not 'NATO Plus' partner additions. Among the given options, only Israel, New Zealand and Australia (C, D, E) fall under the NATO Plus grouping — three countries — making 'Only three of them' correct.

Iran shares land borders with Turkmenistan, Turkey, Afghanistan and Azerbaijan among the listed countries (it also borders Iraq, Pakistan and Armenia, which are not in this list). Syria, Lebanon and Israel do not share any land border with Iran — they lie further west, separated by Iraq, Jordan/Syria and Turkey. So 4 of the 7 listed countries border Iran, making 'Only four' correct.

A. Correct — Bhikaji Cama is widely referred to as the 'Mother of Indian Revolution' for her role in the revolutionary and nationalist movement abroad. B. Incorrect — she unfurled a version of the Indian tricolour at the International Socialist Congress held in Stuttgart, Germany in 1907, not at an 'International Women's Congress'. C. Incorrect — the 'India House' in London, a hub for Indian revolutionaries, was founded by Shyamji Krishna Varma in 1905; Cama was later associated with founding the Paris Indian Society (1907), not a 'London Indian Society'. Since only statement A is correct, 'Only 1 statement is correct' is the answer.

A. Incorrect — Morley explicitly disavowed any intention of leading India towards self-government/parliamentary institutions; the reforms were meant to strengthen British rule, not dismantle it. B. Correct — the Indian Councils Act 1909 enlarged the legislative councils at both the provincial and imperial (central) levels. C. Correct — it introduced separate electorates for Muslims, a major and controversial feature of the Act. D. Correct — Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to be nominated to the Viceroy's Executive Council in 1909. Since B, C and D are correct and only A is wrong, 'Only 3 statements are correct' is the answer.

A is correct — the Lahore Resolution was adopted by the All-India Muslim League at its Lahore session in March 1940. B is correct — the resolution called for grouping Muslim-majority areas of the North-Western and Eastern zones of British India into 'independent states' (plural). C is correct — the original text of the resolution never used the word 'Pakistan'; the label 'Pakistan Resolution' was coined afterwards, notably by the press (the Hindu nationalist press dubbed it so). Since all three statements A, B and C are factually accurate, none of them is incorrect, making option (4) — 'None of the statements are incorrect' — the right choice to the question asking to identify the incorrect statement.

1. Correct — Humayun is credited by Mughal chroniclers with starting the tradition of the Mina Bazar (a market set up inside the palace where noblewomen sold goods to royal ladies). 2. Correct — Akbar called such festive market days 'Khush-roz' (day of joy). 3. Incorrect — the Mina Bazar was not held on the occasion of every festival; it was associated mainly with specific occasions like Nauroz rather than being a universal practice under Shah Jahan. 4. Incorrect — it did not invariably follow the Nauroz celebration alone; it was held on select festive occasions, not as an inflexible rule tied only to Nauroz. Since only statements 1 and 2 hold up, '1 and 2 only' is correct.

1. Correct — Dadaji Kondadev, the Jagir administrator appointed by Shahaji, acted as Shivaji's guardian/mentor during his formative years at Pune. 2. Correct — Shivaji captured the fort and region of Javli in 1656. 3. Incorrect — Javli was held by the Maratha chieftain Chandrarao More, not Maloji Bhosale (who was Shivaji's grandfather, not the ruler of Javli). 4. Incorrect — Shivaji was not Shahaji's only son; Shahaji had an elder son, Sambhaji, from Jijabai, and another son, Venkoji (Ekoji), from his second wife Tukabai. Since only statements 1 and 2 are correct, '1 and 2 only' is the answer.

A. Correct fact — the Indian Statutory (Simon) Commission was appointed in 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and recommend further reforms. B. Incorrect — the Commission actually had zero Indian members (it was an all-British body), which is precisely why it triggered the 'Simon Go Back' protests across India; saying it had 'only one Indian member' is factually wrong. C. Correct fact — the Simon Commission's report, combined with the Round Table Conferences, eventually led to the Government of India Act, 1935. D. Incorrect — the 1935 Act introduced provincial autonomy and abolished dyarchy in the provinces, while introducing a form of dyarchy at the Centre instead; dyarchy in the provinces had been a feature of the 1919 Act, not the 1935 Act. So the statements that are incorrect are B and D, making 'B and D only' the right answer.

'The Political Economy of Indirect Rule: Mysore 1881-1947' (dealing with the princely state's political economy and periodising its national movement into phases like mobilization without organization, elite mobilization and mass mobilization) is authored by the Swedish scholar Bjorn Hettne. W.A. Russell, Mohibbul Hasan and Bipin Chandra are historians associated with other works and are not the authors of this specific study.

This characterisation of the Nagar Revolt (1830-31) as arising from the oppressive revenue-farming system, where large tracts of land were auctioned to the highest bidder, is attributed to C. Hayavadana Rao, the historian and compiler of the Mysore Gazetteer, who documented Mysore's administrative and social history in detail. Lord Bowring and Mark Cubbon were British administrators of Mysore in the post-revolt (Commissioner's Rule) period, and Srinivasa Murthy & Ramakrishnan are later historians associated with different works on Karnataka history.

