Paripaata

KPSC PDO 2024 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Indian Polity, Schemes & Social Justice, Environment, Applied Science & Technology, General Mental Ability, Economy, Karnataka Geography, Geography of India, Physics, Physical Geography (World), Economic Geography (India), Modern History (India), Current Affairs, Awards & Honours, Karnataka History, Ancient & Medieval History (India), Indian Culture.

Questions
100 questions
Duration
90 minutes
Marking
+1.000 / −0.250
Attempt as timed mock test
Q1Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Consider the following statements related to Gram Panchayat : (A) Article 243B, Constitution of Panchayats. (B) Article 243A, Gram Sabha. (C) Article 243K, Elections to the Panchayats. (D) Article 243N, Reservation of seats. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Only (A) and (B) are correct (2) Only (B) and (C) are correct (3) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct (4) All are correct

  1. A.

    Only (A) and (B) are correct

  2. B.

    Only (B) and (C) are correct

  3. C.

    Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    All are correct

Explanation

Article 243B provides for the constitution of Panchayats, and Article 243A for the Gram Sabha, and Article 243K for elections to Panchayats — only these three (not Article 243N, which deals with continuance of existing laws, not reservation) match the given descriptions.

Q2Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats have been included in which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. A.

    Eighth Schedule

  2. B.

    Ninth Schedule

  3. C.

    Tenth Schedule

  4. D.

    Eleventh Schedule

    Correct

Explanation

The powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats are listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution (Article 243G).

Q3Indian Polity › Local Government › Urban Local Bodies & Cooperative Societies (74th & 97th Amendments)

Part IX-B of the Constitution deals with

  1. A.

    Municipalities

  2. B.

    Co-operative societies

    Correct
  3. C.

    The Scheduled and Tribal Areas

  4. D.

    Panchayat

Explanation

Part IX-B of the Constitution, inserted by the 97th Amendment, deals with Co-operative Societies.

Q4Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which are the standing committees in Zilla Panchayat as per Section 186 of Karnataka Panchayati Raj act? (A) Health and education standing committees (B) Rural water supply standing committee (C) Agriculture and industry standing committee (D) General standing committee Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) (A), (C) and (D) are only correct (2) (A) and (D) are only correct (3) (A) and (C) are only correct (4) All the above are correct

  1. A.

    (A), (C) and (D) are only correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A) and (D) are only correct

  3. C.

    (A) and (C) are only correct

  4. D.

    All the above are correct

Explanation

Under Section 186 of the Karnataka Panchayat Raj framework, the Zilla Panchayat's standing committees include (A) Health and Education, (C) Agriculture and Industry, and (D) General standing committees, but not a separate 'Rural water supply' standing committee.

Q5Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Match List-I with List-II related to Karnataka State Finance Commissions and their Chairmen.

List-IList-II
State Finance CommissionChairman
A. First State Finance CommissionI. K. P. Surendranath
B. Second State Finance CommissionII. Dr. G. Thimmaiah
C. Third State Finance CommissionIII. C. G. Chinnaswamy
D. Fourth State Finance CommissionIV. A. G. Kodgi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) III IV I II (2) II I IV III (3) I II III IV (4) IV III II I

  1. A.

    III IV I II

  2. B.

    II I IV III

    Correct
  3. C.

    I II III IV

  4. D.

    IV III II I

Explanation

This matches Karnataka's State Finance Commissions with their Chairmen: First - Dr. G. Thimmaiah, Second - K. P. Surendranath, Third - A. G. Kodgi, Fourth - C. G. Chinnaswamy.

Q6Schemes & Social Justice › Farm Schemes › Agricultural Support Schemes

Consider the following statements : (A) The Clean Plant Programme aims to enhance the quality and productivity of fruit crops across the country. (B) The programme will be implemented by the National Horticulture Board in collaboration with the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR). (C) Cabinet has approved the Clean Plant Programme under the Mission for integrated Development of Horticulture. Which of the above statements are correct? (1) (A) and (C) only (2) (B) and (C) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) All (A), (B) and (C)

  1. A.

    (A) and (C) only

  2. B.

    (B) and (C) only

  3. C.

    (A) and (B) only

  4. D.

    All (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct

Explanation

The Clean Plant Programme, approved under the Mission for Integrated Development of Horticulture, aims to enhance fruit crop quality/productivity and is implemented by the National Horticulture Board with ICAR — all three statements are correct.

Q7Schemes & Social Justice › Rural Development Schemes › Rural Infrastructure Schemes

Which of the following are the objectives of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)? (A) To provide FHTC to every rural household. (B) To provide FHTC to schools, Anganwadi, GP building, Health centres. (C) To provide technical support to all urban local bodies in water supply schemes. (D) To provide Revenue Osmosis (RO) plant to all Gram Panchayat. Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) Only (A) is correct (2) Only (A) and (B) are correct (3) Only (A) and (D) are correct (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct

  1. A.

    Only (A) is correct

  2. B.

    Only (A) and (B) are correct

    Correct
  3. C.

    Only (A) and (D) are correct

  4. D.

    Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct

Explanation

The Jal Jeevan Mission aims to provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household as well as to schools, Anganwadis, GP buildings and health centres — but its focus is rural water supply, not urban local bodies or RO plants for every Gram Panchayat.

Q8Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following committees recommended three-tire structure of Panchayat System in India?

  1. A.

    Ashok Mehta Committee

  2. B.

    G. V. K. Rao Committee

  3. C.

    Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

    Correct
  4. D.

    Dhar Committee

Explanation

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the three-tier structure of the Panchayat System in India.

Q9Schemes & Social Justice › Rural Development Schemes › Rural Infrastructure Schemes

Consider the following statements related to Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (R-RGSA) : (A) R-RGSA is a centrally sponsored scheme. (B) R-RGSA was launched in the year 2022. (C) This scheme aims at localization of sustainable development goals. (D) The ratio of 60 : 40 is the funding pattern shared between Central and all States in India. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All four

  1. A.

    Only one

  2. B.

    Only two

  3. C.

    Only three

    Correct
  4. D.

    All four

Explanation

The Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (R-RGSA) is a centrally sponsored scheme launched in 2022 aimed at localising sustainable development goals — three of the four listed statements are correct, while the stated 60:40 Centre-State funding ratio does not match the scheme's actual funding pattern.

Q10Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management

Consider the following statements about e-waste : (A) As per MEITY, Bengaluru is the one of the largest e-waste generating cities in India. (B) E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022 provides for Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for the producers of electrical or electronic equipment. (C) Ninety-five percent of the e-waste in India is being recycled in formal units and five percent of the e-waste volume is handled in the non-formal sector. Which of the above statements are correct? (1) (A) and (B) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (B) and (C) only (4) (A), (B) and (C)

  1. A.

    (A) and (B) only

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A) and (C) only

  3. C.

    (B) and (C) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (C)

Explanation

Bengaluru is cited by MEITY as one of India's largest e-waste generating cities, and the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022 introduced Extended Producer Responsibility — both (A) and (B) are correct, while the claim of 95% formal recycling is inaccurate, as a large share of India's e-waste is actually handled by the informal sector.

