Q1Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
With reference to the scientific progress of Ancient India, which of the statements given below are correct?
- Different kinds of specialised surgical instruments were in common use by the 1st century AD.
- Transplant of internal organs in the human body began in the 3rd century AD.
- The concept of sine of an angle was known in the 5th century AD.
- The concept of cyclic quadrilateral was known in the 7th century AD.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Technological development during ancient times
- Statement 1: Correct. Sushruta, the first surgeon, utilized S- and U-type instruments and pioneered plastic surgery.
- Statement 2: Incorrect. There's no documented proof of organ transplants in the 3rd century AD.
- Statement 3: Correct. Aryabhatta detailed sine and reversed sine angles in Surya Siddhanta, while Brahmagupta provided the formula for the area of a cyclic quadrilateral.
Q2Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Miscellaneous
With reference to the Guilds (Shrenis) of ancient India that played a very important role in the country’s economy, which of the following statements is/are true?
- Every Guild was registered with the central authority of the state and the King was the chief administrative authority on them.
- The wages, rules of work, standards, and prices were fixed by the Guild.
- The guild had judicial powers over its own members.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Administrative structure during ancient times
- Statement 1: Incorrect. Guilds were professional bodies ensuring quality production and fair wages, not registered entities.
- Statement 2: Correct. Various ancient texts discuss trade guilds' roles during the Gupta period.
- Statement 3: Correct. Guild members had the authority to punish a chief for misconduct.
Q3Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Vedic Age & Early Society › Vedic Literature, Society and Polity
The religion of early Vedic Aryans was primarily of:
- A.
- B.
- C.
Worship of nature and yajnas
Correct - D.
Worship of nature and bhakti
Explanation
Religious Aspects of Early Vedic Aryans: Vedic Aryans worshipped forces of nature as Gods like Indra, Agni, Soma, and Varuna. They revered Mother Earth and rivers, particularly Saraswati, as goddesses. Yajna, involving sacrificial offerings, was a significant ritual accompanied by Vedic chants and sacrificial mantras.
Q4Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
With reference to the history of Ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
- Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
- Indifference to the authority of Vedas
- Denial of the efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Philosophical Aspect of Jainism and Buddhism:
Statement 1: Incorrect. Buddhism advocated a middle path, contrasting Jainism's extreme asceticism.
Statements 2 and 3: Correct. Both Buddhism and Jainism rejected Vedic authority, rituals, and emphasized non-violence and reincarnation.
Q5Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Bhakti & Sufi Movements › Sufi Orders and Syncretic Traditions
With reference to the religious history of medieval India, the Sufi mystics were known to pursue which of the following practices?
- Meditation and control of breath.
- Severe ascetic exercises in a lonely place.
- Recitation of holy songs to arouse a state of ecstasy in their audience.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Sufi mysticism
Sufism, a mystical branch of Islam, prioritizes spiritual pursuit over materialism. Practices include love and devotion to God, music, dance, breath-control techniques, and meditation.
Sufis also engaged in severe ascetic exercises in solitary places.
Sama, a musical performance inducing ecstasy, was central to Sufi practice. Disciples, or Murids, underwent various spiritual phases in solitude.
Q6Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
During the Indian freedom struggle, the National Social Conference was formed. What was the reason for its formation?
- A.
Different social reform groups or organizations of the Bengal region united to form a single body to discuss the issues of larger interest and to prepare appropriate petitions/representations to the government.
- B.
Indian National Congress did not want to include social reforms in its deliberations and decided to form a separate body for such a purpose.
Correct - C.
Behramji Malabari and M.G. Ranade decided to bring together all the social reform groups of the country under one organization.
- D.
None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Explanation
Social Reform Organizations
Indian Social Conference (1887):
- Founded by M. G. Ranade and Raghunath Rao in Madras.
- Formed separately from the Indian National Congress to focus solely on social reforms.
- Advocated for inter-caste marriage, opposed polygamy and kulinism.
- Initiated the "Pledge Movement" against Child Marriage.
Q7Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
- It opposed idolatry.
- It denied the need for a priestly class for interpreting the religious texts.
- It popularized the doctrine that the Vedas are infallible.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Social Reform Organisations/ Social Reformist
Brahmo Samaj (1828):
- Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, later joined by Debendranath Tagore in 1842.
- Keshab Chandra Sen appointed as Acharya in 1858.
- Promoted human reason and conscience, advocated for political upliftment and widow remarriage.
- Opposed polytheism, incarnations, scriptural authority, idol worship, caste system, untouchability, sati, child marriage, and purdah system.
- Had no definite stance on Karma and transmigration of the soul.
- Dyal Singh College at Lahore (1910) spread the ideas of the Samaj.
Q8Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Land Revenue Systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)
With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, consider the following statements:
- The rent was paid directly by the peasants to the Government.
- The government gave Pattas to the Ryots.
- The lands were surveyed and assessed before being taxed.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Land Revenue Settlement
Statements 1 and 2: The Ryotwari System initiated by Thomas Munro and Alexander Reed in the Baramahal district of Tamil Nadu, later extending to Madras, parts of Bombay, East Bengal, Assam, and Kurg (Karnataka), covering 51% of British India. Under this system, ryots (farmers) obtained ownership and other rights (Pattas) over the land, directly paying revenue to the government.