While the earliest Ajanta caves (2nd century BCE-2nd century CE) belong to the Hinayana phase and contain only stupas without Buddha images, the majority of Ajanta's celebrated paintings — including the famous Bodhisattva Padmapani and Vajrapani murals and most Jataka-tale narratives — were created during the later Gupta-Vakataka phase (5th-6th century CE), which is associated with the Mahayana tradition that permitted Buddha and Bodhisattva imagery. Hence most Ajanta paintings belong to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism.

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) launched the 'Vishvasya-Blockchain Technology Stack' in September 2024, offering Blockchain-as-a-Service over a geographically distributed infrastructure (hosted across NIC data centres) to boost digital trust and transparency in government and public services. It is unrelated to artisan-support schemes, income-tax litigation, or antiquity repatriation, which are separate, unrelated government initiatives.

A. Correct — EFTA comprises exactly four member states: Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. B. Correct — India signed the Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement (TEPA) with EFTA in March 2024, under which EFTA countries committed to $100 billion in investment in India over 15 years. Both statements are factually accurate, so 'Both A and B' is correct.

A. Correct — EVMs were first experimentally used in 1982, in the Parur assembly constituency by-election in Kerala. B. Correct — EVMs and VVPATs run on ordinary batteries and do not need any external electric power supply, which makes them usable even in areas without electricity. C. Incorrect — EVMs are routinely used in simultaneous elections (e.g., simultaneous Lok Sabha and Assembly elections); there is no such restriction. D. Incorrect — VVPAT was introduced by the ECI following the Supreme Court's judgment in Subramanian Swamy vs Election Commission of India (2013), not the Lily Thomas case (which dealt with disqualification of convicted legislators). Since A and B are correct, 'A and B only' is the answer.

The Doha Process (hosted by Qatar, involving talks with the Taliban and regional/international stakeholders including India), the Istanbul Process (a regional confidence-building framework on Afghanistan launched in 2011), and the Moscow Format Consultations (Russia-led talks with regional players on Afghanistan) are all diplomatic mechanisms centred on stabilising Afghanistan and coordinating regional approaches towards a peaceful, prosperous Afghanistan. They have no direct connection to WTO/TRIPS licensing, AI ethics, or climate negotiations.

PM-DeVINE (Prime Minister's Development Initiative for North East Region), announced in Union Budget 2022-23, is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) to fund infrastructure and social development projects in the North-East over the four-year period 2022-23 to 2025-26. PM-FME relates to food processing micro-enterprises, and PM-NERLP/PM-DRDU are not recognised North-East-specific infrastructure schemes matching this description.

A. Correct — for an ordinary bill, neither House can simply force the other to accept it by passing it a second time on its own; a deadlock requires resolution via joint sitting (Article 108). B. Correct — at the state level, since the Legislative Council is only a revising/delaying chamber, the Legislative Assembly can override the Council's disagreement by re-passing the bill, but the Council cannot override the Assembly. C. Correct — Article 108 of the Constitution explicitly provides for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary/financial bill. D. Incorrect — since C is true, D (which says no such mechanism exists) is false. Hence A, B and C only is correct.

A. Correct — like the Rajya Sabha, the Legislative Council is a permanent body not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every two years. B. Correct — the Legislative Assembly has a normal term of five years from the date of its first sitting, after which it is automatically dissolved unless dissolved earlier or extended during an emergency. C. Incorrect — loss of majority by the ruling party does not automatically dissolve the Assembly; the Governor first explores the possibility of an alternative government before recommending dissolution, so dissolution is not an automatic consequence. Hence 'A and B only' is correct.

A. Incorrect — a bill pending in the Rajya Sabha that has not yet been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha, because it never depended on the Lok Sabha's continuity. B. Correct — a bill originated and passed by the Rajya Sabha but still pending in the Lok Sabha lapses, because any bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. C. Correct — a bill pending in the Lok Sabha (regardless of where it originated) lapses when the Lok Sabha is dissolved. D. Correct — a bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. So B, C and D are correct, matching option (3).

A. Correct — both the Supreme Court (Articles 32, 136, 143) and the High Courts (Article 226) exercise the power of judicial review in India. B. Correct — under the Supreme Court Rules, a review petition must ordinarily be filed within 30 days of the judgment/order. C. Incorrect — review petitions are, as a general rule, heard through circulation by judges in their chambers without oral arguments by advocates; an oral hearing in open court is granted only in exceptional circumstances at the court's discretion, so it is not the standard practice. Hence 'A and B only' is correct.

A. Incorrect — prorogation terminates a session of the House; it is not about 'postponing a joint sitting'. B. Incorrect — an adjournment only ends a sitting (for the day or a specified period); it does not terminate the session, which continues until prorogued. C. Correct — the 'recess' is the interval between the prorogation of a session and the reassembly of the House in a new session. D. Correct — the Governor (like the President at the Centre) can prorogue the House even while it is in session, immediately bringing that session to a close. Hence 'C and D only' is correct.

A. Correct — India (PM Modi) attended the 16th BRICS Summit held in Kazan, Russia, in October 2024. B. Incorrect — the Asian Development Bank was established in 1966 by Japan/USA-led initiative under the auspices of ECAFE, not by BRICS countries; BRICS's own multilateral bank is the New Development Bank (NDB). C. Incorrect — India has in fact chaired/hosted BRICS Summits before, notably the 4th Summit in New Delhi (2012) and the 8th Summit in Goa (2016). D. Incorrect — the USA is not, and was not made, a member of BRICS at the Kazan Summit; new full members admitted around that period included countries like Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE and Saudi Arabia (invited), not the USA. Only statement A is correct, so 'Only one statement is correct'.

