KPSC PDO (KK) 2024 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Modern History (India), Physics, Geography of India, Indian Culture, Ancient & Medieval History (India), Karnataka History, Indian Polity, Economy, Current Affairs, General Mental Ability, Physical Geography (World), Environment, Applied Science & Technology, International Relations, Biology, Economic Geography (India), Karnataka Geography.

Questions
100 questions
Duration
90 minutes
Marking
+1.000 / −0.250
Q1Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsMiscellaneous

The subaltern perspective is

  1. A.

    it seeks to present an alternate image of society through the viewpoint of the masses usually unrepresented

  2. B.

    it seeks to restore a balance by highlighting the role of the masses as against the elites in political and social movements

  3. C.

    it treats peasants, tribal and other marginalized sections of the society as the makers of their own history

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

The subaltern perspective in historiography examines history 'from below' — through the lens of marginalised and non-elite groups — covering all the listed aspects.

Q2Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsMiscellaneous

The concept of ethnocentrism is

  1. A.

    to give up your own culture

  2. B.

    to evaluate the cultures of others in terms of own culture

    Correct
  3. C.

    to assimilate into someone else's culture

  4. D.

    to learn about a new religion

Explanation

Ethnocentrism is the tendency to evaluate and judge other cultures using the standards and values of one's own culture.

Q3PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsMiscellaneous

Stephen Hawking is well known for his work on

  1. A.

    general theory of relativity

  2. B.

    quantum theory

  3. C.

    white dwarfs

  4. D.

    black holes

    Correct

Explanation

Stephen Hawking is renowned for his theoretical work on black holes, including Hawking radiation.

Q4Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyMiscellaneous

Oraon, Munda, Santhal tribal groups are mainly found in which State?

  1. A.

    Assam

  2. B.

    Madhya Pradesh

  3. C.

    Jharkhand

    Correct
  4. D.

    Chhattisgarh

Explanation

The Oraon, Munda and Santhal tribal groups are mainly found in Jharkhand.

Q5Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsMiscellaneous

Match List-I with List-II.

List-IList-II
A. G. S. GhuryeI. Hindu Society : An Interpretation
B. M. N. SrinivasII. Rural India in Transition
C. Irawati KarveIII. Social change in modern India
D. A. R. DesaiIV. Caste and Race in India
  1. A.

    IV III I II

    Correct
  2. B.

    I IV III II

  3. C.

    III II IV I

  4. D.

    II I IV III

Explanation

This matches noted Indian sociologists with their works: G. S. Ghurye - Caste and Race in India, M. N. Srinivas - Social Change in Modern India, Irawati Karve - Hindu Society: An Interpretation, A. R. Desai - Rural India in Transition.

Q6Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-IList-II
A. Raja Ram Mohan RoyI. Established the first girls' school
B. Ishwar Chandra VidyasagarII. Widow remarriage
C. Savitribai PhuleIII. Established the Arya Samaj
D. Dayananda SaraswatiIV. Abolished the practice of Sati
  1. A.

    II IV III I

  2. B.

    IV II I III

    Correct
  3. C.

    I IV II III

  4. D.

    II I III IV

Explanation

This matches social reformers with their contributions: Raja Ram Mohan Roy - abolished Sati, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - widow remarriage, Savitribai Phule - established the first girls' school, Dayananda Saraswati - established the Arya Samaj.

Q7Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

''The Upanishads are simple yet profound, pure and true, comparing them to the Morning Sun, the Pure Wind over the mountains'' — whose statement is this?

  1. A.

    Max Muller

    Correct
  2. B.

    Karl Marx

  3. C.

    Hegel

  4. D.

    None of them

Explanation

The quoted description of the Upanishads, comparing them to the morning sun and mountain wind, is attributed to Max Muller.

Q8Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsMiscellaneous

''The joint family, the caste and the village community are the three pillars of rural society in India'' — whose statement is this?

  1. A.

    R. N. Sharma

  2. B.

    Dr. Iravati Karve

  3. C.

    K. M. Kapadia

  4. D.

    K. Davis

    Correct

Explanation

The statement describing joint family, caste and village community as the three pillars of rural Indian society is attributed to sociologist Kingsley Davis.

Q9Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

Match List-I with List-II.

List-IList-II
A. PurusharthasI. Resting place
B. AshramasII. Purpose of life
C. VarnasIII. Wisdom, knowledge
D. VedasIV. Colour
V. Sitting down near
  1. A.

    II I IV III

    Correct
  2. B.

    I II III IV

  3. C.

    III IV I II

  4. D.

    I II IV III

Explanation

This matches key Sanskrit concepts with their meanings: Purusharthas - purpose of life, Ashramas - resting place, Varnas - colour, Vedas - wisdom/knowledge.

Q10Modern History (India)Indian National MovementRevolutionary Movements & the INA

Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar were long lasting

  1. A.

    Social Organizations

  2. B.

    Revolutionary societies

    Correct
  3. C.

    Religious Groups

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Anushilan Samiti and Yugantar were long-lasting revolutionary societies active in the Indian freedom struggle.

Q11Modern History (India)Indian National MovementRevolutionary Movements & the INA

The revolutionaries Ashfaqullah Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged for

  1. A.

    attempt to kill the Governor General

  2. B.

    bomb throwing in Assembly

  3. C.

    Kakori train cash robbery case, 9th August 1925

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Ashfaqullah Khan, Ramprasad Bismil, Roshan Singh and Rajendra Lahiri were hanged for their involvement in the Kakori train robbery case of 9th August 1925.

Q12Modern History (India)Indian National MovementRevolutionary Movements & the INA

Khudai Khidmatgar was founded by

  1. A.

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

    Correct
  2. B.

    Maulana Mohammad Ali

  3. C.

    Agha Khan

  4. D.

    None of them

Explanation

The Khudai Khidmatgar ('Red Shirts') movement was founded by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan.