Statement 3: The Ryotwari System imposed high taxes (50% in dryland and 60% in wetland) with strict collection.
Q9Modern History (India) › Freedom Struggle Personalities › Key Freedom Fighters, Viceroys & Governors General
Consider the following statements:
The most effective contribution made by Dadabhai Naoroji to the cause of Indian National Movement was that he
- Exposed the economic exploitation of India by the British.
- Interpreted the ancient Indian texts and restored the self-confidence of Indians.
- Stressed the need for eradication of all the social evils before anything else.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Economic Exploitation by the British/Economic Critics of Colonialism
Statement 1: Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the "Grand Old Man of India," authored "Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India," proposing the Drain of Wealth Theory, revealing British economic exploitation in India.
Statement 2: Swami Dayanand Saraswati, Swami Vivekananda, etc., revitalized Indian self-confidence through interpretations of ancient texts. Dadabhai Naoroji was not associated with this effort. Swami Dayananda Saraswati advocated a return to the Vedas.
Statement 3: Raja Rammohan Roy, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, Keshav Chandra Sen, Atmaram Pandurang, etc., prioritized the eradication of social evils. Dadabhai Naoroji's focus was not on social reform.
Q10Modern History (India) › Advent of Europeans & British Conquest › Portuguese, Dutch, French & British Trading Companies
Consider the following:
- Assessment of land revenue on the basis of nature of the soil and the quality of crops.
- Use of mobile cannons in warfare.
- Cultivation of tobacco and red chilies
Which of the above was/were introduced into India by the English?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Colonial Trade + Land Revenue Settlement
Statement 1: Incorrect. After obtaining Diwani rights over Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa in 1765, the British East India Company focused on maximizing land revenue collection, regardless of its impact on cultivators and peasants. Three main land revenue collection systems existed: Zamindari, Ryotwari, and Mahalwari.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The earliest recorded use of artillery in India occurred at the Battle of Adoni in 1368, where the Bahamani kings employed artillery against the Raja of Vijayanagar in the Deccan.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Tobacco and red chilies were introduced by the Portuguese, not the British.
Q11Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Charter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts
Which of the following is/are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919?
- Introduction of diarchy in the executive government of the provinces.
- Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims.
- Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Administrative Reform post-1857
Correct Statements:
- GoI Act 1919 introduced 'dyarchy' in provincial executive governance, separating central and provincial subjects, relaxing central control, and implementing bicameralism and direct elections.
- The devolution of legislative authority to provinces occurred in the Government of India Act, 1919.
Incorrect Statement:
- The Indian Council Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms) introduced separate communal electorates for Muslims, aiming to appease Congress moderates and implement separate electorates based on religion. Lord Minto was dubbed "Father of the Communal Electorate in India".
Q12Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Charter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
- A.
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
- B.
Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
- C.
Government of India Act, 1935
Correct - D.
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Explanation
Administrative Reform post 1857
Government of India Act, 1935:
- Divided powers between Centre and provinces into three lists– Federal (Centre, 59 items), Provincial (provinces, 54 items), and Concurrent (both, 36 items).
- Abolished dyarchy in provinces, introduced ‘provincial autonomy’, and retained dyarchy at the Centre.
- Implemented bicameralism in six of eleven provinces.
- Extended communal representation to depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labour (workers).
- Abolished the Council of India established by the Government of India Act of 1858.
Q13Modern History (India) › Freedom Struggle Personalities › Key Freedom Fighters, Viceroys & Governors General
Which of the following parties were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?
- The Peasants and Workers Party of India.
- All India Scheduled Castes Federation.
- The Independent Labour Party.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Important Personalities
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Peasants and Workers Party of India was founded in 1947. The party was founded in Maharashtra by Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe and others. Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Both The Independent Labour Party (1936) and All India Scheduled Castes Federation (1942) were established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar.
Q14Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death in 1932, mainly because:
- A.
Round Table Conference failed to satisfy Indian political aspirations.
- B.
Congress and Muslim League had differences of opinion.
- C.
Ramsay Macdonald announced the Communal Award.
Correct - D.
None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context.
Explanation
Phases of Mahatma Gandhi
Communal Award (1932):
- The Prime Minister of Britain Ramsay MacDonald announced the Communal Award in August 1932 to pursue the British policy of divide and rule.
- The Communal Award recognised the depressed classes as minorities and provided them separate electorates.
- Earlier the British had already given separate electorates to Muslims, Christians and Sikhs.
Poona Pact 1932:
- B.R. Ambedkar negotiated the Poona Pact with Mahatma Gandhi in late September 1932.
- It was signed by Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of Gandhi, and B. R. Ambedkar signed it on behalf of the depressed classes.
- The background to the Poona Pact was the Communal Award of August 1932, which, among other things, reserved 71 seats in the central legislature for the depressed classes.
- Gandhi, who opposed the Communal Award and believed it was a British effort to divide Hindus, started a fast unto death in order to have it overturned.
- He rejected the concept of a special electorate for the depressed classes.