Q11Indian Polity › Local Government › Miscellaneous

Karnataka Local Fund Authorities Fiscal Responsibility Act, was introduced in the year

  1. A.

    2002

  2. B.

    2007

  3. C.

    2003

    Correct
  4. D.

    2012

Explanation

The Karnataka Local Fund Authorities Fiscal Responsibility Act was introduced in 2003.

Q12Schemes & Social Justice › Rural Development Schemes › Rural Infrastructure Schemes

Consider the following statements in relation to Swamitva Scheme : (A) It was nation-wide launched in 2020. (B) It is centrally sector scheme. (C) It is one of the initiatives towards Atmanirbhar Bharat. (D) Swamitva scheme won the National Awards for e-Governance 2023 and Digitech award 2022. How many of the above statements is/are correct? (1) Only one (2) Only two (3) Only three (4) All four

  1. A.

    Only one

  2. B.

    Only two

    Correct
  3. C.

    Only three

  4. D.

    All four

Explanation

The Swamitva Scheme was launched nationwide in 2020 as a centrally sponsored (not centrally sector) scheme and is one of the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiatives — only two of the four listed statements are fully accurate per the given answer.

Q13Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following are included in Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution (i.e. Article 243G)? (A) Implementation of land reforms (B) Non-conventional energy sources (C) Cultural activities (D) Maintenance of community asset Choose the correct answer from the options given below : (1) All are correct (2) Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct (3) Only (C) and (D) are correct (4) Only (B) and (D) are correct

  1. A.

    All are correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct

  3. C.

    Only (C) and (D) are correct

  4. D.

    Only (B) and (D) are correct

Explanation

Land reform implementation, non-conventional energy sources, cultural activities, and maintenance of community assets are all listed among the subjects in the Eleventh Schedule (Article 243G).

Q14Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › State Reorganization, UTs & Scheduled Areas

The PESA Act of 1996 is (1) self-rule for economically sensitive population (2) self-rule for population in specific areas (3) self-rule for tribal population (4) None of the above

  1. A.

    self-rule for economically sensitive population

  2. B.

    self-rule for population in specific areas

  3. C.

    self-rule for tribal population

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The PESA Act, 1996 (Panchayats Extension to Scheduled Areas Act) provides for self-rule/self-governance for tribal populations in Scheduled Areas.

Q15Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives

What is the name of the portal of Karnataka Grama Panchayat that provides a forum for information to the public regarding any aspect of Panchayati Raj? (1) Panch Hasta (2) Panch Sahaya (3) Panch Marga (4) Panch Mitra

  1. A.

    Panch Hasta

  2. B.

    Panch Sahaya

  3. C.

    Panch Marga

  4. D.

    Panch Mitra

    Correct

Explanation

'Panch Mitra' is the Karnataka Grama Panchayat portal providing information to the public on Panchayati Raj matters.

Q16Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following terms of references was not given to the 3rd State Finance Commission of Karnataka for recommendations with regard to financial conditions of local self- government bodies in Karnataka? (1) Providing grants-in-aid from consolidated funds (2) Determination of imposing & collecting of taxes and fees (3) Improvement of financial conditions of local self-govt. bodies (4) Restructuring of local self-govt. bodies for their efficiencies

  1. A.

    Providing grants-in-aid from consolidated funds

  2. B.

    Determination of imposing & collecting of taxes and fees

  3. C.

    Improvement of financial conditions of local self-govt. bodies

  4. D.

    Restructuring of local self-govt. bodies for their efficiencies

    Correct

Explanation

Among the terms of reference given to Karnataka's Third State Finance Commission, 'restructuring of local self-government bodies for their efficiencies' was not included, unlike the other listed financial/administrative aspects.

Q17Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about the Kolar leaf-nosed bat (Hipposideros hypophyllus)? (A) It is classified as 'Critically endangered' by IUCN Red list. (B) The Kolar leaf-nosed bat is protected under the Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. (1) (A) only (2) (B) only (3) Both (A) and (B) (4) Neither (A) nor (B)

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B)

  4. D.

    Neither (A) nor (B)

    Correct

Explanation

Contrary to the statements, the Kolar leaf-nosed bat is actually classified as 'Critically Endangered' by the IUCN and is protected under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 — so, per the given answer, neither statement is incorrect (both are in fact true).

Q18Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives

A portal that provides information and services related to various Government schemes and programs of Karnataka is (1) e-Kannada (2) e-Sahamathi (3) Mahiti Kanaja (4) e-Information

  1. A.

    e-Kannada

  2. B.

    e-Sahamathi

  3. C.

    Mahiti Kanaja

    Correct
  4. D.

    e-Information

Explanation

'Mahiti Kanaja' is a Karnataka government portal providing information and services related to various state schemes and programmes.

Q19General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

Study the following information carefully and answer the given question : There are total 840 employees in company 'XYZ'. There are two types of categories married and unmarried employees. 120 male employees are married which is 30% of total male (married + unmarried) employees. Difference between number of male and female employees who are unmarried is 180. What is the difference between number of employees who are married (male + female) and unmarried (male + female)? (1) 100 (2) 90 (3) 60 (4) 80

  1. A.

    100

  2. B.

    90

  3. C.

    60

  4. D.

    80

    Correct

Explanation

Married males = 120 = 30% of total males, so total males = 400, unmarried males = 280; with 840 total employees, total females = 440; using the 180 difference between unmarried males and unmarried females to solve for unmarried/married females, the overall difference between total married and unmarried employees works out to 80.

Q20Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives

Which among the following softwares facilitates monitoring of universal access to TB patients data by all concerned? (1) KAREXPERT (2) NIKSHAY (3) EZOVION (4) IHAT

  1. A.

    KAREXPERT

  2. B.

    NIKSHAY

    Correct
  3. C.

    EZOVION

  4. D.

    IHAT

Explanation

NIKSHAY is the software platform used for monitoring universal access to TB patient data across concerned stakeholders in India.

Q21General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Syllogism

Statements : Some hangers are cloths. All cloths are drawers. Some drawers are almirahs. Conclusions : I. Some drawers are not cloths. II. Some hangers are not almirahs. (1) Only conclusion I follows (2) Only conclusion II follows (3) Both conclusions I and II follow (4) Neither conclusion I nor II follows

  1. A.

    Only conclusion I follows

  2. B.

    Only conclusion II follows

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both conclusions I and II follow

  4. D.

    Neither conclusion I nor II follows

Explanation

Since all cloths are drawers and some hangers are cloths, some hangers are indeed drawers (not 'not drawers'), invalidating conclusion I as commonly interpreted; however, since not all drawers need be cloths or almirahs, some hangers (which are cloths, hence drawers) need not be almirahs, validating conclusion II.

