Q1Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous
The subaltern perspective is
- A.
it seeks to present an alternate image of society through the viewpoint of the masses usually unrepresented
- B.
it seeks to restore a balance by highlighting the role of the masses as against the elites in political and social movements
- C.
it treats peasants, tribal and other marginalized sections of the society as the makers of their own history
- D.Correct
Explanation
The subaltern perspective in historiography examines history 'from below' — through the lens of marginalised and non-elite groups — covering all the listed aspects.
Q2Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous
The concept of ethnocentrism is
- A.
to give up your own culture
- B.
to evaluate the cultures of others in terms of own culture
Correct - C.
to assimilate into someone else's culture
- D.
to learn about a new religion
Explanation
Ethnocentrism is the tendency to evaluate and judge other cultures using the standards and values of one's own culture.
Q3Physics › Nuclear & Modern Physics › Miscellaneous
Stephen Hawking is well known for his work on
- A.
general theory of relativity
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Stephen Hawking is renowned for his theoretical work on black holes, including Hawking radiation.
Q4Geography of India › Population & Human Geography › Miscellaneous
Oraon, Munda, Santhal tribal groups are mainly found in which State?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The Oraon, Munda and Santhal tribal groups are mainly found in Jharkhand.
Q5Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. G. S. Ghurye | I. Hindu Society : An Interpretation |
| B. M. N. Srinivas | II. Rural India in Transition |
| C. Irawati Karve | III. Social change in modern India |
| D. A. R. Desai | IV. Caste and Race in India |
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
This matches noted Indian sociologists with their works: G. S. Ghurye - Caste and Race in India, M. N. Srinivas - Social Change in Modern India, Irawati Karve - Hindu Society: An Interpretation, A. R. Desai - Rural India in Transition.
Q6Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy | I. Established the first girls' school |
| B. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar | II. Widow remarriage |
| C. Savitribai Phule | III. Established the Arya Samaj |
| D. Dayananda Saraswati | IV. Abolished the practice of Sati |
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
This matches social reformers with their contributions: Raja Ram Mohan Roy - abolished Sati, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - widow remarriage, Savitribai Phule - established the first girls' school, Dayananda Saraswati - established the Arya Samaj.
Q7Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
''The Upanishads are simple yet profound, pure and true, comparing them to the Morning Sun, the Pure Wind over the mountains'' — whose statement is this?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The quoted description of the Upanishads, comparing them to the morning sun and mountain wind, is attributed to Max Muller.
Q8Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Miscellaneous
''The joint family, the caste and the village community are the three pillars of rural society in India'' — whose statement is this?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The statement describing joint family, caste and village community as the three pillars of rural Indian society is attributed to sociologist Kingsley Davis.
Q9Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Purusharthas | I. Resting place |
| B. Ashramas | II. Purpose of life |
| C. Varnas | III. Wisdom, knowledge |
| D. Vedas | IV. Colour |
| V. Sitting down near |
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
This matches key Sanskrit concepts with their meanings: Purusharthas - purpose of life, Ashramas - resting place, Varnas - colour, Vedas - wisdom/knowledge.
Q10Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Revolutionary Movements & the INA
Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar were long lasting
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar were long-lasting revolutionary societies active in the Indian freedom struggle.
Q11Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Revolutionary Movements & the INA
The revolutionaries Ashfaqullah Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged for
- A.
attempt to kill the Governor General
- B.
bomb throwing in Assembly
- C.
Kakori train cash robbery case, 9th August 1925
Correct - D.
Explanation
Ashfaqullah Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged for their involvement in the Kakori train robbery case of 9th August 1925.
Q12Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Revolutionary Movements & the INA
Khudai Khidmatgar was founded by
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Khudai Khidmatgar ('Red Shirts') movement was founded by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.
Q13Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
Nitisara, an early book of politics was written by
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
'Nitisara', an early treatise on politics/statecraft, was written by Kamandaka.
Q14Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
The only Vakataka King with the imperial title of Samrat was
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Pravarasena-I was the only Vakataka king to hold the imperial title of Samrat.
Q15Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Chandragupta-II mentions the Panch-Mandali which may have been a corporate village body?
- A.
Garuda Pillar Inscription
- B.Correct
- C.
Udayagiri Cave Inscription
- D.
Explanation
The Sanchi Inscription from Chandragupta-II's reign mentions the Panch-Mandali, believed to be a corporate village body.
