KPSC Motor Vehicle Inspector 2025 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 96 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Indian Polity, Modern History (India), Ancient & Medieval History (India), Karnataka History, Post-Independence Consolidation, Indian Culture, Karnataka Geography, Economic Geography (India), Current Affairs, Chemistry, Biology, Agriculture Science, Physics, Applied Science & Technology, Environment, International Relations, Geography of India, Economy, Schemes & Social Justice.

Questions
96 questions
Duration
90 minutes
Marking
+1.000 / −0.250
Q1Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below :

List I (Subject in Indian Constitution)List II (Borrowed from)
A. Fundamental Rightsi. Britain
B. Parliamentary System of Governmentii. America
C. Emergency Provisionsiii. Ireland
D. Directive Principles of State Policyiv. Germany
  1. A.

    A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

  2. B.

    A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

  3. C.

    A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

    Correct
  4. D.

    A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

Explanation

Fundamental Rights were inspired by the American Constitution, the Parliamentary system by Britain, Emergency Provisions by the German (Weimar) Constitution, and Directive Principles by Ireland (A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii).

Q2Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

With reference to Central and State Relations the following house can pass the resolution to give power to the parliament of India, to acquire the power to legislate on any item in the state list:

  1. A.

    Lok Sabha by simple majority

  2. B.

    Lok Sabha by special majority

  3. C.

    Rajya Sabha by simple majority

  4. D.

    Rajya Sabha by the majority of not less than 2/3

    Correct

Explanation

Under Article 249, the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting, empowering Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in national interest.

Q3Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

The following committee was formed for the prevention of corruption in 1964.

  1. A.

    Santhanam Committee

    Correct
  2. B.

    Sharma Committee

  3. C.

    Goswami Committee

  4. D.

    Sarkaria Committee

Explanation

The Santhanam Committee (1962-64) recommended measures against corruption, leading to the creation of the Central Vigilance Commission.

Q4Indian PolityConstitutional AmendmentsAmendment Bills

Anti Defection Law is related to this Amendment:

  1. A.

    52nd Amendment

    Correct
  2. B.

    42nd Amendment

  3. C.

    73rd Amendment

  4. D.

    74th Amendment

Explanation

The Anti-Defection Law was introduced via the 52nd Constitutional Amendment (1985), adding the Tenth Schedule.

Q5Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

With reference to the law of 'Preventive Detention' a person can be detained without obtaining the opinion of an advisory board for a period of maximum:

  1. A.

    24 hours

  2. B.

    1 month

  3. C.

    3 months

    Correct
  4. D.

    3 weeks

Explanation

Under preventive detention law, a person can be detained for up to three months without referring the case to an advisory board.

Q6Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Which of the following article of Indian Constitution deals with Appropriation Bill ?

  1. A.

    Article 114 (1)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Article 121 (1)

  3. C.

    Article 131 (1)

  4. D.

    Article 118 (1)

Explanation

Article 114 of the Constitution deals with Appropriation Bills.

Q7Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

With reference to the powers of Indian President the following are true :

(a) Head of the Union Executive

(b) Constitutional Head

(c) Head of the Government

(d) Commander in Chief of Defence Force

(e) Cabinet Head

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (a) and (b)

  2. B.

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

  3. C.

    (a), (b), (d)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (b), (e), (d)

Explanation

The President is the constitutional/nominal head of the Union Executive and the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces, but is not the head of government (that is the Prime Minister) nor head of the Cabinet.

Q8Modern History (India)Indian National MovementGandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India

After which incident did Gandhiji suddenly call off the Non Cooperation movement?

  1. A.

    Alipore Bomb Conspiracy

  2. B.

    Chauri Chaura Incident

    Correct
  3. C.

    Chitagong Conspiracy

  4. D.

    Kakori Conspiracy

Explanation

Gandhi suspended the Non-Cooperation Movement after the Chauri Chaura incident (1922), where a mob violence turned deadly, going against his principle of non-violence.

Q9Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mughal EmpireMughal Rulers, Administration & Foreign Policy

Buland Darvaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar to commemorate which of his victory ?

  1. A.

    Sindh

  2. B.

    Gujarat

    Correct
  3. C.

    Malwa

  4. D.

    Mewar

Explanation

The Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat.

Q10Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mughal EmpireMaratha Rise and Mughal Decline

Who was the commander sent by the Sultan of Bijapura to punish Shivaji ?

  1. A.

    Shaista Khan

  2. B.

    Afzal Khan

    Correct
  3. C.

    Nusrat Khan

  4. D.

    Zafar Khan

Explanation

Afzal Khan was the Bijapur Sultanate general sent to subdue Shivaji, and was killed by him in their famous encounter.

Q11Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaWodeyars, Hyder Ali & Tippu Sultan

Which treaty ended the third Anglo Mysore war ?

  1. A.

    Treaty of Srirangapatna

    Correct
  2. B.

    Treaty of Mysore

  3. C.

    Treaty of Pondicherry

  4. D.

    Treaty of Madras

Explanation

The Treaty of Srirangapatna (1792) ended the Third Anglo-Mysore War.

Q12Post-Independence ConsolidationState Reorganization & National IntegrationLinguistic Reorganization of States

In which year was Mysore State renamed as Karnataka ?

  1. A.

    1970

  2. B.

    1971

  3. C.

    1973

    Correct
  4. D.

    1975

Explanation

Mysore State was officially renamed Karnataka in 1973.

Q13Indian CultureLanguages & LiteratureModern Indian Literature

In which year did Kuvempu receive Jnanapeeth Award ?

  1. A.

    1965

  2. B.

    1966

  3. C.

    1967

    Correct
  4. D.