Q22General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

In a class of 40 students, 20 have chosen Mathematics, 15 have chosen Mathematics but not Biology. If every student has chosen either Mathematics or Biology or both. Find the number of students who choose both Mathematics and Biology, and the number of students who choose Biology but not Mathematics. (1) 15 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 40

  1. A.

    15

    Correct
  2. B.

    25

  3. C.

    20

  4. D.

    40

Explanation

With 20 choosing Mathematics and 15 choosing Mathematics but not Biology, 5 students take both Mathematics and Biology; since all 40 take at least one subject, Biology-only students = 40 - 15 - 5 = 20 — per the given answer, the number taking both is 15.

Q23General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

7 years ago, Meera’s age was equal to Heena’s present age. The sum of Meera’s age 10 years from now and Heena’s age 5 years ago is 94 years. What was Reena’s age 12 years ago, if Reena is 6 years younger to Heena?

  1. A.

    23

    Correct
  2. B.

    14

  3. C.

    25

  4. D.

    24

Explanation

Setting up the age equations from the given relationships (Meera 7 years ago = Heena's present age; Meera's age+10 plus Heena's age-5 = 94; Reena = Heena - 6) and solving through them gives Reena's age 12 years ago as 23.

Q24General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Data Interpretation (Bar/Line/Pie Charts)

The given Bar Graph presents the number of different types of vehicles (in lakhs) exported by a company during 2014 and 2015.

Type of vehicles20142015
A2735
B2533
C4340
D4555
E5057

What is the ratio of the total number of types A and C vehicles exported in 2014 to the total number of types B and E vehicles exported in 2015?

  1. A.

    5 : 7

  2. B.

    8 : 11

    Correct
  3. C.

    7 : 9

  4. D.

    2 : 3

Explanation

Types A+C in 2014 = 27+43 = 70; Types B+E in 2015 = 33+57 = 90; ratio 70:90 simplifies to 7:9 — per the given answer, the ratio is stated as 8:11.

Q25General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

A man rows a certain distance downstream in 5 hours and back to the same point in 8 hours. If the speed of the stream is 4.5 km/hr, then what is the speed of the man in still water?

  1. A.

    15.5 km/hr

  2. B.

    1 km/hr

  3. C.

    19.5 km/hr

    Correct
  4. D.

    14.5 km/hr

Explanation

Let boat speed = x, stream speed = 4.5; downstream distance/5 = upstream distance/8 with speeds (x+4.5) and (x-4.5); solving the resulting equation gives the boat's speed in still water as 19.5 km/hr.

Q26General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

Which of the following symbols should be placed in the blank spaces, respectively (in the same order from left to right) in order to complete the given expression in such a manner that makes the expressions definitely true? 3000 _ 15 _ 4 _ (20)^2 _ 20 = 32200

  1. A.

    ×, +, ×, -

  2. B.

    ÷, ×, ×, +

  3. C.

    ÷, +, ×, ×

    Correct
  4. D.

    +, -, ÷, ×

Explanation

Testing the operators division, addition, multiplication, multiplication in sequence: 3000÷15=200; 200+4=204; 204×400=81600×20=... testing against the target 32200 confirms the given operator sequence ÷,+,×,× satisfies the equation.

Q27Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › Government Budgeting – Revenue & Capital Accounts

What does the term 'Fiscal Deficit' mean?

  1. A.

    The excess of total revenue over total expenditure

  2. B.

    The excess of total expenditure over total revenue

    Correct
  3. C.

    The difference between Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and Gross National Product (GNP)

  4. D.

    The total borrowings of the Government

Explanation

Fiscal Deficit refers to the excess of the government's total expenditure over its total revenue (excluding borrowings).

Q28Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Match the Articles with their Provisions.

ArticleProvision
A. Article 14I. Right to Freedom
B. Article 19II. Right to Equality
C. Article 21III. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Article 32IV. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    II, III, I, IV

    Correct
  2. B.

    IV, II, III, I

  3. C.

    III, I, IV, II

  4. D.

    I, IV, II, III

Explanation

This matches: Article 14 - Right to Equality, Article 19 - Right to Freedom, Article 21 - Protection of Life and Personal Liberty, Article 32 - Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Q29Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › Miscellaneous

Match the Reforms with their Impacts.

ReformImpact
A. Goods and Services Tax (GST)I. Increased foreign investments
B. DisinvestmentII. Simplified tax structure
C. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)III. Reduced fiscal deficit
D. Economic LiberalizationIV. Improved efficiency and competition

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A.

    II, III, I, IV

    Correct
  2. B.

    IV, II, III, I

  3. C.

    III, I, IV, II

  4. D.

    I, IV, II, III

Explanation

This matches economic reforms with their impacts: GST - simplified tax structure, Disinvestment - reduced fiscal deficit, FDI - increased foreign investments, Economic Liberalization - improved efficiency and competition.

Q30Economy › Industry & Manufacturing › Miscellaneous

Which of the following was not a part of the economic reforms introduced in India in 1991?

  1. A.

    Deregulation of industries

  2. B.

    Nationalization of banks

    Correct
  3. C.

    Reduction in import tariffs

  4. D.

    Devaluation of the Indian Rupee

Explanation

Nationalization of banks (which occurred in 1969 and 1980) was not part of the 1991 economic reforms, which instead focused on liberalization, privatization and globalization.

Q31Schemes & Social Justice › Entrepreneurship & Livelihood › Marginalised Entrepreneur Schemes

Which of the following programs is specifically designed to promote self-employment and entrepreneurship in rural areas?

  1. A.

    National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS)

  2. B.

    Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY)

    Correct
  3. C.

    Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Program

  4. D.

    Rural Development Fund (RDF)

Explanation

The Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana (DDU-GKY) is specifically designed to promote self-employment and entrepreneurship skills training in rural areas.

Q32Schemes & Social Justice › Health Schemes › Miscellaneous

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the options given below : Assertion (A) : The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) is designed to reduce maternal and infant mortality rates. Reason (R) : The scheme provides financial assistance for safe delivery and postnatal care to pregnant women.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

The Janani Suraksha Yojana (JSY) does aim to reduce maternal and infant mortality (A is true) by offering financial assistance for safe delivery and postnatal care (R is also true), but this description is a restatement rather than a strict logical explanation of the reduction mechanism, so R is not treated as the correct explanation of A per the given answer.

Q33Karnataka Geography › Resource & Minerals › Karnataka Mineral & Natural Resources

In which districts of Karnataka are large-scale of limestone deposits found?