During her state visit to Suriname in June 2023, President Droupadi Murmu was conferred the 'Grand Order of the Chain of the Yellow Star', Suriname's highest civilian honour, in recognition of India-Suriname ties and the contribution of the Indian diaspora there. Vietnam, Australia and Venezuela have their own distinct highest civilian honours and did not confer this particular award.

A. Correct — the Tenth Finance Commission's devolution formula (1995-2000) included a 'tax effort' criterion with a 10% weight, one of the earliest uses of this criterion (later reintroduced by the Fifteenth FC as well). B. Incorrect — need-based parameters (population, area, forest cover, demographic performance) actually received a higher combined weight under the 15th FC than under the 14th FC, not less. C. Correct — forest cover/ecology is treated as a 'fiscal disability' or cost-disability criterion, compensating states for revenue forgone due to conservation obligations. D. Correct — over successive Finance Commissions, the general trend documented in fiscal federalism literature has been a relative shift in emphasis from pure need/population-based criteria towards equity (income distance) and efficiency (tax effort, fiscal discipline) based criteria. Hence A, C and D only is correct.

A. Correct — deficit financing (government spending funded by money creation/borrowing from the central bank) fuels demand-pull inflation; as prices rise faster than nominal wages typically adjust, the real wage rate tends to fall. B. Incorrect — deficit financing raises domestic demand, which usually pulls in more imports and worsens (not improves) the current account, tending towards a deficit rather than a surplus. C. Incorrect — higher inflation and a worsening current account typically lead to depreciation of the domestic currency, not appreciation. D. Incorrect — deficit financing is inherently inflationary (it increases money supply and aggregate demand), creating an inflationary — not deflationary — situation. Hence only statement A is correct.

A. Correct — street lighting and public sanitation are classic examples of pure public goods (non-excludable and non-rivalrous). B. Incorrect — food, clothing and automobiles are pure private goods (excludable and rivalrous), not mixed/quasi-public goods. C. Incorrect — elementary education and primary healthcare are actually textbook examples of merit goods (goods with positive externalities that the state encourages), not pure private goods. D. Incorrect — toll roads and (private) parks are examples of mixed/quasi-public (club) goods — excludable but largely non-rivalrous up to a point of congestion — not 'merit goods'. Only pair A is correctly matched, so 'Only one' is correct.

As per Ministry of Commerce/APEDA data cited in contemporaneous exam material, India's agricultural exports peaked around 2022-23 during the 2016-17 to 2023-24 window (A), India set up a network of roughly 13 Agri-Cells in its overseas missions to promote agri-exports (B), Uttar Pradesh, Punjab and Maharashtra rank among India's leading agricultural-output states (C), and basmati rice, non-basmati rice, sugar, spices and oil meals together account for over half of India's total agricultural exports (D). All four statements are considered correct per the official key, so 'All four' is the answer.

A. Incorrect — 'Economic and social planning' (Entry 20) actually falls under the Concurrent List, not the Union List. B. Incorrect — 'Inter-state trade and commerce' (Entry 42) falls under the Union List, not the State List (states only regulate intra-state trade and commerce, Entry 26 of State List). C. Incorrect — 'Audit of the accounts of the Union and of the States' (Entry 76) falls under the Union List (it is a function of the CAG, a Union-list subject), not the Concurrent List. Since all three pairs have been deliberately cross-matched/swapped incorrectly, 'None of the above' is correct.

The classic 'Twin Deficit' problem in macroeconomics specifically refers to the simultaneous occurrence of a fiscal (budget) deficit and a current account deficit, where excessive government borrowing and spending spills over into a trade/current-account imbalance. Statement A loosely conflates 'budget deficit and trade deficit' which is close but not the precise/standard definition used in policy discourse (current account deficit, a broader external balance concept, is the standard second component, not just 'trade deficit'). Statement C misapplies the term to revenue deficit and primary deficit, which are both purely fiscal/budgetary concepts and have nothing to do with the 'twin' (fiscal-external) framing. Hence only statement B correctly and precisely describes the Twin Deficit problem.

All four are recognised components/participants of the Indian money market (the market for short-term funds): repo/repurchase auctions are a key RBI liquidity-management instrument in the money market; the Treasury Bills market deals in short-term government securities; the Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI) was set up specifically to develop the money market by dealing in short-term instruments; and Satellite Dealers were introduced (alongside Primary Dealers) to broaden participation in government securities/money market operations. Hence 'All the above' is correct.

A. Correct — the GDP deflator is a broad, economy-wide measure of the price level/inflation, covering all goods and services produced domestically. B. Correct — by definition, GDP Deflator = (Nominal GDP / Real GDP) × 100, i.e., the ratio of GDP at current prices to GDP at constant (base-year) prices. C. Correct — in the base year itself, since current prices equal base-year (constant) prices, nominal GDP equals real GDP (deflator = 100). D. Correct — the GDP deflator is precisely the tool used to strip out price effects and convert nominal economic variables into real (inflation-adjusted) variables. All four statements are correct.