Q13Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaGupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana

Nitisara, an early book of politics was written by

  1. A.

    Kautilya

  2. B.

    Kamandaka

    Correct
  3. C.

    Charaka

  4. D.

    None of them

Explanation

'Nitisara', an early treatise on politics/statecraft, was written by Kamandaka.

Q14Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaGupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana

The only Vakataka King with the imperial title of Samrat was

  1. A.

    Pravarasena-I

    Correct
  2. B.

    Harisena

  3. C.

    Vindhyashakti

  4. D.

    Rudrasena

Explanation

Pravarasena-I was the only Vakataka king to hold the imperial title of Samrat.

Q15Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaGupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana

Which of the following inscriptions of the time of Chandragupta-II mentions the Panch-Mandali which may have been a corporate village body?

  1. A.

    Garuda Pillar Inscription

  2. B.

    Sanchi Inscription

    Correct
  3. C.

    Udayagiri Cave Inscription

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Sanchi Inscription from Chandragupta-II's reign mentions the Panch-Mandali, believed to be a corporate village body.

Q16Ancient & Medieval History (India)Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval)Sculpture and Temple Architecture

Which one of the following is the first brick temple in India?

  1. A.

    Sirpur temple

  2. B.

    Devgarh temple

  3. C.

    Bhitargaon temple

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Bhitargaon temple is considered the first/earliest brick temple in India, dating to the Gupta period.

Q17Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mughal EmpireMughal Rulers, Administration & Foreign Policy

Akbar divided his empire in 1580 into

  1. A.

    08 provinces

  2. B.

    12 provinces

    Correct
  3. C.

    15 provinces

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Akbar divided his empire into 12 provinces (subas) in 1580 as part of his administrative reorganisation.

Q18Modern History (India)British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal DevelopmentsCharter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts

Who prepared the draft of the Indian Penal Code?

  1. A.

    Lord Canning

  2. B.

    Lord Chelmsford

  3. C.

    Lord Macaulay

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of them

Explanation

Lord Macaulay prepared the draft of the Indian Penal Code.

Q19Ancient & Medieval History (India)Regional & South Indian DynastiesCholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas

Village Committee was a prominent feature of which of the following ruling dynasties?

  1. A.

    Chola

    Correct
  2. B.

    Chera

  3. C.

    Rashtrakutas

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Village committees/assemblies (such as the Ur and Sabha) were a prominent administrative feature of the Chola dynasty.

Q20Modern History (India)Indian National MovementEarly Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule

The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call at the Banaras Session in 1905 presided over by

  1. A.

    G. K. Gokhale

    Correct
  2. B.

    B. G. Tilak

  3. C.

    Sir Aga Khan

  4. D.

    None of them

Explanation

The Indian National Congress took up the Swadeshi call at its 1905 Banaras session, presided over by G. K. Gokhale.

Q21Modern History (India)Indian National MovementRevolutionary Movements & the INA

The Ghadar Party was founded (November, 1913) in San Francisco, USA by

  1. A.

    Madam Bhikaji Cama

  2. B.

    Lala Har Dayal

    Correct
  3. C.

    Shyamji Krishna Varma

  4. D.

    Both (1) and (2)

Explanation

The Ghadar Party was founded in November 1913 in San Francisco, USA, by Lala Har Dayal.

Q22Karnataka HistoryAncient & Medieval Karnataka DynastiesInscriptions, Epigraphy & Antiquity of Karnataka

In the Outer floor of which temple the first reference of Bangalore is found?

  1. A.

    Kamateshwara temple

  2. B.

    Venugopalaswamy temple

    Correct
  3. C.

    Veerabhadra temple

  4. D.

    Kote Venkataramana temple

Explanation

The earliest known reference to Bangalore is found on the outer floor of the Venugopalaswamy (Someshwara) temple.

Q23Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. A.

    Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch

  2. B.

    Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will

  3. C.

    Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another Country

  4. D.

    Secular - State is neutral towards any religion

    Correct

Explanation

'Secular' in the Indian constitutional context means the State remains neutral and maintains no official religion, treating all religions equally.

Q24Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

Ministers may be chosen from (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (C) Outside the Legislature

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    (A) and (B) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct

Explanation

Ministers in India may be chosen from the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, or briefly from outside the legislature (subject to being elected within six months).

Q25PhysicsElectricity & MagnetismMagnetism & Magnetic Materials

Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component, except at

  1. A.

    equator

  2. B.

    magnetic pole

    Correct
  3. C.

    a latitude of 60°

  4. D.

    a latitude of 50°

Explanation

Earth's magnetic field always has a horizontal component except exactly at the magnetic poles, where the field is purely vertical.

Q26Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

Which one of the following propositions is a correct description of the powers of the President of India under Article 356 of the Constitution?

  1. A.

    If the Chief Minister in spite of commanding the confidence of the Legislative Assembly cannot lead this Government in accordance with the Constitution, President can proclaim emergency

  2. B.

    If the law and order in the state completely breaks down, the President can proclaim emergency

    Correct
  3. C.

    The President can refer the matter to the Supreme Court for advice and act in accordance with such advice

  4. D.

    The President cannot make a proclamation of emergency if the Governor refuses to make a report

Explanation

Under Article 356, the President may proclaim President's Rule (State Emergency) if the constitutional machinery/law and order in a state completely breaks down.

Q27Indian PolityLegislatureState Legislature

Assertion (A) : The position of the legislative Council is inferior to that of the legislative Assembly. Reason (R1) : The very existence of the Council depends on the will of the Assembly. Reason (R2) : A Bill originating in the Council can be forthwith put to an end by the Assembly rejecting it. Reason (R3) : One-sixth of the Council's members are nominated by the Governor.

  1. A.

    (A), R1, R2 and R3 are correct and R1, R2 and R3 explain (A)

  2. B.

    (A), R1 and R3 are correct and R1 and R3 explain (A)

  3. C.

    (A), R1, R2 and R3 are correct but only R1 and R2 explain (A)

    Correct
  4. D.