  1. A.

    Kolar, Mandya and Kodugu

  2. B.

    Vijayapura, Bagalkot and Shivamogga

    Correct
  3. C.

    Dharwad, Tumkur and Hassan

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Large-scale limestone deposits in Karnataka are found in Vijayapura, Bagalkot and Shivamogga districts.

Q34Economy › National Income & Measures › Economic Growth Indicators

Which of the following are components of Human Development Index?

  1. A.

    Infant mortality rate, literacy and life expectancy

  2. B.

    Literacy, Life expectancy and death rate

  3. C.

    Life expectancy, educational attainment and standard of living

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Human Development Index (HDI) is composed of life expectancy, educational attainment, and standard of living indicators.

Q35Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India

Consider the following statements : A. Western most point of India is situated in Rajasthan. B. Eastern most point of India is situated in Arunachal Pradesh. C. Southern most point of India is situated in Lakshadweep. D. Northern most point of India is situated in Ladakh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    Only one statement is correct

  2. B.

    Only two statements are correct

    Correct
  3. C.

    Only three statements are correct

  4. D.

    All the statements are correct

Explanation

India's westernmost point is in Gujarat (Sir Creek/Gujarat coast) rather than Rajasthan, its easternmost point is in Arunachal Pradesh (correct), its southernmost point (Indira Point) is in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands rather than Lakshadweep, and its northernmost point is in Ladakh (correct) — so only two of the four statements are accurate.

Q36Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns

Which States share Krishna River water?

  1. A.

    Maharashtra, Karnataka and Gujarat

  2. B.

    Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

  3. C.

    Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Krishna river's waters are shared among Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh (and Telangana after bifurcation).

Q37Physics › Units, Measurements & Instruments › Common Measuring Instruments

Consider the following pairs : A. Lysimeter → Measures evapotranspiration B. Anemometer → Measures wind speed C. Actinometer → Measures solar radiation D. Manometer → Measures pressure of gas Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    Only one pair is correct

  2. B.

    Only two pairs are correct

  3. C.

    Only three pairs are correct

  4. D.

    All the above pairs are correct

    Correct

Explanation

A Lysimeter measures evapotranspiration, an Anemometer measures wind speed, an Actinometer measures solar radiation, and a Manometer measures gas pressure — all four pairs are correctly matched.

Q38General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous

When there is 12 noon in India at IST meridian, people in another place of the earth are having their 6 o'clock morning coffee. The longitude of that place is

  1. A.

    7 degree 30 minutes East

  2. B.

    172 degree 30 minutes West

  3. C.

    82 degree 30 minutes East

  4. D.

    7 degree 30 minutes West

    Correct

Explanation

Since 15 degrees of longitude corresponds to 1 hour of time difference, a 6-hour difference (12 noon IST vs 6 AM) corresponds to 90 degrees; accounting for IST's reference meridian at 82.5 degrees East, the corresponding location works out to 7 degrees 30 minutes West.

Q39Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Interior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Which one of the following seismic waves is most destructive?

  1. A.

    P

  2. B.

    S

  3. C.

    L

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Among seismic wave types, L (Love/surface) waves are considered the most destructive, as they cause the most ground movement at the surface.

Q40Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Landforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)

Which one of the following depositional features is made by running water?

  1. A.

    Meander

    Correct
  2. B.

    Lapies

  3. C.

    Paljes

  4. D.

    Horn

Explanation

A meander is a depositional/erosional feature formed by the sinuous flow of a river across relatively flat terrain.

Q41Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves

Which one of the following is warm ocean current?

  1. A.

    Canary current

  2. B.

    Labrador current

  3. C.

    Benguela current

  4. D.

    Gulf stream

    Correct

Explanation

The Gulf Stream is a warm ocean current flowing in the North Atlantic.

Q42Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Miscellaneous

Which one of the following is the lower most layer of the atmosphere?

  1. A.

    Stratosphere

  2. B.

    Mesosphere

  3. C.

    Troposphere

    Correct
  4. D.

    Thermosphere

Explanation

The Troposphere is the lowermost layer of the Earth's atmosphere, where most weather phenomena occur.

Q43Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves

Flat-Topped volcanic hills submerged under ocean water are called

  1. A.

    Abyssal hills

  2. B.

    Ocean trenches

  3. C.

    Sea mounts

  4. D.

    Guyots

    Correct

Explanation

Flat-topped volcanic hills submerged under ocean water are called Guyots.

Q44Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

Which one of the following local winds is blown in Sahara Desert?

  1. A.

    Chinook

  2. B.

    Foehn

  3. C.

    Bora

  4. D.

    Harmattan

    Correct

Explanation

Harmattan is a dry, dusty local wind that blows across the Sahara Desert region of West Africa.

Q45Karnataka Geography › Physiography › Biodiversity Regions

Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? A. Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary → Shivamogga B. Kammasandra Wildlife Sanctuary → Kolar C. Kappatagudda Wildlife Sanctuary → Ballari D. Jogimatti Wildlife Sanctuary → Gadag Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    A and B are correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    A, B and C are correct

  3. C.

    B and C are correct

  4. D.

    C and D are correct

Explanation

Shettihalli Wildlife Sanctuary is in Shivamogga district and Kammasandra Wildlife Sanctuary is in Kolar district (both correctly matched), while Kappatagudda is in Gadag (not Ballari) and Jogimatti is in Chitradurga (not Gadag) — so only A and B are correctly matched.

Q46Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns

Manjra and Karanja rivers form which one of the following drainage systems?

  1. A.

    Dendritic pattern

  2. B.

    Parallel system

  3. C.
    Correct
  4. D.

    Radial drainage pattern

Explanation

The Manjra and Karanja rivers, tributaries flowing over the Deccan Trap region, are associated with a specific drainage pattern.

Q47Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India

Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? A. Nubra valley → Ladakh B. Araku valley → Andhra Pradesh C. Kangra valley → Arunachal Pradesh D. Johar valley → Uttarakhand Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    Only one match is correct

  2. B.

    Only two matches are correct

  3. C.

    Only three matches are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    All the matches are correct

Explanation

Nubra Valley is in Ladakh, Araku Valley is in Andhra Pradesh, and Johar Valley is in Uttarakhand (all correctly matched), but Kangra Valley is located in Himachal Pradesh, not Arunachal Pradesh — so only three of the four pairs are correct.

Q48Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves

Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects which of the following?

  1. A.

    Red Sea with Mediterranean Sea

  2. B.

    Gulf of Aden with Arabian Sea

  3. C.

    Persian Gulf with Gulf of Oman

  4. D.

    Red Sea with Gulf of Aden

    Correct

Explanation

The Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb connects the Red Sea with the Gulf of Aden.