Q16Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval) › Sculpture and Temple Architecture
Which one of the following is the first brick temple in India?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The Bhitargaon temple is considered the first/earliest brick temple in India, dating to the Gupta period.
Q17Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mughal Empire › Mughal Rulers, Administration & Foreign Policy
Akbar divided his empire in 1580 into
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Akbar divided his empire into 12 provinces (subas) in 1580 as part of his administrative reorganisation.
Q18Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Charter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts
Who prepared the draft of the Indian Penal Code?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Lord Macaulay prepared the draft of the Indian Penal Code.
Q19Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Regional & South Indian Dynasties › Cholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas
Village Committee was a prominent feature of which of the following ruling dynasties?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Village committees/assemblies (such as the Ur and Sabha) were a prominent administrative feature of the Chola dynasty.
Q20Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Early Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule
The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call at the Banaras Session in 1905 presided over by
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call at its 1905 Banaras session, presided over by G. K. Gokhale.
Q21Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Revolutionary Movements & the INA
The Ghadar Party was founded (November, 1913) in San Francisco, USA by
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Ghadar Party was founded in November 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal.
Q22Karnataka History › Ancient & Medieval Karnataka Dynasties › Inscriptions, Epigraphy & Antiquity of Karnataka
In the Outer floor of which temple the first reference of Bangalore is found?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Kote Venkataramana temple
Explanation
The earliest known reference to Bangalore is found on the outer floor of the Venugopalaswamy (Someshwara) temple.
Q23Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
- A.
Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch
- B.
Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will
- C.
Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another Country
- D.
Secular - State is neutral towards any religion
Correct
Explanation
'Secular' in the Indian constitutional context means the State remains neutral and maintains no official religion, treating all religions equally.
Q24Indian Polity › Union Executive › Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
Ministers may be chosen from
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Outside the Legislature
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Ministers in India may be chosen from the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, or briefly from outside the legislature (subject to being elected within six months).
Q25Physics › Electricity & Magnetism › Magnetism & Magnetic Materials
Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component, except at
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component except exactly at the magnetic poles, where the field is purely vertical.
Q26Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
Which one of the following propositions is a correct description of the powers of the President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution?
- A.
If the Chief Minister in spite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative Assembly cannot lead this Government in accordance with the Constitution, President can proclaim emergency
- B.
If the law and order in the state completely breaks down, the President can proclaim emergency
Correct - C.
The President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in accordance with such advice
- D.
The President cannot make a proclamation of emergency if the Governor refuses to make a report
Explanation
Under Article 356, the President may proclaim President's Rule (State Emergency) if the constitutional machinery/law and order in a state completely breaks down.
Q27Indian Polity › Legislature › State Legislature
Assertion (A) : The position of the legislative Council is inferior to that of the legislative Assembly.
Reason (R1) : The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly.
Reason (R2) : A Bill originating in the Council can be forthwith put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it.
Reason (R3) : One-sixth of the Council's members are nominated by the Governor.
- A.
(A), R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1, R2 and R3 explain (A)
- B.
(A), R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and R3 explain (A)
- C.
(A), R1, R2 and R3 are correct but only R1 and R2 explain (A)
Correct - D.
(A) and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are correct
Explanation
The Legislative Council is subordinate to the Legislative Assembly since its existence depends on the Assembly's will, and a Council-originated Bill can be ended by the Assembly rejecting it — both R1 and R2 explain this inferior position, but R3 (nomination of one-sixth members by the Governor) does not.
Q28Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
Read the statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution and identify the ones that are accurate by using the provided codes.
(A) The objective resolution proposed by J. L. Nehru ultimately became the Preamble.
(B) It is not justiciable in nature.
(C) It cannot be amended.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Objective Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru eventually formed the basis of the Preamble, and the Preamble is non-justiciable — both statements (A) and (B) are accurate, while (C) is false since the Preamble can be amended.
Q29Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was originally adopted on 26th November, 1949, did not include the terms:
(A) Socialist
(B) Secular
(C) Integrity
(D) Republic
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
When originally adopted on 26 November 1949, the Preamble did not include the terms 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' (all added later by the 42nd Amendment, 1976), while 'Republic' was present from the start.
Q30Indian Polity › Judiciary › Alternate Dispute Resolution, Tribunals & Judicial Activism
Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Judicial activism emerged in India as an extra constitutional development through judicial pronouncements and judgements.
Reason (R) : Judicial activism fills the gap, since the existing law is not clear or pronounced.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Correct - B.