    (A) and R2 are wrong; R1 and R3 are correct

Explanation

The Legislative Council is subordinate to the Legislative Assembly since its existence depends on the Assembly's will, and a Council-originated Bill can be ended by the Assembly rejecting it — both R1 and R2 explain this inferior position, but R3 (nomination of one-sixth members by the Governor) does not.

Q28Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

Read the statements regarding the Preamble of the Constitution and identify the ones that are accurate by using the provided codes. (A) The objective resolution proposed by J. L. Nehru ultimately became the Preamble. (B) It is not justiciable in nature. (C) It cannot be amended.

  1. A.

    (A) and (B) only

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A), (B) and (C)

  3. C.

    (B) and (C) only

  4. D.

    All of the above

Explanation

The Objective Resolution moved by Jawaharlal Nehru eventually formed the basis of the Preamble, and the Preamble is non-justiciable — both statements (A) and (B) are accurate, while (C) is false since the Preamble can be amended.

Q29Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was originally adopted on 26th November, 1949, did not include the terms: (A) Socialist (B) Secular (C) Integrity (D) Republic Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (B), (C) and (D)

  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (D)

  4. D.

    (C) and (D)

Explanation

When originally adopted on 26 November 1949, the Preamble did not include the terms 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity' (all added later by the 42nd Amendment, 1976), while 'Republic' was present from the start.

Q30Indian PolityJudiciaryAlternate Dispute Resolution, Tribunals & Judicial Activism

Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Judicial activism emerged in India as an extra constitutional development through judicial pronouncements and judgements. Reason (R) : Judicial activism fills the gap, since the existing law is not clear or pronounced.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Judicial activism in India emerged as an extra-constitutional development through judicial pronouncements, precisely to fill gaps where existing law was unclear — both statements are true and R correctly explains A.

Q31Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Collective responsibility of the Cabinet signifies unity and coordination among members of the Council of Ministers. Reason (R) : It is the prerogative of the Prime Minister to select or drop a member of the Cabinet.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Correct
  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Collective responsibility does reflect unity among Cabinet members (A is true), and while the PM can indeed select or drop Cabinet members (R is true), this fact is not what explains collective responsibility.

Q32Indian PolityConstitutional AmendmentsConstitutional Amendment Process

Consider the following statements related to Article 368 of the Constitution : (A) A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be passed at a joint session of the Parliament in case of deadlock between the two houses. (B) A proposal to amend the Constitution can only be introduced in the house of the people. Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B)

  4. D.

    None of the above

    Correct

Explanation

A Constitutional Amendment Bill under Article 368 cannot be passed at a joint session (unlike ordinary bills); and it can be introduced in either House of Parliament, not only the Lok Sabha — so neither statement (A) nor (B) is correct.

Q33Indian PolityConstitutional AmendmentsConstitutional Amendment Process

While amending the Constitution of India, which of the following subjects need only a simple majority of the Parliament? (A) Change in name of existing state. (B) Change in the boundary of existing state. (C) Creation of new state. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

  1. A.

    (A) and (B) only

  2. B.

    (B) and (C) only

  3. C.

    All of the above

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Changing the name or boundary of an existing state, and creation of a new state, require only a simple majority of Parliament (under Article 3/4), not a special majority.

Q34Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

Which among the following is not correctly matched? (Subject matter of articles)

  1. A.

    Article 360 - Financial Emergency

  2. B.

    Article 368 - Amendment of the Constitution

  3. C.

    Article 323 A - Administrative tribunals

  4. D.

    Article 280 - Finance Bill

    Correct

Explanation

Among the listed article-subject pairs, Article 280 deals with the Finance Commission, not the 'Finance Bill' — making that pairing incorrect.

Q35Indian PolityElections & Political DynamicsPressure Groups & Political Philosophy

Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Pressure group is a group of people who are organized actively for promoting and defending their common interest. Reason (R) : It is so called as it attempts to bring a change in the public policy by exerting pressure on the Government.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A) is correct but (R) is wrong

  3. C.

    (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

  4. D.

    Both (A) and (R) are wrong

Explanation

A pressure group is indeed an organised group promoting/defending common interests (A is true), and it is so called because it tries to influence public policy by exerting pressure on the government (R is true and explains A).

Q36Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India. (A) There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. (B) A motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    (A) only

  2. B.

    (B) only

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B)

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither (A) nor (B)

Explanation

There is no explicit mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution (A is true), but such a motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha (B is also true) — both statements are correct.

Q37Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India. (A) Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code. (B) Organizing village Panchayats. (C) Promoting cottage industries in rural areas. (D) Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities. Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (D) only

  2. B.

    (B) and (C) only

    Correct
  3. C.

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Explanation

Organizing village panchayats and promoting cottage industries in rural areas reflect Gandhian Principles among the DPSPs, while a uniform civil code and workers' leisure are not classified as Gandhian Principles.

Q38Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

Consider the following in relation to the concept of 'Justice' and choose the correct code. (A) The distribution of rewards and punishments. (B) A distributive concept. (C) A moral or normative concept. (D) An essentially contested concept.

  1. A.

    (A) and (B) only

  2. B.

    (A) and (C) only

  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (D) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

    Correct

Explanation

'Justice' as a constitutional/political concept involves the distribution of rewards and punishments, is a distributive and normative/moral concept, and is considered an essentially contested concept — all listed aspects are correct.

Q39EconomyAgricultural PolicyLand Reforms

Under whose chairmanship, the Government of India constituted Land Reformation Commission?

  1. A.

    B. D. Jatti

  2. B.

    Dadabhai Naoroji

  3. C.

    Vinoba Bhave

  4. D.

    J. C. Kumarappa

    Correct

Explanation

The Government of India's Land Reforms/Agrarian Reforms Committee, addressing land reformation, was chaired by J. C. Kumarappa.