The Bletchley Declaration was adopted at the UK-hosted AI Safety Summit held at Bletchley Park in November 2023, where 28 countries (including India, the US, China and the EU) agreed to cooperate on identifying and managing the risks of frontier artificial intelligence systems. It is unrelated to counter-terrorism technology use, nuclear disarmament, or the WTO TRIPS/public-health declaration (the Doha Declaration on TRIPS and Public Health, 2001, covers that separate matter).

Under the Centre's One District One Product (ODOP)/PM-FME scheme, Karnataka's official district-product mapping designates Bellary for fig-based products, Bidar for ginger-based products, Chamarajanagar for turmeric, and Kodagu for coffee. This matches I-D (Fig-Bellary), II-A (Ginger-Bidar), III-C (Turmeric-Chamarajanagar), IV-B (Coffee-Kodagu), which is option (1).

A. Incorrect — the 2024 Paralympic Games were held in Paris, France, not Tokyo (Tokyo hosted the delayed 2020 edition). B. Correct — India won a record 29 medals (7 gold, 9 silver, 13 bronze) at Paris 2024, its most successful Paralympics ever. C. Incorrect — the new sports India debuted in at Paris 2024 were actually para cycling, para rowing and blind judo, not para cricket or blind football (neither of which are even Paralympic sports). D. Correct — Sumit Antil retained his F64 javelin throw gold from Tokyo 2020, becoming the first Indian man to defend a Paralympic title. Hence 'B and D only' is correct.

A. Incorrect — MSP is announced only for a specified list of crops recommended by CACP (23 crops as of recent years), not for 'all' agricultural crops grown in India. B. Correct — CACP explicitly factors in domestic and international prices, along with cost of production, demand-supply, terms of trade, and other considerations while recommending MSPs. C. Correct — since Toria (a rapeseed-mustard variant) and de-husked coconut are minor variants/derivatives of the main notified crops, their MSPs are derived proportionately from the MSPs fixed for rapeseed & mustard and copra respectively, rather than being independently determined. Hence 'B and C only' is correct.

'Blue Helmets' is the popular term for United Nations peacekeeping personnel — military, police and civilian staff contributed by member states — who wear the distinctive blue helmet/beret as a symbol of the UN while serving in peacekeeping missions around the world. It has no connection to climate refugees, traditional fishing techniques, or daily-wage manual labour, which are unrelated concepts.

A. Correct — 'cohabitation' is indeed the French political term for a situation where the President and the Prime Minister belong to opposing political parties/camps, forcing them to share executive power. B. Incorrect — France's Fifth Republic has actually experienced cohabitation three times: 1986-88 (President Mitterrand with PM Chirac), 1993-95 (Mitterrand with PM Balladur), and 1997-2002 (President Chirac with PM Jospin). So the claim that cohabitation has 'never' occurred is factually wrong. Since A is correct and B is incorrect, 'B only' is the incorrect statement, matching the required answer.

A. Incorrect — the Golan Heights is a plateau disputed between Israel and Syria (Israel captured most of it from Syria in the 1967 war and annexed it in 1981, unrecognised by most of the world), not between Turkey and Syria. B. Incorrect — the Abyei conflict is a territorial dispute between Sudan and South Sudan over an oil-rich border area, not between Iran and Iraq. C. Incorrect — Nagorno-Karabakh is a conflict between Armenia and Azerbaijan over an Armenian-majority enclave inside Azerbaijan, not between Ukraine and Russia. Since all three statements misidentify the parties to the respective conflicts, none of the statements is correct, making option D the answer.

Karnataka does not share a border with any north-eastern state, so a walking route must cross the country diagonally. A shortest contiguous land route runs Karnataka → Andhra Pradesh → Odisha → West Bengal (through which the narrow Siliguri Corridor connects the North-East to the rest of India) → Assam → Mizoram. This passes through four intermediate states (Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, West Bengal and Assam) besides the origin and destination, making 'Four' the minimum count and option B correct.

A. Correct — this is the standard pattern: cold currents occur on the west coasts of continents in low and middle latitudes in both hemispheres, and on the east coasts in higher latitudes of the Northern Hemisphere (e.g., Labrador and Oyashio currents). B. Incorrect — the Coriolis force deflects both moving air (winds) and moving water (ocean currents); it is one of the key forces shaping the direction of surface ocean currents (Ekman spiral). C. Incorrect — the Benguela Current is a cold current, but it flows along the south-west coast of Africa (Namibia/South Africa), not South America (the Peru/Humboldt Current is the analogous cold current off South America's west coast). D. Correct — where warm and cold currents meet or mix (e.g., off Newfoundland where the Gulf Stream meets the Labrador Current), the water is oxygenated and nutrient-rich, supporting plankton blooms and hence rich fishing grounds. With A and D correct and B and C incorrect, exactly two statements are correct, so option B is right.

A. Correct — the Polar Vortex is a persistent, large-scale area of low pressure and very cold air that circulates around each of the Earth's poles. B. Correct — it is closely linked to the polar jet stream, which normally keeps the vortex (and the cold air within it) confined near the poles. C. Correct — when the vortex weakens or becomes distorted, the jet stream wavers and cold Arctic air can spill southward into the mid-latitudes, causing severe cold snaps (as seen in North America and Europe). All three statements are accurate, so option D is correct.