- However, the number of seats set aside for them in provincial legislatures was increased to 147, and in the Central Legislature, they now make up 18% of all seats.
- The findings of the Indian Franchise Committee, also known as the Lothian Committee, served as the foundation for the communal award.
Q15Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
The Congress ministries resigned in the seven provinces in 1939, because:
- A.
The Congress could not form ministries in the other four provinces.
- B.
Emergence of a ‘left wing’ in the Congress made the working of the ministries impossible.
- C.
There were widespread communal disturbances in their provinces.
- D.
None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct.
Correct
Explanation
Resignation of Congress Ministries
Congress Ministries (1937):
- Congress formed ministries in several provinces after the 1937 elections.
- By 1939, internal strife and power struggles emerged among Congressmen, leading to the resignation of Congress Ministries in protest against the unilateral declaration of India's belligerency in World War II.
Q16Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
The Rowlatt Act aimed at:
- A.
Compulsory economic support to war efforts
- B.
Imprisonment without trial and summary procedures for trial
Correct - C.
Suppression of the Khilafat Movement.
- D.
Imposition of restrictions on freedom of the press.
Explanation
Phase of Mahatma Gandhi/Acts and Regulation under the Crown Rule
- The Rowlatt Act allowed imprisonment without trial for activists and possession of seditious newspapers.
- The Khilafat Movement (1919-20) aimed to support the Caliph of Turkey, unrelated to the Rowlatt Act.
- Acts like the Vernacular Press Act, 1878, aimed to restrict freedom of the press but were not linked to the Rowlatt Act.
Q17Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
The Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress is very important in history, because: (2012)
- The Congress passed a resolution demanding complete independence.
- The rift between the extremists and moderates was resolved in that Session.
- A resolution was passed rejecting the two-nation theory in that Session.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Important Sessions of INC
- The Lahore Session of the INC(1929) passed the resolution on ‘Poorna Swaraj’ or complete independence.
- The rift between extremists and moderates occurred in the Surat Session (1907), resolved in the Lucknow Session (1916).
- The Cabinet Mission recommended an undivided India and rejected the demand for a separate Pakistan.
Q18Indian Culture › Painting, Music, Dance & Performing Arts › Classical & Folk Music and Dance
How do you distinguish between Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dances?
- Dancers occasionally speaking dialogues is found in Kuchipudi dance but not in Bharatnatyam
- Dancing on the brass plate by keeping the feet on its edges is a feature of Bharatanatyam but Kuchipudi dance does not have such a form of movements.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Indian Classical Dances
- Kuchipudi, from Andhra Pradesh, incorporates dialogue in performances, unlike Bharatanatyam.
- Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi differ in their movements, with Bharatanatyam not featuring Tarangam's footwork.
Q19Indian Culture › Painting, Music, Dance & Performing Arts › Classical & Folk Music and Dance
With reference to Dhrupad, one of the major traditions of India that has been kept alive for centuries, Which of the following statements are correct?
- Dhrupad originated and developed in the Rajput kingdoms during the Mughal period
- Dhrupad is primarily a devotional and spiritual music
- Dhrupad alap uses Sanskrit syllables from Mantras.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
None of the above is correct.
Explanation
Hindustani Classical Music
1: Incorrect - Dhrupad's origins lie in the chanting of Vedic hymns and mantras.
2: Correct - Dhrupad is a devotional and spiritual music form emphasizing the purity of ragas.
3: Correct - Dhrupad music integrates Sanskrit language scripts and emphasizes a slow, meditative rendition.
- Dhrupad, derived from "Dhruva" (steadfast evening star) and "Pada" (poetry), is an ancient form evolving from the Prabandha.
- Traditionally performed with a tanpura and pakhawaj, Dhrupad features lyrics in Braj Basha, often glorifying gods.
- Notable figures contributing to Dhrupad's development include Raja Man Singh Tomar, Emperor Akbar, Tansen, and Baiju Bawra.
- Major gharanas of Dhrupad include dagarvani, bishnupur, darbhanga, mallik, and bettiah.
Q20Indian Culture › Architecture & Sculpture › Ancient & Medieval Temple Architecture
The Nagara, the Dravida, and the Vesara are the:
- A.
Three main racial groups of the Indian subcontinent
- B.
Three main linguistic divisions into which the languages of India can be classified.
- C.
Three main styles of Indian Temple Architecture
Correct - D.
Three main musical gharanas prevalent in India.
Explanation
Ancient Indian Temple Architecture.
Option (c) is correct. There are three main temple architecture styles: Nagara (Northern style), Dravida (Southern style), and Vesara (Mixed style).
- Nagara style features a temple built on a platform with multiple steps.
- Dravida style includes a compound wall enclosing the temple, with features like Gopuram and Vimana.
- Vesara architecture blends elements of both Nagara and Dravidian traditions.
Q21Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
With reference to the history of Ancient India, which of the following was/were common to both Buddhism and Jainism?
- Avoidance of extremities of penance and enjoyment
- Indifference to the authority of Vedas
- Denial of the efficacy of rituals
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Buddhism/Jainism
Statement 1: Incorrect. Buddhism advocated the middle path, rejecting extreme penance and enjoyment, while Jainism embraced asceticism.