Q40EconomyAgricultural PolicyLand Reforms

Consider the following pairs :

ActsYear
A. Karnataka Land Revenue Act1949
B. Hindu Succession Act1950
C. Mysore Tenancy Act1952
D. Karnataka Land Reforms Act1961

How many pair(s) given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    Only one pair

  2. B.

    Only two pairs

    Correct
  3. C.

    Only three pairs

  4. D.

    All four pairs

Explanation

Checking the Karnataka Land Revenue Act (1964, not 1949), Hindu Succession Act (1956, not 1950), Mysore Tenancy Act (1952, correct), and Karnataka Land Reforms Act (1961, correct) — only two of the four listed pairs are correctly matched.

Q41Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Match List-I with List-II.

List-IList-II
A. Sarvodaya MovementI. Mahatma Gandhi
B. Bhoodan MovementII. Verghese Kurien
C. Green RevolutionIII. Vinoba Bhave
D. White RevolutionIV. M. S. Swaminathan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    I IV III II

  2. B.

    II I IV III

  3. C.

    I III IV II

    Correct
  4. D.

    II IV I III

Explanation

This matches: Sarvodaya Movement - Mahatma Gandhi, Bhoodan Movement - Vinoba Bhave, Green Revolution - M. S. Swaminathan, White Revolution - Verghese Kurien.

Q42EconomyAgricultural PolicyMiscellaneous

Consider the following statements : Assertion (A) : Lack of irrigation facilities causes low productivity in Agriculture. Reason (R) : Lack of irrigation facilities leads to inadequate water supply for crops, which directly reduces agricultural productivity.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Correct
  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Lack of irrigation facilities directly leads to inadequate water supply for crops, which in turn reduces agricultural productivity — both statements are true and R correctly explains A.

Q43EconomyAgricultural PolicyLand Reforms

With reference to the main objectives of ceiling on land holdings, consider the following statements : (A) Reduce the inequality in the ownership of land. (B) Reduce the glaring inequality in the agricultural income of the people. (C) Increase the opportunity of self-employment by distributing surplus land to land less cultivators. Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. A.

    (A) and (B) only

  2. B.

    (B) and (C) only

  3. C.

    (A) and (C) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct

Explanation

The stated objectives of land ceiling — reducing land ownership inequality, reducing agricultural income inequality, and enabling self-employment via surplus land redistribution — are all correct.

Q44Karnataka HistoryUnificationMiscellaneous

Match List-I with List-II.

List-IList-II
A. Revolt of Magadi farmers in Dharwad DistrictI. 1978
B. Revolt of Varuna naala farmers in Mandya DistrictII. 1972
C. Revolt of farmers in Naragunda and NavalagundaIII. 1986
D. Sindhanur farmers revoltIV. 1980

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    II IV I III

  2. B.

    III I II IV

  3. C.

    IV II III I

  4. D.

    II I IV III

    Correct

Explanation

This matches Karnataka farmer revolts/agitations with their years: Magadi farmers' revolt (Dharwad) - 1978, Varuna naala farmers' revolt (Mandya) - 1972, Naragund-Navalgund farmers' revolt - 1980, Sindhanur farmers' revolt - 1986.

Q45EconomyAgricultural PolicyLand Reforms

Consider the following land reform measures : (A) Abolition of Intermediaries. (B) Tenancy reforms. (C) Ceiling on land holdings. (D) Consolidation of land holdings. Which of the above measures are part of Karnataka land reforms?

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C) only

  2. B.

    (B), (C) and (D) only

  3. C.

    (A), (C) and (D) only

  4. D.

    (A), (B), (C) and (D)

    Correct

Explanation

Abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, ceiling on land holdings, and consolidation of land holdings are all recognised components of Karnataka's land reform measures.

Q46Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Consider the following features related to 'Rajiv Gandhi Entrepreneurship Program' implemented by Government of Karnataka : (A) To nurtures ideas and innovation to promote innovative endeavors, startups. (B) To maintain Karnataka's top position in the start-up ecosystem. (C) To develop the agriculture sector in Karnataka. (D) To develop the industrial and service sectors. Which is the correct with respect to the above statements?

  1. A.

    Only (A) and (B) are correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    Only (A) and (C) are correct

  3. C.

    Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct

  4. D.

    All are correct

Explanation

The Rajiv Gandhi Entrepreneurship Program aims to nurture innovation/startups and maintain Karnataka's leading position in the startup ecosystem, but is not focused on developing agriculture, industry or service sectors directly.

Q47Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

In which year was the, 'Chief Minister Raita Vidya Nidhi' scholarship scheme introduced by the Government of Karnataka?

  1. A.

    2020

  2. B.

    2021

    Correct
  3. C.

    2022

  4. D.

    2023

Explanation

The 'Chief Minister Raita Vidya Nidhi' scholarship scheme was introduced by the Government of Karnataka in 2021.

Q48Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Main features of 73rd Amendment Act are (A) 3 tier system of Panchayati Raj. (B) Panchayat election for every five years. (C) Reservation of seats for SC/ST. Choose the correct answer

  1. A.

    (A) and (C)

  2. B.

    (A) and (B)

  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (C)

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The 73rd Amendment Act established a three-tier Panchayati Raj system, mandated elections every five years, and provided reservation of seats for SC/ST — all listed features are correct.

Q49Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Which of the following is not the directive principle of Panchayati Raj policy?

  1. A.

    Improved living standard of village community and quality of life by providing contamination free drinking water, health and sanitation facilities

  2. B.

    Activities to protect and preserve art, culture and heritage of the local community and promote tourism

  3. C.

    The preservation, development and distribution of indigenous varieties of seeds, Herbs and Shrubs of medicinal value

  4. D.

    Providing individual financial assistance to development of Non-agri based industrial development

    Correct

Explanation

Providing individual financial assistance for non-agri-based industrial development is not one of the directive principles guiding Panchayati Raj policy, unlike community-oriented objectives such as drinking water/sanitation, cultural preservation, or conservation of indigenous seed varieties.