This describes the Fujiwhara Effect, named after Japanese meteorologist Sakuhei Fujiwhara, in which two nearby cyclonic vortices rotating in the same direction interact and orbit around a common centre, sometimes merging and sometimes swinging apart. Kessler Syndrome (A) is an unrelated concept about cascading space-debris collisions in orbit; Medicanes (C) are Mediterranean hurricane-like cyclones, a type of storm, not an interaction phenomenon; and ENSO (D) is a Pacific Ocean climate pattern of alternating warm (El Niño) and cool (La Niña) phases, unrelated to storm interaction. Hence option B is correct.

Ross Island was renamed Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Dweep in 2018 (I-B). Neil Island was renamed Shaheed Dweep in 2018 (II-D). Havelock Island was renamed Swaraj Dweep in 2018 (III-C). Port Blair, the capital, was renamed Sri Vijaya Puram in 2024 (IV-A). This matching (I-B, II-D, III-C, IV-A) corresponds to option D, which is correct.

A. Incorrect — Gi-Fi is a wireless communication technology that uses CMOS-based transceivers operating in the 60 GHz band, not a wired, optical-fibre-based technology. B. Incorrect — Gi-Fi is designed for very short-range, high-speed wireless transfer (of the order of a few metres, enabling multi-gigabit transfers in seconds), not long distances of 100 km. Since both statements misdescribe Gi-Fi, neither is correct, making option D the answer.

All four are well-known malicious software (malware) families: Snowblind is an Android banking-trojan technique that abuses accessibility services; Mirai is a botnet malware that hijacks IoT devices for DDoS attacks; Stuxnet is the sophisticated worm that sabotaged Iran's nuclear centrifuges; and Ryuk is a notorious ransomware strain used in targeted extortion attacks. None relate to supercomputers, cryptocurrency, or drone attacks, so option B is correct.

A. Correct — India has won 8 Olympic gold medals in men's field hockey (1928, 1932, 1936, 1948, 1952, 1956, 1964 and 1980), including the 1928-1936 wins under British rule. B. Incorrect — India has won the FIH Hockey World Cup, most notably the inaugural title in 1975. C. Correct — the Indian Junior Women's Hockey team won the Women's Junior Asia Cup for the first time in 2023, beating South Korea 2-1 in the final in Kakamigahara, Japan. With A and C correct and B incorrect, exactly two statements are correct, making option B the answer.

I. Correct — in October 2024, a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court (4:1 majority) upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955. II. Correct — Section 6A specifically deals with migrants who entered Assam from the specified territory (former East Pakistan/Bangladesh) before 1 January 1966, and the Court upheld their entitlement to citizenship. III. Incorrect — Section 6A is an Assam-specific provision dealing with migrants from Bangladesh into Assam, not migrants from Nepal into West Bengal; this statement misstates both the state and the country of origin. Since I and II are correct but III is not, 'All of the above' (IV) cannot be correct either, making option C (I and II only) the right answer.

I. Correct — under Article 61, the charge for impeachment (violation of the Constitution) can be initiated in either House of Parliament. II. Correct — Article 61 is indeed the constitutional provision governing the impeachment procedure for the President. III. Correct — the impeachment resolution must be passed by a special majority of not less than two-thirds of the total membership of that House. IV. Incorrect — unlike the process of electing the President (where nominated members are excluded from the electoral college), nominated members of Parliament are entitled to participate and vote in the impeachment process, since Article 61 refers to the 'total membership' of the House without excluding nominated members. Since I, II and III are correct and IV is not, option C is correct.

I. Correct — the Sixth Schedule (Articles 244(2) and 275(1)) provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. II. Correct — it empowers the constitution of autonomous District and Regional Councils with legislative, judicial and executive powers over specified subjects like land, forests and village administration. III. Correct — the Constitution (Forty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1984 extended the Sixth Schedule's provisions to the tribal areas of Tripura, creating the Tripura Tribal Areas Autonomous District Council. Since I, II and III are all correct, 'All of the above' (IV) is also correct, making option D the right choice.

A. Incorrect — in India, life insurance penetration has consistently been higher than non-life insurance penetration (in FY23, life insurance penetration was around 3% of GDP compared to about 1% for non-life insurance), the opposite of what the statement claims. B. Correct — the government permits 100% FDI for insurance intermediaries (such as brokers, agents, surveyors and third-party administrators) under the automatic route, distinct from the 74% cap applicable to insurance companies themselves. Since only B is correct, option B is the answer.

The Darien Gap is a dense, roadless stretch of rainforest and swampland that straddles the border between Panama (Central America) and Colombia (South America) — it is the only break in the Pan-American Highway and has become a notorious, dangerous migration route for people travelling north toward the United States. It does not touch Venezuela or Ecuador, so option A (Panama and Colombia) is correct.

A. Correct — as per the IAEA definition, SMRs are advanced nuclear reactors with a power capacity of up to about 300 MW(e) per unit, roughly a third of a traditional large reactor. B. Incorrect — SMRs are, in fact, well-suited to pairing with intermittent renewable sources (solar and wind) in hybrid energy systems, providing stable baseload power to balance renewable variability. C. Incorrect — in the Union Budget 2024-25, the government announced a partnership with the private sector for setting up Bharat Small Reactors and Bharat Small Modular Reactors, explicitly inviting private-sector participation, contrary to the statement's claim of a government-only restriction. Since only A is correct, option A is the answer.