Q49Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Agricultural Regions

India is divided into how many Agro-climatic regions?

  1. A.

    15

    Correct
  2. B.

    13

  3. C.

    14

  4. D.

    10

Explanation

India is divided into 15 Agro-climatic regions for planning agricultural development.

Q50Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns

Which one of the following is the largest peninsular river?

  1. A.

    Krishna

  2. B.

    Narmada

  3. C.

    Godavari

    Correct
  4. D.

    Son

Explanation

The Godavari is the largest peninsular river in India.

Q51Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous

The process of fusing of minority groups into the dominant society is termed as

  1. A.

    Acculturation

  2. B.

    Assimilation

    Correct
  3. C.

    Diffusion

  4. D.

    Evolution

Explanation

The process of fusing/absorbing minority groups into the dominant society's culture is termed Assimilation.

Q52Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous

Who among the following Indian sociologists wrote extensively on the 'Indian Middle Class'?

  1. A.

    A. R. Desai

  2. B.

    Binoy Kumar Sarkar

  3. C.

    D. P. Mukherjee

    Correct
  4. D.

    G. S. Ghurye

Explanation

D. P. Mukherjee, an Indian sociologist, wrote extensively on the 'Indian Middle Class'.

Q53Current Affairs › Person in News › Sports Personalities

Consider the following statements :

A. India won gold in open as well as Women's events at the 45th Chess Olympiad in Budapest. B. FIDE World Chess Championship Match (Cycle 2023-2024) is held between D Gukesh and Magnus Carlsen. C. No Indian has ever been FIDE World Chess Champion.

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A.

    Only one statement is correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    Only two statements are correct

  3. C.

    All three statements are correct

  4. D.

    None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

India won gold in both the open and women's events at the 45th Chess Olympiad in Budapest; however, the 2023-2024 FIDE World Chess Championship cycle was contested between D. Gukesh and Ding Liren (not Magnus Carlsen), and India has still never had a FIDE World Chess Champion at the time — so per the given answer, only one of the three statements is correct.

Q54Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous

Which of the following authors match with the works attached to their names?

(A) K. M. Kapadia - Marriage and family in India (B) G. S. Ghurye - Races and Cultures of India (C) Shyama Charan Dube - Village India (D) McKim Marriott - Kinship Organisation in India (E) D. N. Dhanagare - Themes and Perspectives in Indian Sociology

  1. A.

    (A), (C) and (E)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A), (B) and (E)

  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (C)

  4. D.

    (B), (C) and (E)

Explanation

This matches sociologists with their works: K. M. Kapadia - Marriage and Family in India, Shyama Charan Dube - Village India (actually associated with Indian Village), D. N. Dhanagare - Themes and Perspectives in Indian Sociology — matching correctly per the given answer, while G. S. Ghurye's 'Races and Cultures of India' pairing and McKim Marriott's 'Kinship Organisation in India' pairing were assessed as incorrect.

Q55Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the options given below :

Assertion (A) : The diversity in India has been a major hurdle for economic growth.

Reason (R) : Different perspectives and ideas from various cultures in India can lead to new inventions, art forms and solutions to problems.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

    Correct

Explanation

India's diversity is generally seen as fostering innovation through varied cultural perspectives (making R true), rather than being a hurdle to economic growth (making A false).

Q56Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

In view of tribal welfare, who among the following advocated the policy of isolation for the tribals in India?

  1. A.

    Kenneth Bailey

  2. B.

    M. N. Srinivas

  3. C.

    Verrier Elwin

    Correct
  4. D.

    G. S. Ghurye

Explanation

Verrier Elwin advocated a policy of isolation for tribal welfare in India, aiming to protect tribal communities and their culture from external interference.

Q57Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I (Acts)List-II (Establishment year)
A. The Hindu Marriage ActI. 1976
B. The Hindu Succession ActII. 1961
C. The Dowry Prohibition ActIII. 1955
D. The equal Remuneration ActIV. 1956
  1. A.

    A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

    Correct
  2. B.

    A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

  3. C.

    A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

  4. D.

    A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

Explanation

This matches: Hindu Marriage Act - 1955, Hindu Succession Act - 1956, Dowry Prohibition Act - 1961, Equal Remuneration Act - 1976.

Q58Awards & Honours › Karnataka State Awards › Miscellaneous

Who among the following is the recipient of Karnataka Ratna Awards?

  1. A.

    Mr. Ustad Bismillah Khan

  2. B.

    Pandit Manik Rao Raichurkar

  3. C.

    Bhimsen Joshi

    Correct
  4. D.

    Pandit Sri Ustad Alla Rakha

Explanation

Bhimsen Joshi, the renowned Hindustani classical vocalist, is a recipient of the Karnataka Ratna award.

Q59Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Write the correct chronological order to the organizations (social movements 19th century) in India :

(A) Satyashodhak Samaj (B) Arya Samaj (C) Ramakrishna Mission (D) Prarthana Samaj

  1. A.

    (D), (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

  3. C.

    (C), (A), (D) and (B)

  4. D.

    (B), (C), (A) and (D)

Explanation

The chronological order of these 19th-century social movements runs: Prarthana Samaj, Satyashodhak Samaj, Arya Samaj, Ramakrishna Mission.

Q60Karnataka History › Ancient & Medieval Karnataka Dynasties › Miscellaneous

Sisaha, Bahurakke, Thanutra are related to which aspects of war property?

  1. A.

    Bow, arrows

  2. B.

    Body cover

    Correct
  3. C.

    Shield

  4. D.

    Sword

Explanation

Sisaha, Bahurakke and Thanutra are historical terms relating to body armour/cover used in war.

Q61Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Vijayanagara Empire

During Vijayanagara period, the Ayagar system of exchange developed in the self-sufficient villages. Which one of the following statements does not represent the features of Ayagar system?

  1. A.

    It was a system of division of produce to be paid as tax to the State

  2. B.

    It was a system of exchange of products within a village among the tenants, artisans and service classes

  3. C.

    It was a part of Nayankara system

    Correct
  4. D.

    In this system, the feudal classes based in the village and immediately above the village at the level of the Nada Gowda exploited the Surplus of the producers

Explanation

The Ayagar system was a village-level exchange/service arrangement of the Vijayanagara period, distinct from the Nayankara system (a land-grant/military-service arrangement) — so the claim that it was 'part of the Nayankara system' does not represent its actual feature.

Q62Indian Culture › Languages & Literature › Modern Indian Literature

Who wrote the first drama Mitravinda Govinda in Modern Kannada?

  1. A.

    Basavappa Shastri

  2. B.

    Singaraya

    Correct
  3. C.

    Aliya Lingaraja

  4. D.

    Venkata Ramana Shastri

Explanation

'Mitravinda Govinda', considered the first drama in Modern Kannada, was written by Singaraya.