Statements 2 and 3: Correct. Both Buddhism and Jainism rejected grand rituals and the authority of Vedas and priests, affirming the concepts of reincarnation.
Q22Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
Lord Buddha’s image is sometimes shown with the hand gesture called “Bhumisparsha mudra”. It symbolises:
- A.
Buddha’s calling of the Earth to watch over Mara and to prevent Mara from disturbing his meditation.
- B.
Buddha’s calling of the Earth to witness his purity and chastity despite the temptations of Mara.
Correct - C.
Buddha’s reminder to his followers that they all arise from Earth and finally dissolve into the Earth, and thus this life is transitory.
- D.
Both statements (a) and (b) are correct in this context.
Explanation
Buddhism
Option (a) is correct: The “Bhumisparsha mudra” symbolizes Lord Buddha calling upon the Earth to witness his purity despite Mara's temptations.
- The Bhumisparsha mudra, or 'earth witness' mudra, signifies Buddha's enlightenment under the bodhi tree, summoning the earth goddess to testify to his attainment of enlightenment.
Q23Environment › Biodiversity › Coral Reefs
The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why is this phenomenon a cause of concern :
- The growth and survival of calcareous phytoplankton will be adversely affected.
- The growth and survival of coral reefs will be adversely affected.
- The survival of some animals that have phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely affected.
- The cloud seeding and formation of clouds will be adversely affected.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Ocean Acidification:
- Decreases calcifying ability of marine organisms, affecting corals, plankton, and crustaceans.
- Impacts coral reefs, eroding faster than they can rebuild.
- Atmospheric sulfur emitted by phytoplankton can influence cloud formation, indirectly impacted by ocean acidification.
Q24Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves
Consider the following factors :
- Rotation of the Earth
- Air pressure and wind
- Density of ocean water
- Revolution of the Earth
Which of the above factors influence the ocean currents?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Factors Influencing Ocean Currents
Statement 1: Correct - The Coriolis force deflects water to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere due to the Earth's rotation.
Statement 2: Correct - Wind friction influences surface water movement.
Statement 3: Correct - Variations in water density affect vertical currents.
Statement 4: Incorrect - Earth's revolution does not impact ocean currents.
Q25Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Atmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds
Normally, the temperature decreases with the increase in height from the Earth’s surface, because
- The atmosphere can be heated upwards only from the Earth’s surface
- There is more moisture in the upper atmosphere.
- The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Atmosphere
- Statement 1 is correct: The normal lapse rate results in temperature decreasing with height in the troposphere.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Water vapor content varies widely but decreases rapidly with altitude.
- Statement 3 is correct: Decreasing air density with height contributes to decreasing temperatures.
Q26Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
Which one of the following is the characteristic climate of the Tropical Savannah Region?
- A.
Rainfall throughout the year
- B.
- C.
An extremely short dry season
- D.
A definite dry and wet season
Correct
Explanation
Biomes/World Climate
- Option (d) is correct: The Tropical Savannah Region experiences distinct dry and wet seasons, characterized by varying rainfall.
- Savannas consist of open grasslands with sparse trees, receiving high rainfall in the wet season and minimal rainfall during the dry season.
Q27Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Cropping Seasons, Patterns & Major Crops
Which of the following is the chief characteristic of ‘mixed farming’?
- A.
Cultivation of both cash crops and food crops.
- B.
Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field.
- C.
Rearing of animals and cultivation of crops together.
Correct - D.
Explanation
Agricultural pattern/type
Option (c): Mixed Farming involves both crop cultivation and animal rearing simultaneously.
Options (a) and (b) are incorrect: Cultivating both cash and food crops, and planting multiple crops in the same field, are practices related to mixed cropping or intercropping.
Q28Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Cropping Seasons, Patterns & Major Crops
Consider the following crops of India:
- Groundnut
- Sesamum
- Pearl millet
Which of the above is/are predominantly rainfed crop/crops?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Major crop
Option (d): Groundnut, Sesamum, and Pearl millets are predominantly rainfed crops in India.
Groundnut is drought-tolerant, requiring moderate rainfall distributed throughout its growth stages. Sesamum needs well-drained soil and moderate rainfall. Pearl millet is hardy and can tolerate semi-arid conditions.
Q29Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
When you travel in Himalayas, you will see the following:
- Deep gorges
- U-turn river courses
- Parallel mountain ranges
- Steep gradients causing landsliding.
Which of the above can be said to be the evidence for Himalayas being young fold mountains?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Himalayas exhibit youthful topography with deep gorges, U-turn river courses, and parallel mountain ranges. They are characterized by their geological flexibility, still undergoing the effects of both exogenic and endogenic forces, resulting in faults, folds, and thrust plains. The region's tectonic origin is evident in its fast-flowing rivers and steep terrain, forming a youthful landscape with high peaks, deep valleys, and rapids.
Q30Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Indian Monsoon & Climate
Consider the following statements:
- The duration of the monsoon decreases from southern India to northern India.
- The amount of annual rainfall in the northern plains of India decreases from east to west.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Indian Monsoon:
- Monsoon refers to a seasonal wind pattern change leading to shifts in precipitation, prevalent in tropical and sub-tropical regions, marked by wet and dry seasons.