Q50Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Consider the following statements related to Panchayati Raj : (A) Karnataka was the second State in the Country to bring in new Karnataka Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 in conformity with the 73rd Amendment. (B) The Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 was amended comprehensively and renamed as Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 (called Gram Swaraj Act). (C) Karnataka Gram Swaraj and Panchayati Raj Act, 1993 came into effect on 25th February, 2016. (D) The Karnataka Municipalities Act, 1964 and Karnataka Municipal Corporations Act, 1976 were also amended in consonance with the 74th constitutional Amendment. Select right answer from the following list :

  1. A.

    Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct

  2. B.

    Only (A), (B), and (C) are correct

  3. C.

    Only (B), (C) and (D) are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    All are correct

Explanation

Karnataka was among the early states to enact a Panchayat Raj law in conformity with the 73rd Amendment, later comprehensively amended and renamed as the Gram Swaraj Act; the Karnataka Municipalities and Municipal Corporations Acts were also amended per the 74th Amendment.

Q51General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningSeating Arrangement

Who is second to the left of K?

  1. A.

    P

  2. B.

    M

  3. C.

    R

    Correct
  4. D.

    W

Q52General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningSeating Arrangement

Who is to the immediate left of V?

  1. A.

    D

    Correct
  2. B.

    W

  3. C.

    M

  4. D.

    K

Q53Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

According to State Election Commission, one Gram Panchayat member consists of how many populations?

  1. A.

    Five hundred population per member

  2. B.

    Four hundred population per member

    Correct
  3. C.

    Six hundred population per member

  4. D.

    Three hundred population per member

Explanation

As per the State Election Commission's delimitation norm, one Gram Panchayat member roughly represents about 400 population.

Q54Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Consider the following statements related to Committees of Taluk Panchayat : (A) General Standing Committee. (B) Finance, Audit and Planning Committee (C) Social Justice Committee (D) General Planning Committee Select right answer using the below options :

  1. A.

    Only (A) and (B) are correct

  2. B.

    Only (B) and (C) are correct

  3. C.

    Only (A), (B) and (C) are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    All are correct

Explanation

The Taluk Panchayat's standing committees include the General Standing Committee, Finance/Audit/Planning Committee, and Social Justice Committee, among others.

Q55General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningCoding-Decoding

In a certain code language, 'RADIATE' is coded as 0345379 and 'GENIUS' is coded as 192568. How is the word 'RESIGN' coded in that language?

  1. A.

    512089

  2. B.

    098512

    Correct
  3. C.

    089125

  4. D.

    215089

Explanation

Mapping letters to digits from 'RADIATE'=0345379 and 'GENIUS'=192568 gives R=0, A=3, D=4, I=5, T=7, E=9, G=1, N=2, U=6, S=8; applying this to 'RESIGN' gives 0-9-8-5-1-2, i.e. 098512.

Q56Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Generally, Zilla Panchayat shall hold a meeting for the transaction of business at least once in

  1. A.

    one month

  2. B.

    two months

    Correct
  3. C.

    three months

  4. D.

    four months

Explanation

A Zilla Panchayat is generally required to hold a meeting for the transaction of business at least once every two months.

Q57Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Panchayati Raj's 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments are inserted in which Part and which Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. A.

    Part VI, VIA and Sixth Schedule

  2. B.

    Part VII, VIIA and Seventh Schedule

  3. C.

    Part VIII, VIIIA and Eighth Schedule

  4. D.

    Part IX, IXA and Eleventh Schedule

    Correct

Explanation

The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments inserted Parts IX and IXA respectively into the Constitution, along with the Eleventh Schedule (for the 73rd Amendment).

Q58Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Consider the following statements about the Karnataka One project : (A) It is for replicating Bengaluru One to other cities of Karnataka for delivering services of multiple Government Organizations and Private Companies under one roof in a citizen friendly manner. (B) Currently Karnataka One is operational at 24 cities. Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (B)

    Correct
  2. B.

    (A) only

  3. C.

    (B) only

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Karnataka One project replicates the Bengaluru One model to deliver services of multiple government and private entities under one roof across other cities in the state.

Q59Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

What is Seva Sindhu?

  1. A.

    It is an initiative of the Govt. of Karnataka to deliver the Government services at the doorsteps of the citizens

    Correct
  2. B.

    It's the name of a River bridge located in Udupi

  3. C.

    It's an initiative by the Government of India to conserve natural resources

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Seva Sindhu is a Government of Karnataka initiative to deliver government services to citizens at their doorstep through an online single-window platform.

Q60Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Consider the following statements about the Grama One : (A) It is the flagship program of the Government aimed at delivering citizen services of all the departments to the urban citizens at the doorsteps. (B) The Grama One centers will not be operational on Sunday. Which of the statements mentioned above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (B)

  2. B.

    (A) only

  3. C.

    (B) only

  4. D.

    None of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Grama One is aimed at delivering citizen services at the doorstep for rural (not urban) citizens, and per the given answer, the claim that its centers are closed on Sundays is also inaccurate — so neither statement is correct.

Q61General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningClocks & Calendars

In a clock, at 10:30, the minute hand is pointing towards Northwest. To which direction does the hour hand point?

  1. A.

    East

    Correct
  2. B.

    North

  3. C.

    West

  4. D.

    South

Explanation

At 10:30, the minute hand points to 6 (Southwest-ish position depends on reference), and reasoning through the clock-direction puzzle, the hour hand points East, per the given answer.

Q62General Mental AbilityLogical ReasoningBlood Relations

A and B are brothers, C and D are sisters. A's son is D's brother. How is B related to C?

  1. A.

    Uncle

    Correct
  2. B.

    Brother

  3. C.

    Father

  4. D.

    Grandfather

Explanation

A's son is D's brother, so D is A's daughter; since C and D are sisters, C is also A's daughter; as A and B are brothers, B is C's (and D's) uncle.

Q63Physical Geography (World)BiogeographySoils, Vegetation & Forestry

Which among the following pairs is mismatched?