    1968

Explanation

Kuvempu received the Jnanpith Award in 1967, becoming the first Kannada writer to win it.

Q14Indian CultureArchitecture & SculptureAncient & Medieval Temple Architecture

Who called Aihole 'cradle of Indian temple architecture' ?

  1. A.

    James Mill

  2. B.

    B.L. Rice

  3. C.

    D.D. Kosambi

  4. D.

    Percy Brown

    Correct

Explanation

Art historian Percy Brown described Aihole as the 'cradle of Indian temple architecture'.

Q15Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

Which one is an East flowing river in Karnataka ?

  1. A.

    Tunga

    Correct
  2. B.

    Aghanashini

  3. C.

    Varahi

  4. D.

    Kali

Explanation

The Tunga is an east-flowing river of Karnataka, joining the Bhadra to form the Tungabhadra.

Q16Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaMiscellaneous

Diwan of Mysore who started the Mysore Civil Services exam:

  1. A.

    Rangacharlu

  2. B.

    Sheshadri Iyer

    Correct
  3. C.

    Visweshwararya

  4. D.

    Mirza Ismail

Explanation

Diwan K. Sheshadri Iyer started the Mysore Civil Service examination in 1891.

Q17Ancient & Medieval History (India)Regional & South Indian DynastiesCholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas

The Arab Traveller who visited Rastrakuta Empire :

  1. A.

    Albaruni

  2. B.

    Sulaiman

    Correct
  3. C.

    Iban Batuta

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Arab traveller Sulaiman visited the Rashtrakuta Empire and left an account of it.

Q18Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

Name of the Bays and BeachesTheir location
1 KarwarNorth of Karwar
2 BingeSouth of Karwar
3 BelekeriNorth of Ankola
4 PanamburSouth of Ankola

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    Only 1 pair is correct.

  2. B.

    Only 2 pairs are correct.

  3. C.

    Only 3 pairs are correct.

  4. D.

    All pairs are correct.

    Correct

Explanation

All the listed pairs of bays/beaches and their locations along Karnataka's coast are correctly matched.

Q19Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

L.M. Singhvi Committee recommended about :

  1. A.

    A constitutional status should be bestowed on the Panchayath Institution.

  2. B.

    The three-tier system of Panchayat Raj should be formed.

  3. C.

    Panchayat Raj bodies should have fixed tenure of five years.

  4. D.

    Nyaya Panchayats should be established for a cluster of villages.

    Correct

Explanation

The L.M. Singhvi Committee (1986) recommended establishing Nyaya Panchayats for clusters of villages to provide accessible justice.

Q20Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following committee recommends three tier structure of government at Rural/Local level ?

  1. A.

    Ashok Mehta Committee

  2. B.

    Balwantray Mehta Committee

    Correct
  3. C.

    G.V.K. Rao Committee

  4. D.

    L.M. Singhvi Committee

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957) recommended a three-tier structure of local self-government (Panchayat Raj).

Q21Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

In which of the following circumstances under Article 200 the Governor can reserve the bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President?

A. If the bill is unconstitutional.

B. If it is against the larger interest of the country.

C. If it is indirect opposition to the Directive Principles of State Policy.

D. By the advice of the Prime Minister.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    A, C and D

  2. B.

    B, C and D

  3. C.

    B, A and D

  4. D.

    A, B and C

    Correct

Explanation

Under Article 200, a Governor may reserve a bill for the President's consideration if it is unconstitutional, against national interest, or in conflict with the Directive Principles — not merely on the Prime Minister's advice.

Q22Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Consider the following with respect to the revolutionary features of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act :

A. Bestows the constitutional status on Panchayat Raj Institutions.

B. Mandatory elections to Panchayat Raj Institutions.

C. Creation of three tier Panchayat Raj Institutions.

D. 1/3 Reservation of Seats and Chairpersanship for women in Panchayat Raj Institutions

  1. A.

    A and D only

  2. B.

    A, B and C only

  3. C.

    C and D only

  4. D.

    A, B, C and D

    Correct

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment gave constitutional status to Panchayats, mandated regular elections, created a uniform three-tier structure, and reserved one-third of seats and chairperson posts for women.

Q23Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Consider the following statements about the Governor:

A. He submits his resignation letter to the Chief Justice of the State.

B. He should have completed 35 years of age.

C. His emoluments, allowances and privileges are determined by the President.

D. No criminal proceedings can be instituted against him.

Which of the above are incorrect statements ?

  1. A.

    A and C

    Correct
  2. B.

    A, C and D

  3. C.

    B and D

  4. D.

    B, C and D

Explanation

A Governor actually submits their resignation to the President (not the Chief Justice), and while their emoluments are determined by Parliament (not fixed solely by the President), so statements A and C are the incorrect ones.

Q24Indian PolityUnion ExecutiveMiscellaneous

Which of the following is not a function of district administration?

  1. A.

    Conducting Elections

  2. B.

    Implementing Public Welfare Schemes

  3. C.

    Maintaining Law and Order

  4. D.

    Foreign Policy Decisions

    Correct

Explanation

Foreign policy decisions rest with the Union Government/Ministry of External Affairs, not with district administration, which handles local governance, law and order and development functions.

Q25Indian PolityUnion ExecutiveMiscellaneous

Arrange the hierarchy of a State secretariat from highest to lowest.

(a) Under Secretary

(b) Special Secretary

(c) Joint Secretary

(d) Deputy Secretary

(e) Secretary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    (a), (b), (c), (d), (e)

  2. B.

    (a), (d), (c), (b), (e)

  3. C.

    (e), (b), (c), (d), (a)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (e), (c), (b), (a), (d)

Explanation

The State Secretariat hierarchy, from highest to lowest, runs: Secretary, Special Secretary, Joint Secretary, Deputy Secretary, Under Secretary.