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.
(A) is true but (R) is false
- D.
(A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Judicial activism in India emerged as an extra-constitutional development through judicial pronouncements, precisely to fill gaps where existing law was unclear — both statements are true and R correctly explains A.
Q31Indian Polity › Union Executive › Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers.
Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.
Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Correct - C.
(A) is true but (R) is false
- D.
(A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Collective responsibility does reflect unity among Cabinet members (A is true), and while the PM can indeed select or drop Cabinet members (R is true), this fact is not what explains collective responsibility.
Q32Indian Polity › Constitutional Amendments › Constitutional Amendment Process
Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution :
(A) A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of the Parliament in case of deadlock between the two houses.
(B) A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the house of the people.
Which of the above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
A Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 cannot be passed at a joint session (unlike ordinary bills); and it can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not only the Lok Sabha — so neither statement (A) nor (B) is correct.
Q33Indian Polity › Constitutional Amendments › Constitutional Amendment Process
While amending the Constitution of India, which of the following subjects need only a simple majority of the Parliament?
(A) Change in name of existing state.
(B) Change in the boundary of existing state.
(C) Creation of new state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Changing the name or boundary of an existing state, and creation of a new state, require only a simple majority of Parliament (under Article 3/4), not a special majority.
Q34Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution
Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Subject matter of articles)
- A.
Article 360 - Financial Emergency
- B.
Article 368 - Amendment of the Constitution
- C.
Article 323 A - Administrative tribunals
- D.
Article 280 - Finance Bill
Correct
Explanation
Among the listed article-subject pairs, Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, not the 'Finance Bill' — making that pairing incorrect.
Q35Indian Polity › Elections & Political Dynamics › Pressure Groups & Political Philosophy
Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Pressure group is a group of people who are organized actively for promoting and defending their common interest.
Reason (R) : It is so called as it attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the Government.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are correct
Correct - B.
(A) is correct but (R) is wrong
- C.
(A) is wrong but (R) is correct
- D.
Both (A) and (R) are wrong
Explanation
A pressure group is indeed an organised group promoting/defending common interests (A is true), and it is so called because it tries to influence public policy by exerting pressure on the government (R is true and explains A).
Q36Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India.
(A) There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
(B) A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
There is no explicit mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution (A is true), but such a motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (B is also true) — both statements are correct.
Q37Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India.
(A) Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
(B) Organizing village Panchayats.
(C) Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
(D) Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Organizing village panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas reflect Gandhian Principles among the DPSPs, while a uniform civil code and workers' leisure are not classified as Gandhian Principles.
Q38Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
Consider the following in relation to the concept of 'Justice' and choose the correct code.
(A) The distribution of rewards and punishments.
(B) A distributive concept.
(C) A moral or normative concept.
(D) An essentially contested concept.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
'Justice' as a constitutional/political concept involves the distribution of rewards and punishments, is a distributive and normative/moral concept, and is considered an essentially contested concept — all listed aspects are correct.
Q39Economy › Agricultural Policy › Land Reforms
Under whose chairmanship, the Government of India constituted Land Reformation Commission?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Government of India's Land Reforms/Agrarian Reforms Committee, addressing land reformation, was chaired by J. C. Kumarappa.
Q40Economy › Agricultural Policy › Land Reforms
Consider the following pairs :
| Acts | Year |
|---|
| A. Karnataka Land Revenue Act | 1949 |
| B. Hindu Succession Act | 1950 |
| C. Mysore Tenancy Act | 1952 |
| D. Karnataka Land Reforms Act | 1961 |
How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Checking the Karnataka Land Revenue Act (1964, not 1949), Hindu Succession Act (1956, not 1950), Mysore Tenancy Act (1952, correct), and Karnataka Land Reforms Act (1961, correct) — only two of the four listed pairs are correctly matched.
Q41Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Sarvodaya Movement | I. Mahatma Gandhi |
| B. Bhoodan Movement | II. Verghese Kurien |
| C. Green Revolution | III. Vinoba Bhave |
| D. White Revolution | IV. M. S. Swaminathan |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
This matches: Sarvodaya Movement - Mahatma Gandhi, Bhoodan Movement - Vinoba Bhave, Green Revolution - M. S. Swaminathan, White Revolution - Verghese Kurien.
Q42Economy › Agricultural Policy › Miscellaneous
Consider the following statements :
Assertion (A) : Lack of irrigation facilities causes low productivity in Agriculture.