SVOM (Space Variable Objects Monitor) is a joint French-Chinese satellite mission, developed by the French space agency CNES and the China National Space Administration (CNSA), launched in 2024 to detect and study gamma-ray bursts. Hence option D (France and China) is correct.

The Gulf of Aqaba, a narrow arm of the Red Sea, is a rare case of a single water body bordered by exactly four countries: Egypt (Sinai Peninsula) to the west, Israel (Eilat) and Jordan (Aqaba) at its northern tip, and Saudi Arabia along its eastern shore. Hence all four listed countries border it, making option D correct.

Gwalior was designated a UNESCO 'City of Music' in 2023 (A is correct), and Kozhikode was designated a UNESCO 'City of Literature' in 2023, the first Indian city to receive that literature tag (B is correct). Varanasi, however, is a UNESCO 'City of Music' (designated in 2015), not a 'City of Literature', so D is incorrect. This makes option B (A and B only) the intended answer. Note: Chennai is also genuinely a UNESCO City of Music (designated 2017), so statement C is factually true as well — this makes the question technically ambiguous, since 'A and C' (option A) is also a valid pair of correct statements alongside the keyed 'A and B' (option B).

PM E-DRIVE (PM Electric Drive Revolution in Innovative Vehicle Enhancement), launched in 2024 with an outlay of about ₹10,900 crore, provides demand incentives/subsidies covering electric two-wheelers, three-wheelers, e-ambulances, e-trucks and e-buses, besides supporting charging infrastructure. Since all four listed categories are covered, option D is correct.

A. Incorrect — SFIO is a statutory multi-disciplinary investigating agency set up under the Companies Act (with statutory status conferred by the Companies Act, 2013), not established by a separate, standalone Act of Parliament. B. Incorrect — SFIO functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance. C. Correct — SFIO investigates corporate frauds referred to it, including on the request of any Central or State Government department. D. Correct — SFIO's headquarters is in New Delhi, with regional offices in Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and Hyderabad, along with the Delhi office, aggregating to five offices. Since only C and D are correct, exactly two statements are correct, making option B the answer.

Karnataka's first Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facility (RVSF) was set up at Vijayapura on the outskirts of Bengaluru (Bengaluru Rural district), and the state's next facilities under expansion were planned/opened at Koratagere in Tumakuru district (and Koppal), confirming A and B. Narasapura (Kolar) and Mummigatti (Dharwad) do not figure among the reported operational RVSF locations in Karnataka. With only A and B correct, option B (only two are correct) is the answer.

The 4B movement (bihon, bisekseu, biyeonae, bichulsan — 'no marriage, no sex, no dating, no childbirth') is a radical feminist movement that originated in South Korea in the mid-2010s as a reaction to gender inequality and misogyny, and it gained renewed international attention/discussion in the US context in 2024. Hence option B (South Korea) is correct.

A. Incorrect statement — Gaganyaan targets a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) of about 400 km altitude, not a Geostationary orbit at ~35,800 km; this is a major factual error. B. Correct statement — ISRO has indeed conducted Integrated Air Drop Tests / Drogue Parachute Deployment Tests as part of the Crew Escape System and recovery-system validation for Gaganyaan. C. Incorrect statement — the identified launch vehicle for Gaganyaan is the Human-Rated LVM3 (HRLV-M3), not the SSLV (Small Satellite Launch Vehicle), which is a much smaller rocket unsuited for the Gaganyaan crew module. The question asks which statements are incorrect; since A and C are the incorrect ones (B being accurate), option B (A and C only) is the answer.

A. Incorrect — the actual area irrigated by tanks in Karnataka has shown a consistent declining trend since around 1991, mainly due to silting, encroachment and poor maintenance of tank systems, not an increasing trend. B. Incorrect — the total net irrigated area in Karnataka constitutes roughly 30-35% of the net sown area (one of the lower shares among major states, but nowhere near as low as 2.5%). Since both statements are factually wrong, option D (neither A nor B) is correct.

Under the Satavahanas, urban/town administration was conducted through local self-governing bodies known as 'Nigama Sabhas' (guild-based town assemblies), which managed civic and commercial affairs of towns. 'Samithi' and 'Vidhatha' are Vedic-age tribal assemblies, not Satavahana-era municipal bodies, and 'Agama Sabha' is not a recognised historical institution of this period. Hence option A is correct.

During the Chola period, agriculturist landholders (Vellala peasants) organised themselves into a supra-local community association known as 'Chittirameli' (also spelt Cittirameli/Chittiramezhi Periyanadu) to manage agrarian interests across a wider region. 'Nanadesi' and 'Ainnurruvar' were medieval merchant/trade guilds, not agricultural associations, and 'Alumganam' is not a recognised Chola-era institution of this kind. Hence option C is correct.

The Fourth Buddhist Council, held under the patronage of the Kushan king Kanishka at Kundalvana (Kashmir), is when the formal split of Buddhism into the Mahayana and Hinayana schools was recognised, along with the compilation of Sarvastivada texts (Mahavibhasha). The First Council (after the Buddha's death) compiled the Sutta and Vinaya Pitakas; the Second dealt with disciplinary disputes (Vaishali); the Third (under Ashoka) compiled the Abhidhamma Pitaka and sent missionaries abroad — none of these dealt with the Mahayana-Hinayana split. Hence option D is correct.