- During the wet season, warm, moist air from oceans increases land rainfall, while the dry season sees cooler, drier air from land, reducing rainfall.
Q31Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Forest Cover and Vegetation Types
A particular State in India has the following characteristics:
- It is located on the same latitude which passes through northern Rajasthan.
- It has over 80% of its area under forest cover.
- Over 12% of forest cover constitutes the Protected Area Network in this State.
Which one among the following States has all the above characteristics?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
State of India/Map Based:
12% of Arunachal Pradesh is under protected forest cover, with its latitude comparable to northern Rajasthan.
- Wetlands are water-controlled areas vital for plant and animal life, occurring where the water table is high or the land is covered by water.
- Wetlands are defined by the Ramsar Convention as areas of marsh, fen, peatland, or water, natural or artificial, with static or flowing water.
- Gujarat's total wetland area accounts for 23.14% of the country's total.
Q32Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › Wetlands & Ramsar Sites
With reference to the wetlands of India, consider the following statements:
- The country’s total geographical area under the category of wetlands is recorded more in Gujarat as compared to other States.
- In India, the total geographical area of coastal wetlands is larger than that of inland wetlands.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
State of India/Wetland:
- India's southern region experiences earlier and longer rainy seasons due to its proximity to the sea, while the north sees diminishing rainfall as rain-bearing winds cross the Western Ghats.
- Rainfall varies across regions during the southwest monsoon: Kolkata receives 119 cm, Patna 105 cm, Allahabad 76 cm, and Delhi 56 cm.
Q33Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Miscellaneous
A person stood alone in a desert on a dark night and wanted to reach his village which was situated 5 km east of the point where he was standing. He had no instruments to find the direction but he located the polestar. The most convenient way now to reach his village is to walk in the
- A.
Direction facing the polestar
- B.
Direction opposite to the polestar
- C.
Direction keeping the polestar to his left
Correct - D.
Direction keeping the polestar to his right
Explanation
Basics of Solar System
- Option (a) is incorrect: The North Star guides northward, directing one towards the NORTH.
- Option (b) is incorrect: Walking opposite to the North Star leads SOUTH.
- Option (c) is correct: Walking with the North Star to the left leads EAST, facilitating a return to the village.
- Option (d) is incorrect: Walking with the North Star to the right directs WEST.
Q34Physics › Electricity & Magnetism › Magnetism & Magnetic Materials
Electrically charged particles from space traveling at speeds of several hundred km/sec can severely harm living beings if they reach the surface of the Earth. What prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth?
- A.
The Earth’s magnetic field diverts them towards its poles.
Correct - B.
Ozone layer around the Earth reflects them back to outer space.
- C.
Moisture in the upper layers of the atmosphere prevents them from reaching the surface of the Earth.
- D.
None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct.
Explanation
Basics of Solar System
- Option (a) is correct: Earth's magnetic field deflects solar particles, forming the magnetosphere, crucial in protecting the planet.
- Option (b) is incorrect: The ozone layer absorbs ultraviolet radiation, unrelated to electrically charged particles.
- Option (c) is incorrect: Moisture in the stratosphere doesn't affect electrically charged particles but blocks UV rays.
Q35Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
Consider the following agricultural practices:
- Contour bunding
- Relay cropping
- Zero tillage
In the context of global climate change, which of the above helps/help in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Agriculture practices
Option (b): Zero Tillage aids in carbon sequestration/storage in the soil.
Zero Tillage:
- It involves sowing crop seeds without prior land preparation, reducing costs, soil erosion, crop duration, irrigation, and weed effects.
- Zero tillage helps in carbon sequestration in the soil.
Contour bundling:
- Involves constructing banks along contours to check water flow, promote water absorption, and prevent soil erosion.
Relay Cropping:
- Involves growing one crop followed by planting another (usually a cover crop) in the same field before harvesting the first, avoiding competition and utilizing the field longer.
Q36Chemistry › Important Chemicals & Compounds in News › Gases – Properties & Uses
Consider the following statements:
Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-depleting substances, are used:
- In the production of plastic foams.
- In the production of tubeless tyres.
- In cleaning certain electronic components.
- As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Ozone Depleting Substances
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs):
- Used in plastic foams, cleaning electronic components, and as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
- They are non-toxic, non-flammable chemicals containing carbon, chlorine, and fluorine atoms.
- CFC uses include refrigeration, solvents, insulation foams, and aero propellants.
Statements 1, 3, and 4: Chlorofluorocarbons are used in the production of plastic foams, cleaning electronic components, and as pressurizing agents in aerosol cans.
Q37Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere because it absorbs
- A.
The water vapour of the air retains its heat.
- B.
The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation.
- C.
All the solar radiations.
- D.
The infrared part of the solar radiation.
Correct
Explanation
Sub-Theme: Global Warming
Option (d): The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air raises the atmosphere's temperature by absorbing the infrared part of solar radiation.
- Carbon dioxide absorbs energy with a wavelength of 15 μm.
- Greenhouse effect naturally warms and covers the lower atmosphere, balancing the earth's cooling and warming.