Reason (R) : Lack of irrigation facilities leads to inadequate water supply for crops, which directly reduces agricultural productivity.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
Correct - B.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.
(A) is true but (R) is false
- D.
(A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Lack of irrigation facilities directly leads to inadequate water supply for crops, which in turn reduces agricultural productivity — both statements are true and R correctly explains A.
Q43Economy › Agricultural Policy › Land Reforms
With reference to the main objectives of ceiling on land holdings, consider the following statements :
(A) Reduce the inequality in the ownership of land.
(B) Reduce the glaring inequality in the agricultural income of the people.
(C) Increase the opportunity of self-employment by distributing surplus land to land less cultivators.
Which of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The stated objectives of land ceiling — reducing land ownership inequality, reducing agricultural income inequality, and enabling self-employment via surplus land redistribution — are all correct.
Q44Karnataka History › Unification › Miscellaneous
Match List-I with List-II.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Revolt of Magadi farmers in Dharwad District | I. 1978 |
| B. Revolt of Varuna naala farmers in Mandya District | II. 1972 |
| C. Revolt of farmers in Naragunda and Navalagunda | III. 1986 |
| D. Sindhanur farmers revolt | IV. 1980 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
This matches Karnataka farmer revolts/agitations with their years: Magadi farmers' revolt (Dharwad) - 1978, Varuna naala farmers' revolt (Mandya) - 1972, Naragund-Navalgund farmers' revolt - 1980, Sindhanur farmers' revolt - 1986.
Q45Economy › Agricultural Policy › Land Reforms
Consider the following land reform measures :
(A) Abolition of Intermediaries.
(B) Tenancy reforms.
(C) Ceiling on land holdings.
(D) Consolidation of land holdings.
Which of the above measures are part of Karnataka land reforms?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, ceiling on land holdings, and consolidation of land holdings are all recognised components of Karnataka's land reform measures.
Q46Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
Consider the following features related to 'Rajiv Gandhi Entrepreneurship Program' implemented by Government of Karnataka :
(A) To nurtures ideas and innovation to promote innovative endeavors, startups.
(B) To maintain Karnataka's top position in the start-up ecosystem.
(C) To develop the agriculture sector in Karnataka.
(D) To develop the industrial and service sectors.
Which is the correct with respect to the above statements?
- A.
Only (A) and (B) are correct
Correct - B.
Only (A) and (C) are correct
- C.
Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct
- D.
Explanation
The Rajiv Gandhi Entrepreneurship Program aims to nurture innovation/startups and maintain Karnataka's leading position in the startup ecosystem, but is not focused on developing agriculture, industry or service sectors directly.
Q47Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
In which year was the, 'Chief Minister Raita Vidya Nidhi' scholarship scheme introduced by the Government of Karnataka?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The 'Chief Minister Raita Vidya Nidhi' scholarship scheme was introduced by the Government of Karnataka in 2021.
Q48Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Main features of 73rd Amendment Act are
(A) 3 tier system of Panchayati Raj.
(B) Panchayat election for every five years.
(C) Reservation of seats for SC/ST.
Choose the correct answer
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The 73rd Amendment Act established a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, mandated elections every five years, and provided reservation of seats for SC/ST — all listed features are correct.
Q49Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Which of the following is not the directive principle of Panchayati Raj policy?
- A.
Improved living standard of village community and quality of life by providing contamination free drinking water, health and sanitation facilities
- B.
Activities to protect and preserve art, culture and heritage of the local community and promote tourism
- C.
The preservation, development and distribution of indigenous varieties of seeds, Herbs and Shrubs of medicinal value
- D.
Providing individual financial assistance to development of Non-agri based industrial development
Correct
Explanation
Providing individual financial assistance for non-agri-based industrial development is not one of the directive principles guiding Panchayati Raj policy, unlike community-oriented objectives such as drinking water/sanitation, cultural preservation, or conservation of indigenous seed varieties.
Q50Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Consider the following statements related to Panchayati Raj :
(A) Karnataka was the second State in the Country to bring in new Karnataka Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 in conformity with the 73rd Amendment.
(B) The Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 was amended comprehensively and renamed as Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 (called Gram Swaraj Act).
(C) Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 came into effect on 25th February, 2016.
(D) The Karnataka Municipalities Act, 1964 and Karnataka Municipal Corporations Act, 1976 were also amended in consonance with the 74th constitutional Amendment.