1. Correct — Rock Edict III speaks of Yuktas, Rajukas and Pradesikas going on tour every five years to instruct people in dhamma, besides carrying out other administrative work. 2. Correct — the Rummindei (Lumbini) Pillar Inscription records Ashoka's visit to the Buddha's birthplace and grants the village of Lumbini a tax concession (reduction of the bali to one-eighth). 3. Correct — Rock Edict XI declares the 'gift of dhamma' to be the best of all gifts, better than gifts of material wealth. Since all three statements are accurate, option D is correct.

A. Correct — superposition (a quantum system existing in multiple states simultaneously) and entanglement (correlated quantum states across particles regardless of distance) are foundational principles underpinning quantum mechanics and quantum technologies. B. Correct — India's National Quantum Mission (approved in 2023, with an outlay of about ₹6,000 crore) envisages setting up four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in the areas of quantum computing, quantum communication, quantum sensing & metrology, and quantum materials & devices. Since both statements are correct, option C is the answer.

A. Correct — recommendations for the Bharat Ratna are made directly by the Prime Minister to the President, with no formal nomination process. B. Correct — by convention, not more than three Bharat Ratna awards are conferred in a given year. C. Correct — both Mother Teresa (1980) and Nelson Mandela (1990) have received the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honour, as foreign nationals who made an exceptional contribution recognised by India. D. Incorrect — there is no requirement of having received a Padma award as a precondition for the Bharat Ratna; it can be conferred on any individual regardless of prior honours. Since A, B and C are correct and D is not, exactly three statements are correct, making option C the answer.

The 'Chip 4' or 'Fab 4' alliance, proposed by the United States, is intended to bring together the world's leading semiconductor players: the United States (chip design and equipment), Japan (materials and equipment), South Korea (memory chip manufacturing) and Taiwan (leading-edge foundry manufacturing, e.g., TSMC). The Netherlands (home to ASML), Australia and India are not members of this specific grouping. Hence option D (A, D, E, F — USA, Japan, South Korea, Taiwan) is correct.

The Djibouti Code of Conduct (2009), adopted under the International Maritime Organization's aegis, is a regional agreement among Western Indian Ocean and Gulf of Aden states (and partner countries like India) aimed at repressing piracy and armed robbery against ships in that region — later expanded (Jeddah Amendment, 2017) to also cover other illicit maritime activities. It does not deal with hazardous-waste import regulation, critical-mineral sourcing, or preventing coups, so option D is correct.

Statement-I is correct: cesses and surcharges collected by the Union are not part of the divisible pool shared with states under the Finance Commission's award, and go entirely to the Centre. Statement-II is correct and explains why: Articles 270 and 271 of the Constitution specifically exclude cesses levied for specific purposes and surcharges from the divisible pool of central taxes that must be shared with states. Since Statement-II directly provides the constitutional basis/reason for Statement-I, option A is correct.

A. Correct — Mission Shakti is an umbrella scheme of the Ministry of Women and Child Development for the safety, security and empowerment of women. B. Correct — it comprises two sub-schemes, 'Sambal' (safety and security) and 'Samarthya' (empowerment). C. Correct — schemes like Ujjwala (anti-trafficking), Swadhar Greh (shelter for women in distress) and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana have been subsumed under the Samarthya sub-scheme. D. Correct — the Women Helpline and Beti Bachao Beti Padhao have been merged under the Sambal sub-scheme. Since all four statements are accurate, option D is correct.

A. Correct — Vibrant Villages Programme is a Central Sector Scheme with 100% central funding. B. Correct — it is aimed at the comprehensive development of villages in blocks along India's northern (China) border, to improve the quality of life of people in identified border villages and check depopulation/migration from these areas. C. Correct as per the scheme's official design — Vibrant Village Action Plans are indeed meant to be prepared by the district administration with the help of Gram Panchayats. Standard sources describe all three statements as accurate descriptions of VVP, so this question's marked answer (B, 'only two correct') is difficult to reconcile since C also appears to be a verifiably correct, near-verbatim description of the scheme.

Both statements are factually correct. Australia's Deakin University set up its India campus at GIFT City, Gujarat (becoming, along with the University of Wollongong, one of the first foreign universities to open a campus in India). IIT Madras established IIT Madras Zanzibar, its first international campus, in Zanzibar, Tanzania, which began academic operations in 2023. Since neither statement is incorrect, option D (neither A nor B) is the answer.

GOBARdhan Yojana (converting cattle dung and organic waste into biogas/CBG) and SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation, promoting Compressed Bio-Gas) are directly linked to India's biofuel/bio-energy programme, as is PM-JIVAN Yojana (Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN Yojana, which supports 2G ethanol production from biomass). PM-JANMAN is a welfare scheme for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups, unrelated to biofuels, and MISHTI is a mangrove-restoration/afforestation scheme, also unrelated to biofuels. With three schemes (GOBARdhan, PM-JIVAN, SATAT) genuinely linked to the biofuel programme, option C ('Only three') is correct.