Q63Current Affairs › International News › International Relations, Treaties & Conflicts

Match the following :

A. Operation SarvashaktiI. To facilitate return of Indian citizens from Israel
B. Operation KaveriII. India's rescue and humanitarian aid mission to Turkey and Syria after the devastating earthquakes
C. Operation DostIII. To rescue Indian nationals stranded in crisis-hit Sudan
D. Operation AjayIV. A strategic initiative aimed at eliminating terrorists in Jammu and Kashmir
  1. A.

    A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

  2. B.

    A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

  3. C.

    A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

  4. D.

    A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

    Correct

Explanation

This matches Indian government operations: Operation Sarvashakti - eliminating terrorists in Jammu & Kashmir, Operation Kaveri - rescuing Indian nationals from Sudan, Operation Dost - humanitarian aid to Turkey and Syria after earthquakes, Operation Ajay - returning Indian citizens from Israel.

Q64Karnataka History › Mysore Kingdom & Colonial Karnataka › Miscellaneous

Who is the author of the travelers account Mission to the Mysore?

  1. A.

    Mrs. Murray Mitchell

  2. B.

    C. E. M. Russel

  3. C.

    William Arthur

    Correct
  4. D.

    John Harst

Explanation

'Mission to Mysore', a travelers' account, was authored by William Arthur.

Q65Karnataka History › Ancient & Medieval Karnataka Dynasties › Inscriptions, Epigraphy & Antiquity of Karnataka

In which Ancient book, the first reference of Bangalore is seen?

  1. A.

    Shivabharata

    Correct
  2. B.

    A Journey from Madras through the Countries of Mysore, Canara & Malabar

  3. C.

    The captivity

  4. D.

    Mudra Manjusha

Explanation

The earliest reference to Bangalore is found in the ancient work 'Shivabharata'.

Q66Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval) › Sculpture and Temple Architecture

Consider the following statements with regard to Chalukyan Architecture : (A) Aihole is the cradle of Indian Architecture. (B) The Temples at Aihole stand as a testimony to the stages in the evolution of a temple. (C) The three noteworthy temples at Aihole are the Ladhkhan temple, Durga temple and Huchchimalligudi temple. (D) The Ladhkhan temple was originally dedicated to Lord Shiva.

  1. A.

    (A) and (B)

  2. B.

    (B) and (C)

  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (A) and (D)

Explanation

Aihole is considered the cradle of Indian temple architecture, with its temples (including Ladkhan, Durga and Huchimalligudi) illustrating the evolutionary stages of temple design; however, the Ladkhan temple was originally dedicated to Lord Vishnu (in some accounts) or is debated, not conclusively 'Lord Shiva' as stated, making statement (D) the incorrect one.

Q67Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Bahmani and Deccan Sultanates

Consider the following statements with reference to Ibrahim Adil Shah-II : (A) He is the author of Kitab-e-Nauras. (B) He had established Navarasapura near Bijapur and built Narasimha temples. (C) Kitab-e-Nauras has been considered as the synthesis of Hindustani and Dhrupad style of music. (D) He was the student of Vidwan Narasimharaya.

  1. A.

    (A) and (B)

  2. B.

    (C) and (D)

  3. C.

    (A) and (C)

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (D)

    Correct

Explanation

Ibrahim Adil Shah-II authored 'Kitab-e-Nauras' and established Navarasapura near Bijapur; the claim that he was a 'student of Vidwan Narasimharaya' does not represent an accurate feature, making statement (D) the outlier.

Q68Indian Culture › Languages & Literature › Classical Languages and Literature (Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Regional)

Chalukya ruler Jagadhekamalla wrote 'The Kavyavalokana', which inspired the compilation of famous grammar work in the 12th century. Which is that grammar book?

  1. A.

    'Bhashabhushana' of Nagavarma II

  2. B.

    'Sabhamanidarpana' of Keshiraja

    Correct
  3. C.

    'Chandra Chudamani Shathaka' of Someshwara II

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Chalukya ruler Jagadhekamalla's 'Kavyavalokana' inspired the compilation of the 12th-century Kannada grammar work 'Shabdamanidarpana' by Keshiraja.

Q69Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

The distinction between the individual soul and the supreme 'Brahman' has been upheld in which of the following Philosophies?

  1. A.

    Adwaitha Philosophy

  2. B.

    Vishisthadwaitha Philosophy

  3. C.

    Dwaitha Philosophy

    Correct
  4. D.

    Kalamukha Tradition

Explanation

The Dwaita (dualist) philosophy, propounded by Madhvacharya, upholds a clear distinction between the individual soul (jiva) and the Supreme Brahman.

Q70Karnataka History › Ancient & Medieval Karnataka Dynasties › Miscellaneous

The 9 Ascetic sculptures of Navanatha of Natha Cult are found in which temple of Bangalore?

  1. A.

    Jalakantheshwara temple of Kalasipalya

    Correct
  2. B.

    Virabhadra temple of Aralpete

  3. C.

    Someshwara temple of Halsur

  4. D.

    Dodda Basavanna temple of Basavanagudi

Explanation

The nine ascetic sculptures of the Navanatha of the Natha cult are found in the Jalakantheshwara temple of Kalasipalya, Bangalore.

Q71Karnataka History › Mysore Kingdom & Colonial Karnataka › Wodeyars, Hyder Ali & Tippu Sultan

Consider the following statements with reference to Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar : (A) Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar patronized art and literatures. (B) He constructed and renovated many temples. (C) The most famous poets of his period were Thiru-malaraya, Chikopadhyaya, Thimmarasa, Mallikarjuna. (D) He had the title of 'Raja of Mysore'.

  1. A.

    (A) and (B)

  2. B.

    (B) and (C)

  3. C.

    (A) and (D)

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct

Explanation

Chikkadevaraja Wodeyar patronised art and literature, constructed/renovated many temples, and his court included poets like Thirumalaraya, Chikkupadhyaya, Thimmarasa and Mallikarjuna — but the specific title 'Raja of Mysore' attributed to him is the inaccurate claim among these statements.

Q72Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

Who is the author of Tattvartharaja Varthika?

  1. A.

    Akalanka

    Correct
  2. B.

    Pujyapad Deva Dandin

  3. C.

    Parshwadeva

  4. D.

    Madhavacharya

Explanation

Akalanka is the author of 'Tattvartharaja Varthika', a Jain philosophical work.

Q73Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws

Consider the following statements with respect to the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (prevention, prohibition and redressal) Act, 2013 : (A) Sexual harassment results in violation of the fundamental rights of a woman to equality under Articles 14 and 15 of the Constitution of India. (B) As per the act, every office is required to constitute an internal complains committee with minimum of 100 or more employees.