Q38Environment › Biodiversity › Miscellaneous
Which of the following can be threats to the biodiversity of a geographical area?
- Global warming
- Fragmentation of habitat
- Invasion of alien species
- Promotion of vegetarianism
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Biodiversity Loss
Option (a): Global Warming, Habitat Loss/Fragmentation, and Invasive Alien Species are threats to biodiversity.
- Mammals, birds, and migratory habitats are affected by habitat loss, fragmentation, and invasive alien species.
Options 1, 2, and 3: Global Warming, Fragmentation of Habitat, Invasion of Alien Species, and Coextinctions threaten biodiversity.
Q39Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › National Environmental Authorities
How does the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian Agriculture?
- NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
- NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
- Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Conservation Effort
National Biodiversity Authority (NBA):
- Established in 2003 under MoEF&CC.
- Mandated to regulate and advise on conservation.
- Supports State Biodiversity Boards.
Statements 1 and 3: Correct - NBA advises on conservation and opposes illegal intellectual property rights.
Statement 2: Incorrect - Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) oversees genetic modification research.
Q40Environment › Ecology & Ecosystem › Miscellaneous
Consider the following kinds of organisms
- Bat
- Bee
- Bird
Which of the above is/are pollinating agent/agents?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Pollination
Option (d) correct: Pollination crucial for seed and fruit production, with various vectors including bats, bees, and birds.
Q41Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
The Government of India encourages the cultivation of ‘sea buckthorn’. What is the importance of this plant:
- It helps in controlling soil erosion and in preventing desertification.
- It is a rich source of biodiesel.
- It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to live in cold areas of high altitudes.
- Its timber is of great commercial value.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Seabuckthorn: Shrub, orange-yellow berry, found in Himalayas, used for soil binding and commercial purposes.
Q42Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
Which one of the following groups of animals belongs to the category of endangered species?
- A.
Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda, and Asiatic Wild Ass
Correct - B.
Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull, and Great Indian Bustard
- C.
Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey, and Saras (Crane)
- D.
Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman Langur, and Cheetal
Explanation
Threatened Species: Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda, Asiatic Wild Ass (Endangered).
Q43Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
What is the difference between the antelopes Oryx and Chiru?
- A.
Oryx is adapted to live in hot and arid areas whereas Chiru is adapted to live in steppes and semi-desert areas of cold high mountains.
Correct - B.
Oryx is poached for its antlers whereas Chiru is poached for its musk.
- C.
Oryx exists in western India only whereas Chiru exists in northeast India only.
- D.
None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct.
Explanation
Chiru/Tibetan antelope: Endemic to Tibetan Plateau, near threatened. Oryx: Near threatened, prefers near-desert conditions.
Q44Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
Consider the following:
- Black-necked crane
- Cheetah
- Flying squirrel
- Snow leopard
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Black-necked crane: State bird of Ladakh, found in high altitudes. Cheetahs extinct in India since 1947. Various species of Flying squirrel found in India. Snow Leopard's range covers Western and Eastern Himalayas.
Q45Environment › Biodiversity › Tiger & Wildlife Census
Consider the following protected areas:
- Bandipur
- Bhitarkanika
- Manas
- Sunderbans
Which of the above are declared Tiger Reserves?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Wetland Conservation
Option (d) correct: Natural wetlands, dubbed "earth’s kidneys," filter pollutants, with aquatic plants absorbing heavy metals and nutrients.
Q46Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
In which one among the following categories of protected areas in India are local people not allowed to collect and use the biomass?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention
- D.
Explanation
Protected Areas
Option (b) correct: Biomass collection prohibited in National Parks.
Q47Environment › Ecology & Ecosystem › Ecosystem Concepts
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes the following major categories of ecosystem services—provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one of the following is a supporting service?
- A.
Production of food and water
- B.
Control of climate and disease
- C.
Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
Correct - D.
Explanation
Nutrient cycling and crop pollination are supporting services under Millennium Ecosystem Assessment.
Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MA):
- Initiated in 2001 by the United Nations.
- Aimed to evaluate the impact of changing ecosystems on human well-being.
- Identified ecosystem services like provisioning, regulating, cultural, and supporting services.
Q48Environment › Ecology & Ecosystem › Food Web & Energy Transfer
What would happen if phytoplankton of an ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
- The ocean as a carbon sink would be adversely affected.
- The food chains in the ocean would be adversely affected.
- The density of ocean water would drastically decrease.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Food Chain
- Phytoplankton are crucial in the marine food chain.
- They provide food for various sea creatures.
- The destruction of phytoplankton affects the marine food chain.
Significance of Phytoplanktons:
- Primary producers in the marine food chain.
- Contribute over half of the oxygen in the environment.
- Absorb carbon dioxide, reducing global warming.
- Act as important bioindicators in ocean ecosystems.
Q49Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?
- Right to a healthy environment, construed as a part of Right to life under Article 21.
- Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1).
- Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(a).
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
National Green Tribunal (NGT) Act, 2010:
NGT ensures a healthy environment as part of citizens' right to life under Article 21. It resolves environmental disputes promptly and lessens the burden on higher courts. NGT's orders are final but subject to Supreme Court review within 90 days. It operates with regional and circuit benches.