A. Correct — 'Moidams, the Mound-Burial System of the Ahom Dynasty' (Assam) was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2024. B. Correct — 'Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas' (Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura in Karnataka) was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2023. C. Incorrect — the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodh Gaya has already been a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 2002; it is not 'yet to be declared'. Since A and B are correct and C is not, option A is the answer.

A. Correct (not incorrect) — the Labour Bureau, under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, has been entrusted with conducting the AQEES. B. Correct (not incorrect) — AQEES has two components, the Quarterly Employment Survey (QES) for establishments with 10 or more workers (broadly the organised segment) and the Area Frame Establishment Survey (AFES) for establishments with fewer than 10 workers (broadly the unorganised segment) across nine selected non-farm sectors, together giving quarterly employment estimates for both organized and unorganized segments. Since both underlying statements are factually accurate, neither is incorrect, making option D the correct answer to this 'which is/are incorrect' question.

A. Correct statement (not incorrect) — bond yield and bond price move inversely: as price rises, yield falls, and vice versa. B. Correct statement (not incorrect) — the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (repo/reverse repo) is indeed a key monetary policy instrument used by the RBI to manage liquidity and signal policy rates. C. Incorrect statement — Treasury Bills (T-bills) are short-term money market instruments (issued for 91, 182 or 364 days), not long-term capital market instruments; they are zero-coupon securities issued at a discount. Since only C is incorrect, exactly one statement is incorrect, making option A the answer.

I. Correct — the Indian President can withhold assent to a bill and keep it pending indefinitely (as seen in the Jencos/PEPSU case and various state bill delays), unlike the constrained American process. II. Correct — the Indian President, when exercising a pocket veto, neither formally rejects the bill nor returns it for reconsideration; the bill simply remains unattended. III. Correct — the Indian Constitution does not prescribe any specific time limit within which the President must act on a bill presented for assent (Article 111 is silent on a timeframe, unlike US practice). IV. Correct — the American President must return a bill within 10 days (excluding Sundays) while Congress is in session, or it becomes law automatically (or is pocket-vetoed if Congress has adjourned); the Indian President faces no such prescribed time limit. Since all four statements accurately capture the distinction, option D is correct.

A. Correct — this accurately defines the 'middle-income trap' as described in the World Development Report 2024. B. Incorrect — the World Bank's WDR 2024 classified 108 countries (not 118) as middle-income at the end of 2023, home to about 6 billion people. C. Correct — India, as a lower-middle-income country, is among the nations discussed as being at risk of/currently in the middle-income category facing this trap. D. Correct — the WDR 2024 recommended a sequenced '3i' strategy — investment, infusion (of technology from abroad), and innovation — for countries to progress from low- to high-income status, with the specific mix of the '3i's' shifting as income levels rise. Since B contains the incorrect figure, the correct statements are A, C and D, making option B the answer.

A. Correct — the money market (short-term funds, including the call money market, T-bills, and commercial paper) falls directly under the RBI's regulatory jurisdiction. B. Correct — SEBI is the statutory regulatory authority for India's capital/securities market (equities, bonds, mutual funds and related intermediaries). Since both statements are accurate, option C is correct.

A. Correct — NITI Aayog developed India's National Multidimensional Poverty Index in technical collaboration with UNDP and OPHI, using the globally recognised Alkire-Foster methodology. B. Incorrect — the figures are reversed: India's National MPI actually uses 12 indicators (adding Maternal Health and Bank Account to the 10 retained from the Global MPI), while the Global MPI (jointly published by UNDP-OPHI) uses 10 indicators, not the other way around. Since only A is correct, option A is the answer.

The Reskilling Revolution was launched by the World Economic Forum (WEF) at its Davos Annual Meeting in January 2020, with the goal of providing better education, skills and economic opportunities to one billion people by 2030, working through a platform of businesses, governments and civil society. Hence option B is correct.

A. Incorrect — 'fiscal deficit minus interest payments' is the definition of the Primary Deficit, not the Revenue Deficit. Revenue Deficit is actually the excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts. B. Correct — this is the standard definition of fiscal deficit: total expenditure minus total receipts (excluding borrowings). C. Incorrect — when a government spends more than it collects as revenue, it incurs a deficit (revenue/fiscal deficit), not a 'budget surplus' — a surplus would occur if receipts exceeded expenditure. Since only B is correct, exactly one statement is correct, making option A the answer.

All four are classic karst (limestone) landforms: stalactites (icicle-like deposits hanging from cave ceilings) and stalagmites (mound-like deposits rising from cave floors) are depositional cave features formed by dripping mineral-rich water; dolines (sinkholes) are small closed depressions formed by dissolution or collapse; and uvalas are larger depressions formed by the coalescing of several dolines. Since all four are genuine karst features, option D is correct.

None of the listed landforms are wind-depositional features. Inselbergs are residual hills left after surrounding rock has been weathered/eroded away (an erosional/residual landform, common in arid and humid tropical landscapes alike). Zeugen, mushroom rocks and yardangs are all wind-erosional landforms — carved by abrasion/deflation of differentially resistant rock layers — not features built up by wind deposition. True wind-depositional landforms would instead include sand dunes (barchans, seif dunes) and loess deposits. Since none of the four options are deposition-formed, option D (None of the above are correct) is the answer.