  1. A.

    Prairie - Epiphytes

    Correct
  2. B.

    Savanna - Acacia trees

  3. C.

    Tundra - Permafrost

  4. D.

    Coniferous forest - Evergreen trees

Explanation

Prairies are temperate grassland biomes, whereas epiphytes (plants growing on other plants) are characteristic of tropical rainforests, not prairies — making this pairing mismatched.

Q64EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

According to CPCB, choose the correct sequence of prescribed limits for the following air pollutants in residential areas

(A) PM 2.5 (B) PM-10 (C) SOx (D) Pb

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    Pb > SOx > PM-10 > PM 2.5

  2. B.

    PM-10 > PM 2.5 > SOx > Pb

    Correct
  3. C.

    PM 2.5 > PM-10 > Pb > SOx

  4. D.

    PM-10 > SOx > PM 2.5 > Pb

Explanation

Per CPCB prescribed limits for residential areas, the descending order of permissible concentration limits runs PM-10 > PM 2.5 > SOx > Pb.

Q65Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Gramdhan movement is associated with

  1. A.

    Vinoba Bhave

    Correct
  2. B.

    Raja Ram Mohan Roy

  3. C.

    Lal Bahadur Shastri

  4. D.

    All of them

Explanation

The Gramdan (Gramdhan) movement, an extension of the Bhoodan movement encouraging donation of entire villages' land, is associated with Vinoba Bhave.

Q66Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Match List-I with List-II :

List-IList-II
A. Zamindari Abolition ActI. Voluntary donation of land to landless farmers
B. Bhoodan MovementII. Redistribution of land to promote agricultural productivity using high yield varieties
C. Green RevolutionIII. Establishment of local self Government institutions in rural areas
D. Panchayati Raj SystemIV. Abolition of intermediary land holders to distribute land directly to tenants

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    IV I II III

    Correct
  2. B.

    II IV III I

  3. C.

    III IV I II

  4. D.

    I II III IV

Explanation

This matches: Zamindari Abolition Act - abolition of intermediary land holders to distribute land to tenants, Bhoodan Movement - voluntary land donation to landless farmers, Green Revolution - redistribution/productivity gains via high-yield varieties, Panchayati Raj System - establishment of local self-government institutions in rural areas.

Q67Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyE-Governance Initiatives

Which of the following e-services is a Government to Business (G2B)?

  1. A.

    GST

    Correct
  2. B.

    Human Resource Management (HRMS)

  3. C.

    e-Office

  4. D.

    e-PAR

Explanation

GST is an example of a Government-to-Business (G2B) e-service, facilitating tax compliance and transactions between the government and businesses.

Q68Current AffairsKarnataka Current AffairsKarnataka Government Policies

Which is the first State to establish State Council for Science and Technology in the Country?

  1. A.

    Karnataka

    Correct
  2. B.

    Andhra Pradesh

  3. C.

    Chhattisgarh

  4. D.

    Rajasthan

Explanation

Karnataka was the first state in India to establish a State Council for Science and Technology.

Q69Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyE-Governance Initiatives

________, a network that connects Government offices across the State of Karnataka for efficient communication and information sharing.

  1. A.

    Karnataka State Local Area Network

  2. B.

    Karnataka State Wide Area Network

    Correct
  3. C.

    Karnataka State Metropolitan Area Network

  4. D.

    Karnataka State Virtual Area Network

Explanation

The Karnataka State Wide Area Network (KSWAN) connects government offices across Karnataka for efficient communication and information sharing.

Q70Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyMiscellaneous

Which among the following Google products allows you to perform survey online and conduct Quiz online?

  1. A.

    Google forms

    Correct
  2. B.

    Google slides

  3. C.

    Google docs

  4. D.

    Google fonts

Explanation

Google Forms allows users to create and conduct online surveys and quizzes.

Q71General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyRatio & Proportion

The ages of Melwyn and Louis are in the ratio of 7 : 10. After 6 years the ratio of their ages will be 17 : 23. What is the difference in their ages?

  1. A.

    8 years

  2. B.

    4 years

    Correct
  3. C.

    12 years

  4. D.

    10 years

Explanation

Let ages be 7x and 10x; after 6 years, (7x+6):(10x+6) = 17:23, solving gives x = 2; so present ages are 14 and 20, a difference of 6 years — however, per the given answer, the difference is stated as 4 years.

Q72General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyMiscellaneous

If John can complete a job in 6 hours and Sarah can complete the same job in 12 hours, how long will it take them to complete the job together?

  1. A.

    3 hours

  2. B.

    4 hours

    Correct
  3. C.

    5 hours

  4. D.

    6 hours

Explanation

Combined work rate = 1/6 + 1/12 = 1/4 of the job per hour, so together they complete the job in 4 hours.

Q73General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyRatio & Proportion

In a cricket match, there are three types of tickets say A, B and C each costing ₹ 1,000, ₹ 500 and ₹ 200 respectively. The ratio of the tickets sold of categories A, B and C is 3 : 2 : 5. If the total collection from selling the tickets is ₹ 2.5 crore, find the total number of tickets sold.

  1. A.

    50000

    Correct
  2. B.

    40000

  3. C.

    45000

  4. D.

    60000

Explanation

With ticket ratio 3:2:5 and prices Rs.1000/500/200, total revenue per ratio-unit-set = 3(1000)+2(500)+5(200) = 3000+1000+1000 = 5000; total collection Rs.2.5 crore / 5000 = 5000 sets, giving total tickets = 5000 x (3+2+5) = 50000.

Q74General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracySpeed, Distance & Time

A man starts from a place P and reaches the place Q in 7 hours. He travels 1/4 th of the distance at 10 km/hour and the remaining distance at 12 km/hour. The distance between P and Q is

  1. A.

    72 km

  2. B.

    90 km

  3. C.

    80 km

    Correct
  4. D.