Q50Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Recombinant DNA Technology & GM Organisms
What are the reasons for the people's resistance to the introduction of Bt brinjal in India?
- Bt brinjal has been created by inserting a gene from a soil fungus into its genome.
- The seeds of Bt brinjal are terminator seeds and therefore, the farmers have to buy the seeds before every season from the seed companies.
- There is an apprehension that the consumption of Bt brinjal may have an adverse impact on health.
- There is some concern that the introduction of Bt brinjal may have adverse effects on biodiversity.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
GM Crops
GM crops like Bt Brinjal have specific genetic modifications for pest resistance.
- Bt Brinjal contains a gene (cry1Ac) from Bacillus thuringiensis for insect resistance.
- Contrary to misconception, seeds from Bt Brinjal are not terminator seeds, and farmers can save and sow them.
- Due to concerns about health impacts, a moratorium on GM food crop field trials was advised, leading to a freeze on Bt Brinjal field trials in 2010.
Q51Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Recombinant DNA Technology & GM Organisms
Other than resistance to pests, what are the prospects for which genetically engineered plants have been created?
- To enable them to withstand drought.
- To increase the nutritive value of the produce.
- To enable them to grow and do photosynthesis in spaceships and space stations.
- To increase their shelf life.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
GM Crops
Genetically modified (GM) technology involves inserting DNA into an organism's genome, often done through tissue culture, passing modified DNA to seeds.
- Future conflicts may be avoided with GE drought-tolerant crops, enduring longer, intense droughts.
- Nutritional GM crops include gluten-free wheat and iron-rich vegetables, tackling nutritional deficits.
- Incorrect: GE plants aren't engineered for space photosynthesis.
- Israel's transgenic bananas extend shelf life, slow plant aging.
Q52Applied Science & Technology › Bio-Technology › Biotechnology Applications
Consider the following kinds of organisms:
- Bacteria
- Fungi
- Flowering plants
Some species of which of the above kinds of organisms are employed as biopesticides?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Biopesticides
Option (d) is correct: All mentioned can be employed as Biopesticides, depending on specific species' properties. Biopesticides are biologically active natural substances in nature with inhibitory effects on crop diseases and insect pests, often relying on biological resources.
Three major classes of biopesticides are:
- Microbial pesticides: Consist of microorganisms like bacteria, fungus, virus, or protozoan as the active ingredient, either naturally occurring, dead or alive, or genetically engineered.
- Biochemical pesticides: Naturally occurring substances like plant extracts, fatty acids, or pheromones, which control pests using a non-toxic mode of action.
- Plant-Incorporated-Protectants (PIPs): Pesticidal substances plants produce from added genetic material, such as corn and cotton.
Q53Chemistry › Water Chemistry › Water Filtration Technology
What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems?
- It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water.
- It removes all the undesirable odors from the water.
- It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
UV Rays
Ultraviolet (UV) water purification is an effective method for eliminating bacteria from water. It uses germicidal UV radiation to clean water contaminated with microorganisms. This process scrambles the DNA of living things in the water, preventing them from reproducing and causing infection. However, UV disinfection does not alter water chemistry or remove taste and odor, and is most effective when water is clear and free from turbidity.
Q54Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Stem Cell Therapy & CAR-T Cell Therapy
With reference to 'stem cells', frequently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Stem cells can be derived from mammals only.
- Stem cells can be used for screening new drugs.
- Stem cells can be used for medical therapies.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Stem Cell and its Applications
Stem cells hold promise for treating various disorders, being pluripotent and capable of developing into complete organs. They can be extracted from embryos and body tissues of any species, used for testing new medications, and in therapeutic procedures, including transplants for combating cancers and blood-related illnesses.
Q55Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Non-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)
Biomass gasification is considered to be one of the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in India. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Coconut shells, groundnut shells, and rice husk can be used in biomass gasification.
- The combustible gases generated consist of hydrogen and carbon dioxide only.
- The combustible gases generated from biomass gasification can be used for direct heat generation but not in internal combustion engines.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Biomass gasification produces combustible gases like carbon monoxide and hydrogen, used for fuel or in the synthesis of other compounds.
Q56Applied Science & Technology › Nano Technology › Nanotechnology: Applications & Impacts
Graphene has been frequently in the news recently. What is its importance?
- It is a two-dimensional material and has good electrical conductivity.
- It is one of the thinnest but strongest materials tested so far.
- It is entirely made of silicon and has high optical transparency.
- It can be used as 'conducting electrodes' required for touch screens, LCDs, and organic LEDs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Graphene is a two-dimensional carbon allotrope, extremely strong and thin, used in various applications like composites and batteries.
Q57Chemistry › Important Chemicals & Compounds in News › Industrial & Agricultural Chemicals
Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard. After the addition of lead to petrol has been banned, what still are the sources of lead poisoning?
- Smelting units
- Pens and pencils
- Paints
- Hair oils and cosmetics
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Lead, found naturally in the Earth's crust, poses health and environmental risks due to mining, manufacturing, and lead-acid battery production.