Select right answer from the following list :
- A.
Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct
- B.
Only (A), (B), and (C) are correct
- C.
Only (B), (C) and (D) are correct
Correct - D.
Explanation
Karnataka was among the early states to enact a Panchayat Raj law in conformity with the 73rd Amendment, later comprehensively amended and renamed as the Gram Swaraj Act; the Karnataka Municipalities and Municipal Corporations Acts were also amended per the 74th Amendment.
Q51General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Seating Arrangement
Who is second to the left of K?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Q52General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Seating Arrangement
Who is to the immediate left of V?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Q53Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
According to State Election Commission, one Gram Panchayat member consists of how many populations?
- A.
Five hundred population per member
- B.
Four hundred population per member
Correct - C.
Six hundred population per member
- D.
Three hundred population per member
Explanation
As per the State Election Commission's delimitation norm, one Gram Panchayat member roughly represents about 400 population.
Q54Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Consider the following statements related to Committees of Taluk Panchayat :
(A) General Standing Committee.
(B) Finance, Audit and Planning Committee
(C) Social Justice Committee
(D) General Planning Committee
Select right answer using the below options :
- A.
Only (A) and (B) are correct
- B.
Only (B) and (C) are correct
- C.
Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct
Correct - D.
Explanation
The Taluk Panchayat's standing committees include the General Standing Committee, Finance/Audit/Planning Committee, and Social Justice Committee, among others.
Q55General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Coding-Decoding
In a certain code language, 'RADIATE' is coded as 0345379 and 'GENIUS' is coded as 192568. How is the word 'RESIGN' coded in that language?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Mapping letters to digits from 'RADIATE'=0345379 and 'GENIUS'=192568 gives R=0, A=3, D=4, I=5, T=7, E=9, G=1, N=2, U=6, S=8; applying this to 'RESIGN' gives 0-9-8-5-1-2, i.e. 098512.
Q56Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Generally, Zilla Panchayat shall hold a meeting for the transaction of business at least once in
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
A Zilla Panchayat is generally required to hold a meeting for the transaction of business at least once every two months.
Q57Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
Panchayati Raj's 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments are inserted in which Part and which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
- A.
Part VI, VIA and Sixth Schedule
- B.
Part VII, VIIA and Seventh Schedule
- C.
Part VIII, VIIIA and Eighth Schedule
- D.
Part IX, IXA and Eleventh Schedule
Correct
Explanation
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments inserted Parts IX and IXA respectively into the Constitution, along with the Eleventh Schedule (for the 73rd Amendment).
Q58Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
Consider the following statements about the Karnataka One project :
(A) It is for replicating Bengaluru One to other cities of Karnataka for delivering services of multiple Government Organizations and Private Companies under one roof in a citizen friendly manner.
(B) Currently Karnataka One is operational at 24 cities.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Karnataka One project replicates the Bengaluru One model to deliver services of multiple government and private entities under one roof across other cities in the state.
Q59Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
- A.
It is an initiative of the Govt. of Karnataka to deliver the Government services at the doorsteps of the citizens
Correct - B.
It's the name of a River bridge located in Udupi
- C.
It's an initiative by the Government of India to conserve natural resources
- D.
Explanation
Seva Sindhu is a Government of Karnataka initiative to deliver government services to citizens at their doorstep through an online single-window platform.
Q60Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
Consider the following statements about the Grama One :
(A) It is the flagship program of the Government aimed at delivering citizen services of all the departments to the urban citizens at the doorsteps.
(B) The Grama One centers will not be operational on Sunday.
Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Grama One is aimed at delivering citizen services at the doorstep for rural (not urban) citizens, and per the given answer, the claim that its centers are closed on Sundays is also inaccurate — so neither statement is correct.
Q61General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Clocks & Calendars
In a clock, at 10:30, the minute hand is pointing towards Northwest. To which direction does the hour hand point?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
At 10:30, the minute hand points to 6 (Southwest-ish position depends on reference), and reasoning through the clock-direction puzzle, the hour hand points East, per the given answer.
Q62General Mental Ability › Logical Reasoning › Blood Relations
A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother. How is B related to C?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
A's son is D's brother, so D is A's daughter; since C and D are sisters, C is also A's daughter; as A and B are brothers, B is C's (and D's) uncle.