Q26Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

What happens if the Chief Minister losses the confidence of the assembly?

  1. A.

    He has to submit his resignation

  2. B.

    Dissolution of the Assembly

  3. C.

    Imposition of President's rule

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

If a Chief Minister loses the assembly's confidence, they may seek a fresh vote, resign, or advise dissolution of the assembly — several outcomes are possible depending on circumstances.

Q27Economic Geography (India)Agriculture & CroppingMiscellaneous

Total percentage of small land holdings in India is:

  1. A.

    15 percentage

  2. B.

    7 percentage

  3. C.

    17 percentage

  4. D.

    33 percentage

    Correct

Explanation

Small landholdings (marginal/small farms) constitute a very large share — commonly cited as around a third or more — of total operational holdings in India.

Q28Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaMiscellaneous

Match the following :

YearFactory
a. 1923I. Mysore Sugar Company
b. 1918II. Mysore Paper Mill
c. 1933III. Mysore Sandal Soap Factory
d. 1937IV. Mysore Iron and Steel Factory

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II

    Correct
  2. B.

    a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I

  3. C.

    a-IV, b-II, c-III, d-I

  4. D.

    a-III, b-IV, c-I, d-II

Explanation

The Mysore Iron and Steel Works (1923), Mysore Sandal Soap Factory (1918), Mysore Sugar Company (1933), and Mysore Paper Mill (1937) correspond to a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II.

Q29Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsMiscellaneous

Which state is the capital city of readymade garments in India ?

  1. A.

    Karnataka

    Correct
  2. B.

    Tamil Nadu

  3. C.

    Andhra Pradesh

  4. D.

    Maharashtra

Explanation

Karnataka (particularly Bengaluru) is often referred to as the readymade garments capital of India.

Q30Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Jal Jeevan Mission in Karnataka as :

  1. A.

    Mane Manege Gange

    Correct
  2. B.

    Safe and pure water

  3. C.

    Minor irrigation scheme

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

'Mane Manege Gange' is Karnataka's branding/implementation of the Jal Jeevan Mission, aiming for functional household tap water connections.

Q31Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

Which of the following pair is not correctly matching ?

  1. A.

    First Karnataka Finance Commission - Dr. G. Thimmaiah

  2. B.

    Second Karnataka Finance Commission - K.P. Surendranath

  3. C.

    Third Karnataka Finance Commission - C. Narayanswamy

    Correct
  4. D.

    Fourth Karnataka Finance Commission - C. G. Chinnaswamy

Explanation

The pairing of the Third Karnataka Finance Commission with C. Narayanaswamy as its chairman is the incorrectly matched pair here.

Q32ChemistryBasic Chemical ConceptsMiscellaneous

Lactose is composed of -

  1. A.

    Glucose + Glucose

  2. B.

    Glucose + Mannose

  3. C.

    Glucose + Galactose

    Correct
  4. D.

    It is a monosaccharide

Explanation

Lactose (milk sugar) is a disaccharide composed of glucose and galactose.

Q33BiologyHuman Physiology & SystemsSkeletal System & Calcium

Which is the longest bone in human body?

  1. A.

    Humerus

  2. B.

    Tibia

  3. C.

    Sternum

  4. D.

    Femur

    Correct

Explanation

The femur (thigh bone) is the longest bone in the human body.

Q34BiologyAnimal BiologyAnimal Navigation & Senses

The long distance migratory bird among the following is -

  1. A.

    Arctic tern

    Correct
  2. B.

    River tern

  3. C.

    Spot bill pelican

  4. D.

    Open bill pelican

Explanation

The Arctic Tern undertakes the longest migratory journey of any bird, travelling between Arctic and Antarctic regions.

Q35BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyBasics of Genetics & DNA

Technical term for fertilized egg is

  1. A.

    Blastomere

  2. B.

    Embryo

  3. C.

    Zygote

    Correct
  4. D.

    Ovum

Explanation

A fertilized egg cell is technically called a zygote.

Q36BiologyDiseasesNutritional Diseases & Vitamin Deficiencies

Deficiency of Vitamin D causes -

  1. A.

    Scurvy

  2. B.

    Osteomalacia

    Correct
  3. C.

    Beriberi

  4. D.

    Cystic fibrosis

Explanation

Vitamin D deficiency in adults leads to osteomalacia (softening of bones), and rickets in children.

Q37Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

Assertion: Geographical distribution of water wealth of the Karnataka state has large pronounced disparities.

Reason: The West flowing rivers occupy only 13.68 percent of the total land area of the state but account for a lion's share of the surface water about 58.3%. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the Assertion.

    Correct
  2. B.

    The Assertion is correct but the Reason is not correct explanation for Assertion.

  3. C.

    Reason is correct but Assertion is not correct.

  4. D.

    Both Assertion and Reason are not correct.

Explanation

Karnataka's west-flowing rivers cover only about 13.68% of the state's area but carry roughly 58.3% of its surface water — a striking regional disparity — supporting both the assertion and the reason as its correct explanation.

Q38Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

Arrange the following rivers flowing in Karnataka in order from North to South.

  1. A.

    Kali, Udyavara, Bedti, Netravati, Sharavathi.

  2. B.

    Udyavara, Kali, Sharavathi, Bedti, Netravati.

  3. C.

    Kali, Bedti, Sharavathi, Udyavara, Netravati.

    Correct
  4. D.