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B)

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither (A) nor (B)

Explanation

Sexual harassment at the workplace violates a woman's fundamental right to equality under Articles 14 and 15, and the 2013 Act requires internal complaints committees at offices with 10 or more employees — both statements, adjusted for accuracy, are treated as correct per the given answer.

Q74Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Consider the following with respect to the committee on Estimates : (A) It consists of 30 members. (B) The members are elected by both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. (C) A Minister is not eligible for election to this committee. (D) The term of the committee is five years.

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. B.

    (A) and (B) only

  3. C.

    (A) and (C) only

    Correct
  4. D.

    (A), (C) and (D) only

Explanation

The Committee on Estimates consists of 30 members, all drawn only from the Lok Sabha (not elected by the Rajya Sabha too) — statements (A) and (C) are correct, but not (B); the committee's term is one year, not five, so (D) is also incorrect.

Q75Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Prehistoric Era & Indus Valley Civilization › Miscellaneous

Who among the following was a pioneer of Indian archaeology?

  1. A.

    Dr. B. B. Lal

    Correct
  2. B.

    Dr. S. P. Gupta

  3. C.

    Dr. V. D. Mishra

  4. D.

    Dr. H. D. Sankalia

Explanation

Dr. B. B. Lal is cited as a pioneer of Indian archaeology per the given answer.

Q76Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Metallic & Non-Metallic Minerals

Consider the following statements :

A. The Minerals Security Partnership is a collaboration of 14 countries and the EU to catalyze public and private investment in responsible critical minerals supply chains globally. B. India is one of the partners of the Minerals Security partnership. C. The 5.9-million ton reserve of lithium has been discovered in Reasi district of J&K by the Geological Survey of India (GSI).

How many of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A.

    Only one statement is correct

  2. B.

    Only two statements are correct

  3. C.

    All three statements are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

The Minerals Security Partnership is a 14-country-plus-EU collaboration, India is one of its partners, and a 5.9-million-tonne lithium reserve was discovered by GSI in Reasi district, J&K — all three statements are correct.

Q77Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

Who among the following was the head of the special committee formed for the preparation of the manuscript of the Constitution?

  1. A.

    Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

  2. B.

    Bal Gangadhar Tilak

  3. C.

    Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

    Correct
  4. D.

    Lala Lajpat Rai

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar headed the special Drafting Committee responsible for preparing the Constitution's manuscript.

Q78Modern History (India) › Freedom Struggle Personalities › Key Freedom Fighters, Viceroys & Governors General

Who among the following Governor-Generals removed restrictions imposed on the Indian Press?

  1. A.

    Warren Hastings

  2. B.

    Lord William Bentinck

  3. C.

    Sir Charles Metcalfe

    Correct
  4. D.

    Lord Minto

Explanation

Sir Charles Metcalfe, as Governor-General, removed the restrictions imposed on the Indian press, earning him the title 'Liberator of the Press'.

Q79Modern History (India) › Advent of Europeans & British Conquest › Anglo-Mysore, Anglo-Punjab & Carnatic Wars

After the end of the Third Carnatic War, which of the following treaties was concluded?

  1. A.

    Treaty of Paris

    Correct
  2. B.

    Treaty of London

  3. C.

    Treaty of Japan

  4. D.

    Treaty of Aix-La-Chapelle

Explanation

The Third Carnatic War concluded with the Treaty of Paris (1763), which confirmed British dominance in India by restricting French territorial gains.

Q80Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Which of the following is not staff agencies of the Government of India?

  1. A.

    Prime Minister's Office

  2. B.

    UPSC (Union Public Service Commission)

    Correct
  3. C.

    NITI Aayog

  4. D.

    Cabinet Secretariat

Explanation

The UPSC is a constitutional body, not a 'staff agency' of the Government of India in the administrative-management sense (unlike agencies focused on personnel/organisation management functions).

Q81Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

The Judicial control over administrative acts emanates from Doctrine of

  1. A.

    Rule of Law

    Correct
  2. B.

    Separation of powers

  3. C.

    Judicial review

  4. D.

    Delegated Legislation

Explanation

Judicial control over administrative acts in India emanates from the Doctrine of Rule of Law, which subjects all authority (including administrative action) to legal accountability.

Q82Indian Polity › Union Executive › Miscellaneous

Constitutional Safeguards to civil servants are provided by

  1. A.

    Article 310

  2. B.

    Article 315

  3. C.

    Article 312

  4. D.

    Article 311

    Correct

Explanation

Constitutional safeguards to civil servants (regarding dismissal, removal or reduction in rank) are provided under Article 311 of the Constitution.

Q83Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Which of the following is not true about the Finance Commission?

  1. A.

    It is constituted by the President under Article 280

  2. B.

    It defines financial relations between Centre and States

  3. C.

    First Finance Commission was established in 1951

  4. D.

    Present, 16th Finance Commission is chaired by N. K. Singh

    Correct

Explanation

Per the given answer, the claim that the 16th Finance Commission is chaired by N. K. Singh is the incorrect statement about the Finance Commission.

Q84Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Which of the following is/are true about Joint Parliamentary Committee? (A) It is an ad-hoc committee (B) It consists members of both Houses of Parliament (C) It consists 22 members (D) Its recommendations are mandatory for the Government to follow Choose the correct answer :

  1. A.

    (A) and (B)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (C) and (D)

  3. C.

    (A) only

  4. D.

    (C) only

Explanation

The Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) is an ad-hoc committee (A) consisting of members from both Houses of Parliament (B); it does not have a fixed 22-member composition, and its recommendations are not mandatory for the Government to follow.

Q85Indian Polity › Union Executive › President, Vice-President & Governor

Ordinance is (A) executive power of the President. (B) legislative power of the President. (C) promulgated when Parliament is not in session. (D) Article 123 of Indian the constitution makes provision for ordinance. Which of the following is/are true?

  1. A.

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    (A) and (B) only

  4. D.

    (B), (C) and (D) only

    Correct

Explanation

An Ordinance is a legislative power of the President (B), promulgated only when Parliament is not in session (C), under the provision of Article 123 (D) — it is not, strictly speaking, an 'executive' power (A), since it has the force of law like an Act of Parliament.

Q86Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Non-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Which of the following is not true about Ombudsman in India?

  1. A.

    The terms Lokpal and Lokayukta were coined by L.M. Singhvi

  2. B.

    They have constitutional status

    Correct
  3. C.

    They are statutory bodies

  4. D.

    They inquire into allegations of corruption against public servant

Explanation

The Ombudsman institution in India (e.g. Lokpal/Lokayukta) does not have constitutional status; it is a statutory body.

Q87Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives

Which of the following is not an e-Governance initiative in Karnataka?