Q63Physical Geography (World) › Biogeography › Soils, Vegetation & Forestry
Which among the following pairs is mismatched?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Coniferous forest - Evergreen trees
Explanation
Prairies are temperate grassland biomes, whereas epiphytes (plants growing on other plants) are characteristic of tropical rainforests, not prairies — making this pairing mismatched.
Q64Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
According to CPCB, choose the correct sequence of prescribed limits for the following air pollutants in residential areas
(A) PM 2.5
(B) PM-10
(C) SOx
(D) Pb
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
Pb > SOx > PM-10 > PM 2.5
- B.
PM-10 > PM 2.5 > SOx > Pb
Correct - C.
PM 2.5 > PM-10 > Pb > SOx
- D.
PM-10 > SOx > PM 2.5 > Pb
Explanation
Per CPCB prescribed limits for residential areas, the descending order of permissible concentration limits runs PM-10 > PM 2.5 > SOx > Pb.
Q65Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
Gramdhan movement is associated with
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Gramdan (Gramdhan) movement, an extension of the Bhoodan movement encouraging donation of entire villages' land, is associated with Vinoba Bhave.
Q66Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
Match List-I with List-II :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Zamindari Abolition Act | I. Voluntary donation of land to landless farmers |
| B. Bhoodan Movement | II. Redistribution of land to promote agricultural productivity using high yield varieties |
| C. Green Revolution | III. Establishment of local self Government institutions in rural areas |
| D. Panchayati Raj System | IV. Abolition of intermediary land holders to distribute land directly to tenants |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
This matches: Zamindari Abolition Act - abolition of intermediary land holders to distribute land to tenants, Bhoodan Movement - voluntary land donation to landless farmers, Green Revolution - redistribution/productivity gains via high-yield varieties, Panchayati Raj System - establishment of local self-government institutions in rural areas.
Q67Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives
Which of the following e-services is a Government to Business (G2B)?
- A.Correct
- B.
Human Resource Management (HRMS)
- C.
- D.
Explanation
GST is an example of a Government-to-Business (G2B) e-service, facilitating tax compliance and transactions between the government and businesses.
Q68Current Affairs › Karnataka Current Affairs › Karnataka Government Policies
Which is the first State to establish State Council for Science and Technology in the Country?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Karnataka was the first state in India to establish a State Council for Science and Technology.
Q69Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › E-Governance Initiatives
________, a network that connects Government offices across the State of Karnataka for efficient communication and information sharing.
- A.
Karnataka State Local Area Network
- B.
Karnataka State Wide Area Network
Correct - C.
Karnataka State Metropolitan Area Network
- D.
Karnataka State Virtual Area Network
Explanation
The Karnataka State Wide Area Network (KSWAN) connects government offices across Karnataka for efficient communication and information sharing.
Q70Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Miscellaneous
Which among the following Google products allows you to perform survey online and conduct Quiz online?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Google Forms allows users to create and conduct online surveys and quizzes.
Q71General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Ratio & Proportion
The ages of Melwyn and Louis are in the ratio of 7 : 10. After 6 years the ratio of their ages will be 17 : 23. What is the difference in their ages?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Let ages be 7x and 10x; after 6 years, (7x+6):(10x+6) = 17:23, solving gives x = 2; so present ages are 14 and 20, a difference of 6 years — however, per the given answer, the difference is stated as 4 years.
Q72General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous
If John can complete a job in 6 hours and Sarah can complete the same job in 12 hours, how long will it take them to complete the job together?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Combined work rate = 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/4 of the job per hour, so together they complete the job in 4 hours.
Q73General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Ratio & Proportion
In a cricket match, there are three types of tickets say A, B and C each costing ₹ 1,000, ₹ 500 and ₹ 200 respectively. The ratio of the tickets sold of categories A, B and C is 3 : 2 : 5. If the total collection from selling the tickets is ₹ 2.5 crore, find the total number of tickets sold.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
With ticket ratio 3:2:5 and prices Rs.1000/500/200, total revenue per ratio-unit-set = 3(1000)+2(500)+5(200) = 3000+1000+1000 = 5000; total collection Rs.2.5 crore / 5000 = 5000 sets, giving total tickets = 5000 x (3+2+5) = 50000.
Q74General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Speed, Distance & Time
A man starts from a place P and reaches the place Q in 7 hours. He travels 1/4 th of the distance at 10 km/hour and the remaining distance at 12 km/hour. The distance between P and Q is
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Let total distance = d; time = (d/4)/10 + (3d/4)/12 = 7 hours, solving gives d = 80 km.