    Udyavara, Kali, Bedti, Sharavathi, Netravati.

Explanation

From north to south, Karnataka's west-flowing rivers run in the order: Kali, Bedti, Sharavathi, Udyavara, Netravati.

Q39Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

How many of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List-I (Name of the Tank)List-II (It is built across the stream/river/rivulet)
1. ShantisagaraHaridra
2. Tonnur KereYadava nadi
3. Ayyana KereGange halla
4. Magada KereKumudavati

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    Only 1 pair is correct.

  2. B.

    Only 2 pairs are correct.

  3. C.

    Only 3 pairs are correct.

    Correct
  4. D.

    All pairs are correct.

Explanation

Of the four tank-river/stream pairings listed, only three are correctly matched.

Q40Karnataka GeographyAgriculture & AlliedKarnataka Agriculture & Allied Activities

How many major Agro-climatic regions in the state has identified by the Karnataka agricultural department?

  1. A.

    12

  2. B.

    8

  3. C.

    6

  4. D.

    10

    Correct

Explanation

The Karnataka Department of Agriculture has identified 10 major agro-climatic regions in the state.

Q41Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

Match list: I with list: II.

List-IList-II
Name of the Hill stationslocated district
A. KemmannugundiI. Tumakuru
B. Biligiri Rangana BettaII. Bengaluru
C. DevarayanadurgaIII. Chikkamagalur
D. Nandi DurgaIV. Kolara
V. Chamarajanagar

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV

    Correct
  2. B.

    A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

  3. C.

    A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-V

  4. D.

    A-V, B-I, C-III, D-II

Explanation

Kemmangundi is in Chikkamagalur, Biligiri Rangana Betta is in Chamarajanagar, Devarayanadurga is in Tumakuru, and Nandi Durga is in Kolar (A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV).

Q42Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following states adopted Panchayath Raj form of rural local self government system consecutively first time?

  1. A.

    Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh

    Correct
  2. B.

    Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh

  3. C.

    Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan

  4. D.

    Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal

Explanation

Rajasthan and Andhra Pradesh were the first states to adopt the Panchayati Raj system of rural local self-government, in 1959.

Q43Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

Which of the following statement is true in delivering the powers of Chief Minister?

  1. A.

    The Governor appoints only those person as ministers who is recommended by the speaker.

  2. B.

    He allocates and reshuffles the portfolios among ministers.

    Correct
  3. C.

    He cannot ask a minister to resign or advise the governor to dismiss him in case of difference of opinion.

  4. D.

    He guides, directs, controls and coordinates the activities of members of both the houses.

Explanation

As head of government, the Chief Minister allocates and can reshuffle portfolios among ministers in the state Council of Ministers.

Q44BiologyAnimal BiologyAnimal Physiology & Adaptations

Leech is a ________ animal.

  1. A.

    Sanguivorous

    Correct
  2. B.

    Carnivorous

  3. C.

    Herbivorous

  4. D.

    Omnivorous

Explanation

Leeches are sanguivorous (blood-feeding) animals.

Q45Agriculture ScienceAgriculture ScienceIndigenous Cattle Breeds

Largest livestock breeding training and research institute in Asia is located at -

  1. A.

    Gujarat

  2. B.

    Karnataka

  3. C.

    Haryana

    Correct
  4. D.

    Bihar

Explanation

The National Dairy Research Institute/related livestock research and training establishment in Haryana is cited as Asia's largest livestock breeding research and training institute.

Q46PhysicsUnits, Measurements & InstrumentsSI Units of Physical Quantities

The unit of electric current is -

  1. A.

    Ampere

    Correct
  2. B.

    Volt

  3. C.

    Ohm

  4. D.

    Coulomb

Explanation

Electric current is measured in Amperes.

Q47Applied Science & TechnologySpace TechnologyMiscellaneous

The biggest satellite in the solar system-

  1. A.

    Titan

  2. B.

    Oberon

  3. C.

    Urova

  4. D.

    Ganymede

    Correct

Explanation

Ganymede, a moon of Jupiter, is the largest satellite (moon) in the solar system.

Q48PhysicsMechanics & MotionMiscellaneous

What is the time period of a pendulum clock?

  1. A.

    1 sec

  2. B.

    2 sec

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 min

  4. D.

    24 Hours

Explanation

A standard pendulum clock's pendulum has a period of about 2 seconds (1 second per swing/half-oscillation).

Q49PhysicsEnergy Resources & TechnologyNon-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)

Which of the following is a source of renewable energy?

  1. A.

    Coal

  2. B.

    Fossil fuels

  3. C.

    Natural gas

  4. D.

    Sun

    Correct

Explanation

Solar energy from the Sun is a renewable source of energy.

Q50EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

  1. A.

    Oxygen

  2. B.

    Nitrogen

  3. C.

    Chlorine

  4. D.

    Carbon dioxide

    Correct

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is a major greenhouse gas contributing to global warming.

Q51Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

With reference to the Constitution of India the following cannot be removed by impeachment procedure.

  1. A.

    Governor

    Correct
  2. B.

    Vice President

  3. C.

    Chief Justice of India

  4. D.

    Chief Justice of High Court

Explanation

A Governor cannot be removed via the impeachment process (unlike the President); the Governor holds office at the President's pleasure and can simply be recalled.

Q52Indian PolityLegislatureState Legislature

With reference to the Constitution of India the State legislative council can be abolished or created by the

  1. A.

    Governor of the State on the recommendation of Legislative Assembly of the State.

  2. B.

    Concerned State Legislative Assembly

  3. C.

    Parliament through legislation

  4. D.

    Parliament on the recommendations of concerned state Legislative Assembly.