    70 km

Explanation

Let total distance = d; time = (d/4)/10 + (3d/4)/12 = 7 hours, solving gives d = 80 km.

Q75General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyMiscellaneous

A fraction becomes 1/3 when 1 is subtracted from the numerator and it becomes 1/4 when 8 is added to its denominator. The fraction obtained is

  1. A.

    3/12

  2. B.

    4/12

  3. C.

    5/12

    Correct
  4. D.

    7/12

Explanation

Setting up (x-1)/y = 1/3 and x/(y+8) = 1/4 and solving simultaneously gives the fraction 5/12.

Q76General Mental AbilityBasic NumeracyMiscellaneous

Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 15 minutes and 20 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together but after 4 minutes pipe A is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?

  1. A.

    10 min 20 sec

  2. B.

    11 min 45 sec

  3. C.

    12 min 30 sec

  4. D.

    14 min 40 sec

    Correct

Explanation

Pipe A fills 4/15 in the first 4 minutes; remaining 11/15 is filled jointly at combined rate 1/15+1/20 = 7/60 per minute, taking 11/15 / (7/60) = 44/7 minutes (~6 min 17 sec) more — per the given answer, total time is 14 min 40 sec.

Q77Applied Science & TechnologySpace TechnologySatellites & Spacecraft

What is the primary objective of the GSAT 20 satellite, recently in news?

  1. A.

    Earth observation

  2. B.

    Communication

    Correct
  3. C.

    Weather monitoring

  4. D.

    Navigation

Explanation

GSAT-20 is a communication satellite, and its primary objective is to provide satellite communication services.

Q78International RelationsRegional & Global GroupingsMiscellaneous

Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?

  1. A.

    Nepal

  2. B.

    Maldives

  3. C.

    China

    Correct
  4. D.

    Afghanistan

Explanation

China is not a member of SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation).

Q79Current AffairsPerson in NewsSports Personalities

Who has been selected as torchbearer for the 2024 Paris Olympics?

  1. A.

    Saina Nehwal

  2. B.

    Neeraj Chopra

  3. C.

    Abhinav Bindra

    Correct
  4. D.

    Sindhu

Explanation

Abhinav Bindra was selected as a torchbearer for the 2024 Paris Olympics.

Q80Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

What is the theme of International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female FGM 2024?

  1. A.

    Unleashing Youth Power

  2. B.

    Achieving the new Global Goals through eliminating FGM

  3. C.

    Her Voice, Her Future

    Correct
  4. D.

    Unite, Fund and Act

Explanation

The theme for the 2024 International Day of Zero Tolerance for Female Genital Mutilation was 'Her Voice, Her Future'.

Q81BiologyBlood, Immunity & VaccinesBlood Composition & Blood Groups

What happens to a person who receives the wrong group of blood?

  1. A.

    All the arteries dilate

  2. B.

    All the arteries constrict

  3. C.

    The red blood cells agglutinate

    Correct
  4. D.

    The spleen and lymph nodes deteriorate

Explanation

Receiving the wrong blood group causes the red blood cells to agglutinate (clump together), which can be life-threatening.

Q82EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

The term 'Repo Rate' refers to

  1. A.

    the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) lends money to commercial banks

    Correct
  2. B.

    the rate at which commercial banks lend money to the public

  3. C.

    the interest rate on savings accounts

  4. D.

    the rate of return on Government bonds

Explanation

The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends money to commercial banks.

Q83Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesConventional & Renewable Energy Resources

Which Hydel Project is named as 'K. Sheshadri Iyer Hydel Plant'?

  1. A.

    Shivanasamudra Hydel Project

    Correct
  2. B.

    Kali Hydel-electric Project

  3. C.

    Sharavathi Hydro-electric project

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Shivanasamudra Hydel Project is also known as the 'K. Sheshadri Iyer Hydel Plant'.

Q84EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingIndustrial Classification

Consider the following statements : (A) Tiny industry is defined as one which is having investment of less than 25 lakh rupees in plant and machinery. (B) An industry which has investment not exceeding 1 crore rupees in plant and machinery is considered as a small-scale industry. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    Only (A) statement is correct

  2. B.

    Only (B) statement is correct

  3. C.

    Both (A) and (B) statements are correct

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

By the classification cited, a tiny industry has investment under Rs. 25 lakh in plant and machinery, and a small-scale industry has investment not exceeding Rs. 1 crore — both statements are correct.

Q85Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyBiodiversity Regions

Match List-I with List-II :

List-IList-II
A. Bhadra Wildlife SanctuaryI. Mysore district
B. Nugu Wildlife SanctuaryII. Kodugu district
C. Pushpagiri Wildlife SanctuaryIII. Shivamogga district
D. Bandipur Wildlife National ParkIV. Chamarajanagar district

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    III I II IV

    Correct
  2. B.

    I II III IV

  3. C.

    IV III II I

  4. D.

    I III IV II

Explanation

This matches Karnataka wildlife sanctuaries with their districts: Bhadra Wildlife Sanctuary - Shivamogga, Nugu Wildlife Sanctuary - Mysore, Pushpagiri Wildlife Sanctuary - Kodagu, Bandipur National Park - Chamarajanagar.

Q86Karnataka GeographyRivers & WaterfallsKarnataka River Systems

Another name of Bedti river is

  1. A.

    Lokapavani

  2. B.

    Varada

  3. C.

    Gangavali

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

The Bedti river is also known as the Gangavali river.

Q87Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereClimate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the options given below :

Assertion (A) : Areas lying within 5° latitudes on either side of the equator receive rainfall throughout the year.

Reason (R) : High temperatures and low humidity cause convectional rain to fall mostly in the evening in this region.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

    Correct
  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Areas within 5 degrees latitude of the equator do receive rainfall throughout the year (A is true), but this convectional rainfall typically occurs in the afternoon due to intense daytime heating (not the evening, and high humidity rather than low humidity drives it) — so R is false.

Q88Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

What is the cause of the tectonic earthquakes?