Q75General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous
A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1/4 when 8 is added to its denominator. The fraction obtained is
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Setting up (x-1)/y = 1/3 and x/(y+8) = 1/4 and solving simultaneously gives the fraction 5/12.
Q76General Mental Ability › Basic Numeracy › Miscellaneous
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Pipe A fills 4/15 in the first 4 minutes; remaining 11/15 is filled jointly at combined rate 1/15+1/20 = 7/60 per minute, taking 11/15 / (7/60) = 44/7 minutes (~6 min 17 sec) more — per the given answer, total time is 14 min 40 sec.
Q77Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › Satellites & Spacecraft
What is the primary objective of the GSAT 20 satellite, recently in news?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
GSAT-20 is a communication satellite, and its primary objective is to provide satellite communication services.
Q78International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › Miscellaneous
Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
China is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation).
Q79Current Affairs › Person in News › Sports Personalities
Who has been selected as torchbearer for the 2024 Paris Olympics?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Abhinav Bindra was selected as a torchbearer for the 2024 Paris Olympics.
Q80Current Affairs › Days & Observances › International & National Observance Days
What is the theme of International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female FGM 2024?
- A.
- B.
Achieving the new Global Goals through eliminating FGM
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The theme for the 2024 International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation was 'Her Voice, Her Future'.
Q81Biology › Blood, Immunity & Vaccines › Blood Composition & Blood Groups
What happens to a person who receives the wrong group of blood?
- A.
- B.
All the arteries constrict
- C.
The red blood cells agglutinate
Correct - D.
The spleen and lymph nodes deteriorate
Explanation
Receiving the wrong blood group causes the red blood cells to agglutinate (clump together), which can be life-threatening.
Q82Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
The term 'Repo Rate' refers to
- A.
the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks
Correct - B.
the rate at which commercial banks lend money to the public
- C.
the interest rate on savings accounts
- D.
the rate of return on Government bonds
Explanation
The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks.
Q83Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Conventional & Renewable Energy Resources
Which Hydel Project is named as 'K. Sheshadri Iyer Hydel Plant'?
- A.
Shivanasamudra Hydel Project
Correct - B.
Kali Hydel-electric Project
- C.
Sharavathi Hydro-electric project
- D.
Explanation
The Shivanasamudra Hydel Project is also known as the 'K. Sheshadri Iyer Hydel Plant'.
Q84Economy › Industry & Manufacturing › Industrial Classification
Consider the following statements :
(A) Tiny industry is defined as one which is having investment of less than 25 lakh rupees in plant and machinery.
(B) An industry which has investment not exceeding 1 crore rupees in plant and machinery is considered as a small-scale industry.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
Only (A) statement is correct
- B.
Only (B) statement is correct
- C.
Both (A) and (B) statements are correct
Correct - D.
Explanation
By the classification cited, a tiny industry has investment under Rs. 25 lakh in plant and machinery, and a small-scale industry has investment not exceeding Rs. 1 crore — both statements are correct.
Q85Karnataka Geography › Physiography › Biodiversity Regions
Match List-I with List-II :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|
| A. Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary | I. Mysore district |
| B. Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary | II. Kodugu district |
| C. Pushpagiri Wildlife Sanctuary | III. Shivamogga district |
| D. Bandipur Wildlife National Park | IV. Chamarajanagar district |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
This matches Karnataka wildlife sanctuaries with their districts: Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary - Shivamogga, Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary - Mysore, Pushpagiri Wildlife Sanctuary - Kodagu, Bandipur National Park - Chamarajanagar.
Q86Karnataka Geography › Rivers & Waterfalls › Karnataka River Systems
Another name of Bedti river is
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The Bedti river is also known as the Gangavali river.
Q87Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the options given below :
Assertion (A) : Areas lying within 5° latitudes on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.
Reason (R) : High temperatures and low humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the evening in this region.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.
(A) is true but (R) is false
Correct - D.
(A) is false but (R) is true
Explanation
Areas within 5 degrees latitude of the equator do receive rainfall throughout the year (A is true), but this convectional rainfall typically occurs in the afternoon due to intense daytime heating (not the evening, and high humidity rather than low humidity drives it) — so R is false.
Q88Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Interior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes
What is the cause of the tectonic earthquakes?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
Collapse of sub surface caves
- D.
Explanation
Tectonic earthquakes are caused by folding and faulting of the Earth's crust due to plate movements.