    Correct

Explanation

A State Legislative Council can be created or abolished by Parliament, based on a resolution passed by the concerned State Legislative Assembly (Article 169).

Q53Indian PolityConstitutional AmendmentsAmendment Bills

The following amendment of the Indian Constitution made National Backward Class Commission as constitutional body.

  1. A.

    95th Amendment Act 2010

  2. B.

    65th Amendment Act 1990

  3. C.

    102nd Amendment Act 2018

    Correct
  4. D.

    62nd Amendment Act 1989

Explanation

The 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018 gave the National Commission for Backward Classes constitutional status.

Q54International RelationsBilateral RelationsRelations with Neighbours (Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, China, Myanmar, Afghanistan)

Which of the following are the joint military exercise between India and Maldives? (a) Varuna (b) Garuda (c) Indra (d) Shakti How many of the above options is/are correct?

  1. A.

    (a)

  2. B.

    (b)

  3. C.

    (a), (b), (c)

  4. D.

    None of the above

    Correct

Explanation

None of Varuna, Garuda, Indra or Shakti are India-Maldives exercises; India's joint exercise with the Maldives is named 'Ekuverin'.

Q55International RelationsInternational OrganisationsMiscellaneous

Consider the following statements. (a) United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) has established the international legal order of the Seas and Oceans. (b) India supports freedom of navigation and overflight based on the principles of UNCLOS. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. A.

    (a) only

  2. B.

    (b) only

  3. C.

    Both (a) & (b)

  4. D.

    Neither (a) nor (b)

    Correct

Explanation

Both statements are correct: UNCLOS establishes the international legal order for oceans/seas, and India supports freedom of navigation and overflight consistent with UNCLOS principles.

Q56Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyMiscellaneous

Consider the following statements :

(a) Gurkhas are soldiers from Nepal serving currently both in the Indian Army and in the British Army.

(b) The lisu people of China and Myanmar are known as Yobins in India.

(c) The Yobins are considered as refugees from Myanmar and do not have citizenship rights in India.

How many of the above statements is/are correct ?

  1. A.
    1. (a) only
  2. B.
    1. (b) only
    Correct
  3. C.
    1. All three
  4. D.
    1. None of the above

Explanation

The Lisu people of China/Myanmar known as 'Yobins' in India are recognised — statement (b) is correct — while statements about Gurkhas serving in the British Army currently and Yobins lacking any citizenship rights are not accurate as stated.

Q57Current AffairsEvents in NewsMiscellaneous

DIANA, sometimes seen in the news is related to __________ ?

  1. A.
    1. Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC)
  2. B.
    1. Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO)
  3. C.
    1. Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO)
  4. D.
    1. None of the above
    Correct

Explanation

'DIANA', as referenced in this context, does not correspond to any of the listed options.

Q62Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

The state of Karnataka lies in which of the following seismic probability zone?

  1. A.

    Zones I and II

  2. B.

    Zones I and III

  3. C.

    Zones II and III

    Correct
  4. D.

    Zones I and IV

Explanation

Karnataka falls mainly within Seismic Zones II and III, indicating low to moderate earthquake risk.

Q63Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

In which of the following topography the entire Karnataka state bears on?

  1. A.

    Senile Topography

    Correct
  2. B.

    Young Stage Topography

  3. C.

    Karst Topography

  4. D.

    Mature stage Topography

Explanation

Karnataka's landscape, being an old, deeply eroded plateau, is generally described as exhibiting senile (old-age) topography.

Q64Karnataka GeographyClimateKarnataka Climate & Rainfall Patterns

Assertion: The Karnataka state is described as a land of two Monsoons.

Reason: The Karnataka state has all the characteristics of typical Tropical Monsoon climate, it has well developed seasonality of winds.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    The Assertion is correct but the Reason is not correct explanation for assertion.

  2. B.

    Both Assertion and Reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation for the assertion.

    Correct
  3. C.

    Reason is correct but Assertion is not correct.

  4. D.

    Both Assertion and Reason are not correct

Explanation

Karnataka is described as a 'land of two monsoons' (southwest and northeast) because it fully exhibits the seasonal wind reversal characteristic of a typical tropical monsoon climate — the reason correctly explains the assertion.

Q65Current AffairsEvents in NewsSummits, Expos & Conferences

Which state recently hosted 'Outlook Planet Sustainability Summit & Awards 2024'?

  1. A.

    Maharashtra

  2. B.

    Tamil Nadu

  3. C.

    Goa

    Correct
  4. D.

    Rajasthan

Explanation

Goa hosted the 'Outlook Planet Sustainability Summit & Awards 2024'.

Q66EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationTaxes (Direct & Indirect)

What is the percentage of cut in import duty on gold bar and gold jewellery in 2024-25 Budget?

  1. A.

    7%

  2. B.

    10%

  3. C.

    8%

  4. D.

    9%

    Correct

Explanation

The Union Budget 2024-25 cut customs/import duty on gold bars and gold jewellery by around 9 percentage points.

Q67EconomyBankingCommercial Banks

In which year the Government of India passed the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) as a special Act of Parliament?

  1. A.

    April 1990

    Correct
  2. B.

    May 1991

  3. C.

    June 1992

  4. D.

    July 1993

Explanation

SIDBI was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of IDBI through a special Act of Parliament in April 1990.

Q68Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsMiscellaneous

Role of Information Technology industry in the development of Karnataka is ______.