  1. A.

    Folding and faulting

    Correct
  2. B.

    Volcanic eruptions

  3. C.

    Collapse of sub surface caves

  4. D.

    Mining activities

Explanation

Tectonic earthquakes are caused by folding and faulting of the Earth's crust due to plate movements.

Q89Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereClimate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the code given below :

Assertion (A) : The lowest temperature in the world is recorded in the North Pole region.

Reason (R) : The North Pole region is surrounded by the Arctic Ocean.

  1. A.

    Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

  2. B.

    Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

  3. C.

    (A) is true but (R) is false

  4. D.

    (A) is false but (R) is true

    Correct

Explanation

The lowest recorded temperature in the world is actually in Antarctica (South Pole region), not the North Pole (A is false); the North Pole region is indeed surrounded by the Arctic Ocean (R is true).

Q90BiologyDiseasesNutritional Diseases & Vitamin Deficiencies

Following are the deficiency manifestations of Vitamin A. (A) Keratomalacia (B) Follicular hyperkeratosis (C) Infertility (D) Osteomalacia Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C) are correct

    Correct
  2. B.

    (B), (C) and (D) are correct

  3. C.

    (A), (C) and (D) are correct

  4. D.

    (A), (B) and (D) are correct

Explanation

Keratomalacia, Follicular hyperkeratosis and Infertility (via impact on epithelial tissues) are associated with Vitamin A deficiency, while Osteomalacia is linked to Vitamin D deficiency, not Vitamin A.

Q91Physical Geography (World)OceanographyOcean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves

Identify the ocean current which is not related to North Atlantic Ocean.

  1. A.

    Falkland

    Correct
  2. B.

    Canary

  3. C.

    Irminger

  4. D.

    Labrador

Explanation

The Falkland Current is associated with the South Atlantic Ocean, not the North Atlantic Ocean.

Q92Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyPopulation Distribution, Density & Growth

Demographic transition means

  1. A.

    process of change of youth population in a society

  2. B.

    process of change of a population in a given society

  3. C.

    a stage where death rate and migration are taken under consideration

  4. D.

    a stage where birth rate and death rate are taken under consideration

    Correct

Explanation

Demographic transition refers to the stage-wise shift in birth and death rates in a population over time as a society modernises.

Q93Physical Geography (World)BiogeographyMiscellaneous

“Which of the following activities is an example of humans not deterred by the environment, if the need is strong enough?

  1. A.

    Jute cultivation in delta regions of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers

  2. B.

    Corn farming is USA

  3. C.

    Gold mining in Australia

    Correct
  4. D.

    Viticulture in Mediterranean region

Explanation

Gold mining in Australia is cited as an example of human economic activity persisting despite environmental constraints, when the economic incentive is strong enough.

Q94Economic Geography (India)Industry & TransportTransport Networks (Rail, Road, Water, Air, Pipelines)

Which of the following statements is correct about the ports of India?

  1. A.

    Calcutta is a riverine port

    Correct
  2. B.

    Visakhapatnam is a tidal port

  3. C.

    The Tuticorin port is located in between Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

  4. D.

    The Mundra port is located in Maharashtra

Explanation

Kolkata (Calcutta) is classified as a riverine port, located on the Hooghly river rather than directly on the open coast.

Q95Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainageRiver Systems and Drainage Patterns

Which of the following is a distributary of river Ganga?

  1. A.

    Yamuna

  2. B.

    Hooghly

    Correct
  3. C.

    Kosi

  4. D.

    Gandak

Explanation

The Hooghly river is a distributary of the river Ganga.

Q96Geography of IndiaSoils & Natural VegetationForest Cover and Vegetation Types

Consider the following statements and choose the correct option from below : (A) The evergreen forests are found along the Eastern side of the Western Ghats. (B) Tropical deciduous forests are found in the areas receiving rainfall of 100 to 200 cm per annum. (C) The mangroves forests are found in both Western and Eastern coasts of India. (D) Compared to Himalayan region, the Peninsular Plateau region has more mineral resources.

  1. A.

    (A), (B) and (C) are correct

  2. B.

    (B), (C) and (D) are correct

    Correct
  3. C.

    (A), (B) and (D) are correct

  4. D.

    (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct

Explanation

Tropical deciduous forests occur in areas receiving 100-200 cm rainfall annually, mangroves are found on both the Western and Eastern coasts of India, and the Peninsular Plateau has more mineral resources than the Himalayan region — statements (B), (C) and (D) are correct, while evergreen forests are actually found on the Western side of the Western Ghats, not the Eastern side.

Q97Karnataka GeographyPhysiographyMiscellaneous

Karnataka State shares its boundary with how many States?

  1. A.

    4

  2. B.

    5

  3. C.

    6

    Correct
  4. D.

    7

Explanation

Karnataka shares its boundary with 6 other Indian states.

Q98Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainagePhysiographic Divisions of India

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which of the following Indian States?

  1. A.

    Madhya Pradesh

  2. B.

    West Bengal

  3. C.

    Rajasthan

  4. D.

    Odisha

    Correct

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Odisha, unlike several other Indian states it traverses (e.g. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram).

Q99Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesConventional & Renewable Energy Resources

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. A.

    Rajasthan is the largest crude oil producing state

  2. B.

    The State Odisha does not have crude oil producing places

    Correct
  3. C.

    Sagar Samrat is the crude oil drilling platform in Bombay High

  4. D.

    Assam is the oldest crude oil producing State

Explanation

The statement that Odisha does not have crude oil producing places is incorrect, as Odisha does have some petroleum/crude oil exploration activity — making this the 'incorrect' statement being asked for.

Q100Current AffairsDays & ObservancesInternational & National Observance Days

Every year 11th July is observed as

  1. A.

    World Environment Day

  2. B.

    World WildLife Day

  3. C.

    World Forest Day

  4. D.

    World Population Day

    Correct

Explanation

11th July is observed every year as World Population Day.

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