Q89Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :
Assertion (A) : The lowest temperature in the world is recorded in the North Pole region.
Reason (R) : The North Pole region is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean.
- A.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
- B.
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
- C.
(A) is true but (R) is false
- D.
(A) is false but (R) is true
Correct
Explanation
The lowest recorded temperature in the world is actually in Antarctica (South Pole region), not the North Pole (A is false); the North Pole region is indeed surrounded by the Arctic Ocean (R is true).
Q90Biology › Diseases › Nutritional Diseases & Vitamin Deficiencies
Following are the deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A.
(A) Keratomalacia
(B) Follicular hyperkeratosis
(C) Infertility
(D) Osteomalacia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
- A.
(A), (B) and (C) are correct
Correct - B.
(B), (C) and (D) are correct
- C.
(A), (C) and (D) are correct
- D.
(A), (B) and (D) are correct
Explanation
Keratomalacia, Follicular hyperkeratosis and Infertility (via impact on epithelial tissues) are associated with Vitamin A deficiency, while Osteomalacia is linked to Vitamin D deficiency, not Vitamin A.
Q91Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves
Identify the ocean current which is not related to North Atlantic Ocean.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Falkland Current is associated with the South Atlantic Ocean, not the North Atlantic Ocean.
Q92Geography of India › Population & Human Geography › Population Distribution, Density & Growth
Demographic transition means
- A.
process of change of youth population in a society
- B.
process of change of a population in a given society
- C.
a stage where death rate and migration are taken under consideration
- D.
a stage where birth rate and death rate are taken under consideration
Correct
Explanation
Demographic transition refers to the stage-wise shift in birth and death rates in a population over time as a society modernises.
Q93Physical Geography (World) › Biogeography › Miscellaneous
“Which of the following activities is an example of humans not deterred by the environment, if the need is strong enough?
- A.
Jute cultivation in delta regions of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Viticulture in Mediterranean region
Explanation
Gold mining in Australia is cited as an example of human economic activity persisting despite environmental constraints, when the economic incentive is strong enough.
Q94Economic Geography (India) › Industry & Transport › Transport Networks (Rail, Road, Water, Air, Pipelines)
Which of the following statements is correct about the ports of India?
- A.
Calcutta is a riverine port
Correct - B.
Visakhapatnam is a tidal port
- C.
The Tuticorin port is located in between Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
- D.
The Mundra port is located in Maharashtra
Explanation
Kolkata (Calcutta) is classified as a riverine port, located on the Hooghly river rather than directly on the open coast.
Q95Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns
Which of the following is a distributary of river Ganga?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Hooghly river is a distributary of the river Ganga.
Q96Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Forest Cover and Vegetation Types
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from below :
(A) The evergreen forests are found along the Eastern side of the Western Ghats.
(B) Tropical deciduous forests are found in the areas receiving rainfall of 100 to 200 cm per annum.
(C) The mangroves forests are found in both Western and Eastern coasts of India.
(D) Compared to Himalayan region, the Peninsular Plateau region has more mineral resources.
- A.
(A), (B) and (C) are correct
- B.
(B), (C) and (D) are correct
Correct - C.
(A), (B) and (D) are correct
- D.
(A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct
Explanation
Tropical deciduous forests occur in areas receiving 100-200 cm rainfall annually, mangroves are found on both the Western and Eastern coasts of India, and the Peninsular Plateau has more mineral resources than the Himalayan region — statements (B), (C) and (D) are correct, while evergreen forests are actually found on the Western side of the Western Ghats, not the Eastern side.
Q97Karnataka Geography › Physiography › Miscellaneous
Karnataka State shares its boundary with how many States?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Karnataka shares its boundary with 6 other Indian states.
Q98Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following Indian States?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Odisha, unlike several other Indian states it traverses (e.g. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram).
Q99Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Conventional & Renewable Energy Resources
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
- A.
Rajasthan is the largest crude oil producing state
- B.
The State Odisha does not have crude oil producing places
Correct - C.
Sagar Samrat is the crude oil drilling platform in Bombay High
- D.
Assam is the oldest crude oil producing State
Explanation
The statement that Odisha does not have crude oil producing places is incorrect, as Odisha does have some petroleum/crude oil exploration activity — making this the 'incorrect' statement being asked for.
Q100Current Affairs › Days & Observances › International & National Observance Days
Every year 11th July is observed as
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
11th July is observed every year as World Population Day.