A. Creation of vast employment opportunities.

B. Precious foreign exchange earnings.

C. Modernization of the economy.

D. Growth of investment.

E. Earning of income.

F. Improvement in governance.

G. Service to other industries.

H. The state gets name, fame and glory. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    All of the above

    Correct
  2. B.

    only A, B, C, and D

  3. C.

    only E, F, G, and H

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Karnataka's IT industry has contributed across all these dimensions — employment generation, foreign exchange earnings, economic modernization, investment growth, income generation, governance improvement, support to other industries, and enhancing the state's global reputation.

Q69Schemes & Social JusticeRural Development SchemesMiscellaneous

Match the following:

A (Schemes)B (Functions)
a. Gruha Lakshmi scheme1. Allocation implies free supply of 10 kgs of rice per head, per month for all BPL card holders.
b. Shakthi scheme2. ₹ 2,000 to the women head of families.
c. Gruha Jyothi scheme3. For recent graduate / diploma unemployed youths who will get ₹ 3000/1500 unemployment allowance for two years.
d. Anna Bhagya scheme4. Free bus travel for all women in ordinary and express non-luxury KSRTC buses across the State.
e. Yuvanidhi scheme5. The scheme provides free electricity to households up to 200 units.

Answer choice:

  1. A.

    a-3, b-1, c-5, d-4, e-2

  2. B.

    a-4, b-5, c-2, d-1, e-3

  3. C.

    a-2, b-4, c-5, d-1, e-3

    Correct
  4. D.

    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5

Explanation

Gruha Lakshmi gives Rs. 2,000 to women heads of households, Shakti provides free bus travel for women, Gruha Jyothi gives free electricity up to 200 units, Anna Bhagya provides free rice to BPL households, and Yuvanidhi gives unemployment allowance to recent graduates/diploma holders (a-2, b-4, c-5, d-1, e-3).

Q70Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

Match the following:

A (Commission)B (Chairman)
a. New Education Policy 20001. Sri Anjum Parwez
b. State Education Policy 20242. Sri K. Sudhakar Rao
c. Finance Commission of Karnataka3. Prof. Sukhdeo Thorat
d. 7th Pay Commission4. Dr. Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan
e. New Pension Scheme to Old Pension Scheme5. Sri C. Narayanaswamy

Answer choice:

  1. A.

    a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5

  2. B.

    a-2, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-3

  3. C.

    a-3, b-1, c-2, d-5, e-4

  4. D.

    a-4, b-3, c-5, d-2, e-1

    Correct

Explanation

Dr. Krishnaswamy Kasturirangan chaired the National Education Policy 2020 committee, Prof. Sukhadeo Thorat is linked to the State Education Policy, Sri C. Narayanaswamy chaired the Karnataka Finance Commission, Sri K. Sudhakar Rao is linked to the 7th Pay Commission, and Sri Anjum Parwez is linked to the New Pension Scheme to Old Pension Scheme transition matter (a-4, b-3, c-5, d-2, e-1).

Q71Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Gram Sabha means :

  1. A.

    Persons of the territorial area of a Panchayat.

  2. B.

    Persons specified by the notification of the district authority.

  3. C.

    Persons registered in electoral rolls related to a Panchayat area at the village level.

    Correct
  4. D.

    Member of Panchayats

Explanation

A Gram Sabha consists of all persons registered in the electoral rolls of a village within a Panchayat area.

Q72Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

According to Article 61 of the Act, each Gram Panchayat is empowered to constitute the following Standing Committees through elections : (1) Production Committee (2) Social Justice Committee (3) Facilities Committee (4) All of the above

  1. A.

    Production Committee

  2. B.

    Social Justice Committee

  3. C.

    Facilities Committee

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Gram Panchayats are empowered to constitute Standing Committees for production, social justice, and amenities/facilities, among others.

Q73Indian PolityJudiciarySupreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review

Who has the power to enlarge the jurisdiction of Supreme Court of India?

  1. A.

    Chief Justice of India

  2. B.

    President of India

  3. C.

    The Parliament of India

    Correct
  4. D.

    Constitution Bench of Supreme Court

Explanation

Parliament has the power to enlarge the Supreme Court's jurisdiction by law.

Q74Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

As a tribute to which of the following leader 'Vigilance Awareness Week' is observed in India?

  1. A.

    Mahatma Gandhiji

  2. B.

    Sardar Vallabhabhai Patel

    Correct
  3. C.

    Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

  4. D.

    Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

'Vigilance Awareness Week' is observed around the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, in honour of his integrity and administrative legacy.

Q75Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

With reference to the Constitution of India the following are true regarding Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

(a) Controls the entire financial system of the country.

(b) He is to be guardian of the public purse.

(c) He is to be removed on the grounds of corruption, or no confidence of the cabinet.

(d) He is in control of the executive.

(e) He would scrutinize the financial transactions of Government and bring the result of such scrutiny before the legislature.

Select correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    (a), (b), (d), (e)

  2. B.

    (b), (c), (d), (e)

  3. C.

    (a), (b) & (e)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e)

Explanation

The CAG is the guardian of the public purse and scrutinises government financial transactions, presenting results to the legislature; the CAG does not control the entire financial system nor the executive, and is removed only via the same process as a Supreme Court judge (not simply for corruption or cabinet no-confidence) — so (a), (b) and (e) are the correct statements.

Q76Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

The following are true regarding Constituent Assembly of India.

(a)Legal Advisor – B.N. Rau
(b)Secretary – H.V.R. Iyengar
(c)Vice President – H.C. Mukherjee
(d)Chairman of the committee on the functions of the Constituent Assembly – Dr. Babu Rajendra Prasad
(e)Chairman of the House – K.M. Munshi

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    (a), (c), (d) & (e)

  2. B.

    (a), (b), (c)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (a), (d) & (e)

  4. D.

    (a), (b), (c), (d) & (e)

Explanation

B.N. Rau served as Constitutional/Legal Advisor, H.V.R. Iyengar as Secretary, and H.C. Mukherjee as Vice-President of the Constituent Assembly (statements a, b, c are correct).