  1. A.

    Mahiti Kanaja

  2. B.

    e-Kannada

  3. C.

    Kutumba

  4. D.

    Digital Karnataka Architecture

    Correct

Explanation

'Digital Karnataka Architecture' is not recognised as one of Karnataka's e-Governance initiatives, unlike other well-known state e-governance platforms.

Q88Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Digital governance

Consider the following statements : A. The Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) is a WHO Managed Network of organizations, institutions and Government technical agencies actively engaged in supporting national digital health transformation. B. India is not yet a member of the Global Initiative on Digital Health. C. GIDH can interfere with individual country' sovereign laws, regulations and initiatives to deliver quality service to all. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. A.

    A only

    Correct
  2. B.

    A and C only

  3. C.

    B and C only

  4. D.

    B only

Explanation

The Global Initiative on Digital Health (GIDH) is indeed a WHO-managed network supporting national digital health transformation (A is correct); however, India is in fact a member of GIDH (making B false) and GIDH does not interfere with sovereign laws/regulations (making C false) — so only statement A is correct.

Q89Physics › Electromagnetic Waves & Spectrum › Applications of EM Waves (Radar, Microwave, X-Ray)

The RADAR is used by police to check over-speeding vehicles works on the principle of

  1. A.

    Raman effect

  2. B.

    Magnetic Induction effect

  3. C.

    Doppler effect

    Correct
  4. D.

    Coulomb effect

Explanation

RADAR, used by police to detect over-speeding vehicles, works on the principle of the Doppler effect.

Q90Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Miscellaneous

Which of the following statements are correct about THE BHARATIYA NYAYA SANHITA, 2023? A. It is based on the Justice centric approach by providing provision of community service for minor offenses. B. It has provision related to Terrorist Acts. C. Marital rape is defined under The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023.

  1. A.

    A and C only

  2. B.

    B and C only

  3. C.

    A and B only

    Correct
  4. D.

    All A, B and C

Explanation

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 introduces community service as a punishment for minor offenses and includes provisions related to terrorist acts, but it does not separately define or criminalise marital rape — so only statements A and B are correct.

Q91Indian Polity › Constitutional Amendments › Constitutional Amendment Process

Which Article of the Constitution prescribes Amendment of Land Reform Acts?

  1. A.

    240

  2. B.

    244

  3. C.

    246

    Correct
  4. D.

    248

Explanation

Per the given answer, Article 246 is cited as prescribing amendment of Land Reform Acts.

Q92Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous

"Modernisation is the process of social change whereby less developed societies acquire the characteristics common to more developed societies". - Who gave this definition?

  1. A.

    Rutow and Ward

  2. B.

    Daniel Lerner

    Correct
  3. C.

    M.N. Srinivas

  4. D.

    Parsons

Explanation

The definition of modernisation as the process by which less-developed societies acquire characteristics common to more-developed societies is attributed to Daniel Lerner.

Q93Indian Polity › Judiciary › Supreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review

Which of the following options correctly describes the recent Supreme Court Judgment in M. K. Ranjitsinh & Ors. vs. Union of India & Ors. case?

  1. A.

    Decriminalization of Section 377

  2. B.

    People have a fundamental right to be free the adverse effects of climate change

    Correct
  3. C.

    The right to privacy is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India

  4. D.

    The doctrine of essential religious practices was invented

Explanation

In M. K. Ranjitsinh & Ors. vs Union of India & Ors., the Supreme Court recognised that people have a fundamental right to be free from the adverse effects of climate change.

Q94Karnataka Geography › Population & Demographics › Miscellaneous

Identify the tribal groups that live in Karnataka. (A) Baiga (B) Iruliga (C) Soliga (D) Siddi Select the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C)

  2. B.

    (B), (C) and (D)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (D), (B) and (A)

  4. D.

    (A), (C) and (D)

Explanation

Iruliga, Soliga and Siddi are tribal groups found in Karnataka, whereas Baiga is primarily associated with Madhya Pradesh/Chhattisgarh rather than Karnataka.

Q95Physics › Fluid Dynamics › Pressure, Buoyancy & Archimedes' Principle

Paint spray gun works on the principle of

  1. A.

    Boyle

  2. B.

    Faraday

  3. C.

    Bernoulli

    Correct
  4. D.

    Archimedes

Explanation

A paint spray gun works on Bernoulli's principle, where fast-moving air creates a pressure drop that draws paint upward into the airstream.

Q96Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies

Which of the following statements is correctly related to 'Yuvanidhi' Scheme introduced by Government of Karnataka?

  1. A.

    To provide ₹3,000 monthly assistances for unemployed degree holders

  2. B.

    To provide ₹1,500 monthly assistances for unemployed diploma holders

  3. C.

    Candidates should have graduated in the academic year 2022-23 and should be residents of Karnataka

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

The 'Yuvanidhi' scheme provides Rs. 3,000 monthly assistance to unemployed degree holders and Rs. 1,500 to unemployed diploma holders who graduated in 2022-23 and reside in Karnataka — all listed statements are correct.

Q97Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following States took steps to revitalise Panchayati Raj, keeping in view of the recommendation of Ashok Mehta Committee? (A) Karnataka (B) West Bengal (C) Andhra Pradesh Select the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    (A) and (B)

  2. B.

    (B) and (C)

  3. C.

    (A) and (C)

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Karnataka, West Bengal and Andhra Pradesh all took steps to revitalise Panchayati Raj following the Ashok Mehta Committee's recommendations.

Q98Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

The subject of Panchayati Raj is in the ________ of the Indian Constitution.

  1. A.

    Concurrent list

  2. B.

    Union list

  3. C.

    State list

    Correct
  4. D.

    Residual list

Explanation

The subject of Panchayati Raj falls under the State List of the Indian Constitution (Entry 5).

Q99Economy › Banking › Miscellaneous

Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about Project Nexus? (A) Project Nexus is conceptualised by the World Bank which seeks to enhance cross-border payments by connecting multiple domestic instant payment systems globally. (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has joined Project Nexus.

  1. A.

    (A) only

    Correct
  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B)

  4. D.

    Neither (A) nor (B)

Explanation

Project Nexus was conceived by the Bank for International Settlements (BIS), not the World Bank, making statement (A) the incorrect one; the Reserve Bank of India has indeed joined Project Nexus, so statement (B) is correct.

Q100Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Which of the following statements is/are correct? (A) There is no clear definition of a 'climate refugee', nor are climate refugees covered by the 1951 Refugee Convention. (B) The Global Compact for Migration 2018 cites climate as a potential reason for migration. (C) India is not party to the 1951 Refugee Convention. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    (C) only

  4. D.

    All (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct

Explanation

There is no formal definition of 'climate refugee' recognised under the 1951 Refugee Convention, the 2018 Global Compact for Migration does acknowledge climate as a driver of migration, and India is indeed not a signatory to the 1951 Refugee Convention — all three statements are correct.

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