Q77Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesFundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Habeas Corpus1. ‘You may have the body’
B. Mandamus2. ‘We order’
C. Prohibition3. Removal of suit from lower level Court to Higher level Court
D. Certiorari4. To prevent a lower level Court from exceeding its jurisdiction
E. Quo-warranto5. Prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person

Select the correct answer using codes given below.

  1. A.

    A-1, B-2, C-5, D-3, E-4

  2. B.

    A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4, E-5

  3. C.

    A-1, B-4, C-3, D-2, E-5

  4. D.

    A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5

    Correct

Explanation

Habeas Corpus means 'you may have the body', Mandamus means 'we command', Prohibition stops a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction, Certiorari removes a case to a higher court, and Quo-Warranto prevents illegal occupation of public office (A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3, E-5).

Q78Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

The budget approving authority of Gram Panchayat is:

  1. A.

    Zilla Panchayat

  2. B.

    Taluk Panchayat

  3. C.

    Govt. of Karnataka

  4. D.

    None of the above

    Correct

Explanation

The budget-approving authority of a Gram Panchayat is not any of the commonly assumed single bodies listed, reflecting the specific statutory arrangement under the relevant Panchayat Raj Act.

Q79EconomyBankingMiscellaneous

Which of the following are National Level Co-operatives?

a. National Co-operative Bank of India.

b. National Co-operative Consumers Federation.

c. National Co-operative Union of India.

d. National Dairy Development Board.

  1. A.

    a and b only

  2. B.

    b and c only

    Correct
  3. C.

    a, c and d only

  4. D.

    a, b, c and d

Explanation

The National Co-operative Consumers' Federation and the National Co-operative Union of India are recognised National Level Co-operatives; the other two listed bodies do not carry that designation in the standard list.

Q80Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsMiscellaneous

Which of the following are Main Sectors of Co-operation in Karnataka?

a. Co-operative Credit Sector.

b. Co-operative Processing Sector.

c. Co-operative Milk Sector.

d. Health Co-operatives.

  1. A.

    a, b, c and d

  2. B.

    a, b and d only

  3. C.

    a, b and c only

    Correct
  4. D.

    b only

Explanation

Co-operative Credit, Co-operative Processing, and Co-operative Milk are among the main sectors of the co-operative movement in Karnataka; Health Co-operatives is not typically classified as one of the main sectors.

Q81Karnataka GeographyPopulation & DemographicsKarnataka Census Data

According to 2011 Census, percentage of population below poverty line in Karnataka:

  1. A.

    Equal to all India average

  2. B.

    Less than all India average

    Correct
  3. C.

    More than all India average

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

As per 2011 data, Karnataka's below-poverty-line population percentage was lower than the all-India average.

Q82Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

Who regulates the registration and other activities of a Co-operative society in Karnataka?

  1. A.

    NABARD

  2. B.

    SBI

  3. C.

    Land Development Banks

  4. D.

    RCS (Registrar of Co-operative Societies)

    Correct

Explanation

The Registrar of Co-operative Societies (RCS) regulates the registration and functioning of co-operative societies in Karnataka.

Q83Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

The Karnataka Start-up Policy 2015-20 was launched with intention to stimulate the growth of ______ tech start-up by 2020.

  1. A.

    5,000

  2. B.

    10,000

  3. C.

    15,000

  4. D.

    20,000

    Correct

Explanation

The Karnataka Start-up Policy 2015-20 aimed to stimulate the growth of 20,000 technology start-ups by 2020.

Q84EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingMiscellaneous

The required number of members (quorum) for the right to vote in a general meeting of the Co-operative is ________.

  1. A.

    20%

    Correct
  2. B.

    35%

  3. C.

    15%

  4. D.

    30%

Explanation

A quorum of 20% of members is generally required for voting rights to be exercised at a co-operative society's general meeting.

Q85Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsMiscellaneous

The number of Directors to be elected regionwise in the Karnataka State Co-operative Sector, consists of which of the revenue districts?

A. Bengaluru Region

B. Mysore Region

C. Belagavi Region

D. Gulbarga Region

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    A and B only

  2. B.

    B, C and D only

  3. C.

    A, C and D only

  4. D.

    A, B, C and D

    Correct

Explanation

Directors are elected region-wise in Karnataka's State Co-operative Sector across the Bengaluru, Mysore, Belagavi and Gulbarga (Kalaburagi) revenue regions/divisions.

Q86Agriculture ScienceAgriculture ScienceMiscellaneous

When was the first National Commission on Agriculture set up?

  1. A.

    29th August 1970

    Correct
  2. B.

    30th September 1970

  3. C.

    14th July 1969

  4. D.

    6th April 1980

Explanation

The first National Commission on Agriculture was set up on 29 August 1970.

Q87Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

Total Forest Area Cover in Karnataka is :

  1. A.

    Above national average level

  2. B.

    Below national average level

    Correct
  3. C.

    Equal to national average level

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Karnataka's total forest cover, as a percentage of its geographical area, is below the national average level.

Q88EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemMiscellaneous

Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Rural Energy & Development (MGIRED) gives awareness on which of the following ?

(a) Rural & renewable energy

(b) Underground water protection

(c) Rainwater harvesting

(d) Environment protection

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    (a) and (b)

  2. B.

    (a), (b) and (c)

  3. C.

    (a), (b), (c) and (d)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (b) and (c)

Explanation

The Mahatma Gandhi Institute of Rural Energy and Development spreads awareness on rural/renewable energy, groundwater protection, rainwater harvesting and environmental protection.

Q89Schemes & Social JusticeRural Development SchemesMiscellaneous

(a) According to Jal Jeevan Mission program 2019, every household has to get 55 litres pure drinking water every day.

(b) In rural area pure drinking water is supplied through one-village project, multi-village project and through tap water supply.

Which of the following is the correct answer?

  1. A.

    (a) and (b) both are wrong

  2. B.

    (a) is correct, (b) is wrong

  3. C.

    (a) is wrong, (b) is correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    (a) and (b) both are correct

Explanation

Under the Jal Jeevan Mission, the 55-litre daily norm is prescribed per person (per capita), not per household as incorrectly stated; rural water supply is indeed delivered via single-village, multi-village and tap-based schemes.

Q90Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Administration, Acts & Events

Assertion (A) : According to Karnataka Industrial Area Development Rule 1966, case 28, State Government according to a notification can acquire any land for industrial development and can transfer it to Industrial Area Development Board.

Reason (R) : In such a land after developing road, drinking water supply, drainage, basic infrastructures, that land becomes an industrial area. Which of the following is correct?

  1. A.

    Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.

  2. B.

    Assertion & Reason both are correct.

    Correct
  3. C.

    Assertion and Reason are wrong.

  4. D.

    Assertion is wrong but Reason is correct.

Explanation

Under the Karnataka Industrial Areas Development Act, the State Government can notify and acquire land for industrial development and transfer it to the KIADB, which then develops roads, water, drainage and other basic infrastructure to create a functional industrial area.

Q91Ancient & Medieval History (India)Regional & South Indian DynastiesCholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas

Rashtrakuta King regarded as one of the four great monarchs of the world by the Arab traveller Sulaiman was :

  1. A.

    Govinda III

  2. B.

    Amoghavarsha

    Correct
  3. C.

    Krishna III

  4. D.

    Dantivarman

Explanation

Amoghavarsha, the Rashtrakuta ruler, was regarded by the Arab traveller Sulaiman as one of the four great monarchs of the contemporary world.

Q92Modern History (India)Indian National MovementConstitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)

In the first elections under the Government of India Act 1935, Congress achieved absolute majority in :

  1. A.

    Five provinces

    Correct
  2. B.

    Six provinces

  3. C.

    Seven provinces

  4. D.

    Eight provinces

Explanation

In the 1937 provincial elections held under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Congress secured an absolute majority in five provinces (and formed governments in more with allies/support).

Q93Modern History (India)British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal DevelopmentsMiscellaneous

The company officer who translated the Shakuntala of Kalidasa was ________

  1. A.

    Max Muller

  2. B.

    William Jones

    Correct
  3. C.

    Charles Wilkins

  4. D.

    H. T. Colebrooke

Explanation

Sir William Jones, the noted Orientalist and East India Company judge, translated Kalidasa's 'Shakuntala' into English.

Q94Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mughal EmpireMaratha Rise and Mughal Decline

Who among the following was considered the guru of Shivaji?

  1. A.

    Ramdas

    Correct
  2. B.

    Ramanuja

  3. C.

    Raidas

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Samarth Ramdas is traditionally regarded as Shivaji's spiritual guru.

Q95Karnataka HistoryMysore Kingdom & Colonial KarnatakaWodeyars, Hyder Ali & Tippu Sultan

The corrupt dalwai (prime minister) of Mysore state who had usurped the real power and reduced the Wodeyar King into a mere titular head -

  1. A.

    Nanjraja

    Correct
  2. B.

    Chikkadevaraja

  3. C.

    Devraja

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Nanjaraja, the corrupt Dalwai (chief minister) of Mysore, usurped real power and reduced the Wodeyar king to a mere titular figurehead.

Q96Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

With reference to Constitution of India creation of New All India Service can be initiated by :

  1. A.

    Union Public Service Commission

  2. B.

    The Lok Sabha

  3. C.

    The Rajya Sabha

    Correct
  4. D.

    The President of India

Explanation

Under Article 312, creation of a new All-India Service can be initiated by the Rajya Sabha passing a resolution by a two-thirds majority.

Q97Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

With reference to the Constitution of India the Supreme Legal Officer of the Government of India is

  1. A.

    The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

  2. B.

    The Solicitor General of India

  3. C.

    The Attorney General of India

    Correct
  4. D.

    The Minister of Law, Government of India

Explanation

The Attorney General of India is the Supreme Legal Officer/chief law officer of the Government of India.

Q98Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

With reference to Indian Constitution the Governor can be appointed to

  1. A.

    Only one state

  2. B.

    Two states

  3. C.

    One or more states

    Correct
  4. D.

    Union Territories

Explanation

Under Article 153, the same person can be appointed as Governor of one or more states.

Q99Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

The following Fundamental Right is not true with reference to the Constitution of India

  1. A.

    Right to Religion

  2. B.

    Cultural and Educational Rights

  3. C.

    Protect and Improve Environment

    Correct
  4. D.

    Freedom of Movement

Explanation

'Protect and improve the environment' is enumerated as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A, not as a Fundamental Right in Part III of the Constitution.

Q100Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

When did separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes came into existence in India?

  1. A.

    2003

  2. B.

    2004

    Correct
  3. C.

    1978

  4. D.

    1990

Explanation

A separate National Commission for Scheduled Tribes was constituted in 2004 (bifurcating the earlier combined National Commission for SCs and STs).

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