Q58Agriculture Science › Crops, Cropping Systems & Horticulture › Major Crops and Cropping Patterns
Consider the following crops of India:
- Cowpea
- Green gram
- Pigeon pea
Which of the above is/are used as pulse, fodder, and green manure?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Cowpea and green gram serve as pulses, providing protein as fodder and green manure, improving soil fertility.
Q59Physics › Nuclear & Modern Physics › Nuclear Energy & Nuclear Power in India
To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this context, what advantage does thorium hold over uranium?
- Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium.
- On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium.
- Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Thorium and uranium are utilized in nuclear reactors, with thorium offering potential advantages in energy production and waste reduction.
Q60Chemistry › Basic Chemical Concepts › Miscellaneous
Which one of the following sets of elements was primarily responsible for the origin of life on the Earth?
- A.
- B.
Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen
Correct - C.
Oxygen, Calcium, Phosphorus
- D.
Carbon, Hydrogen, Potassium
Explanation
Carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen are fundamental components of life, forming hydrocarbons crucial for cell membranes.
Q61Physics › Fluid Dynamics › Miscellaneous
Consider the following statements: If there were no phenomenon of capillarity
- It would be difficult to use a kerosene lamp.
- One would not be able to use a straw to consume a soft drink.
- The blotting paper would fail to function.
- The big trees that we see around would not have grown on the Earth.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Capillary action occurs in wicks, blotting paper, and plant root-hairs, facilitating liquid movement.
Q62Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › World Space Missions
Which of the following is/are cited by the scientists as evidence for the continued expansion of the universe?
- Detection of microwaves in space.
- Observation of redshift phenomenon in space.
- Movement of asteroids in space.
- Occurrence of supernova explosion in space.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
None of the above can be cited as evidence
Explanation
The expansion of the universe, as per the Big Bang theory, describes how the universe originated from a single point, expanding since then. Redshift and blueshift, observed in light, are related to objects' movement in space. Cosmic Microwave Background (CMB) radiation, a remnant of the Big Bang, supports this theory. Hubble's law states that galaxies move away from observers, indicating the universe's expansion. Statement 1 correction: CMB radiation is a remnant of the Big Bang, supporting the universe's expansion theory. Statement 2 correction: Edwin Hubble discovered galactic redshift, supporting the expanding universe concept.
Q63Indian Polity › Union Executive › Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/her appointment:
- A.
Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of one of the Houses within six months
Correct - B.
Need not necessarily be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament but must become a member of the Lok Sabha within six months
- C.
Must be a member of one of the Houses of the Parliament
- D.
Must be a member of the Lok Sabha
Explanation
Appointment of PM:
The President appoints the Prime Minister and other ministers based on the advice of the Prime Minister. Non-legislative individuals can serve as PM or CM for six months, provided they are elected within that time.
Q64Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following is/are among the Fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution?
- To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
- To protect the weaker sections from social injustice.
- To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry.
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
List of Fundamental Duties
Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties. These duties are the moral and civic obligations that all citizens of a nation have. In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were first recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, its need was felt during the internal emergency (1975-77) and were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. Later, one more Fundamental Duty was added by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.
List of Fundamental Duties are:
- To abide by the Constitution and respect National Flag and National Anthem (Not national song)
- To follow the noble ideals that inspired the struggle for freedom.
- To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
- To render national service when called upon to do so.
- To promote the common spirit of brotherhood amongst all Indians and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
- To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s culture.
- To protect the national environment including forests, lakes, wildlife, etc.
- To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of reform and inquiry.
- To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
- To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individuals.
- To provide opportunity for education to his child between the age 6 and 14 years.
Thus, Protecting the weaker sections from social injustice is more relevant to Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP), not Fundamental Duties.
Q65Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha?
- Gram Sabha has the power to prevent alienation of land in the Scheduled Areas.
- Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
- Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
PESA Act
- Correct: Gram Sabhas have land protection powers.
- Correct: PESA grants wide-ranging Gram Sabha powers.
- Incorrect: Gram Sabhas can grant prospecting licenses, not for all minerals.
Q66Indian Polity › Union Executive › President, Vice-President & Governor
According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following?
- The Recommendation of the Union Finance Commission.
- The Report of the Public Accounts Committee.
- The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.
- The Report of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Legislative Powers of President:
In India's parliamentary system, the President serves as the constitutional head of state and executive head. The President presents reports and statements on various bodies to Parliament.
Q67Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India:
- Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code.
- Organizing village Panchayats.
- Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
- Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities.
Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Gandhian Principles and Liberal Intellectual Principles
- The Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in the Indian Constitution (Articles 36 to 51) are adopted from the Constitution of Ireland.
- DPSPs are broadly classified into Socialist, Gandhian, and Liberal-Intellectual categories based on their content.
- Article 40 advocates the establishment of Village Panchayats, empowering them for self-governance, reflecting Gandhian principles.
- Article 43 promotes Cottage Industries in rural areas, aligning with Gandhian ideals.
Q68Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education?
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies
- Fifth Schedule
- Sixth Schedule
- Seventh Schedule
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Combination of DPSP and schedules
- Education-related provisions in the Indian Constitution involve Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), Rural and Urban Local Bodies, and the Seventh Schedule:
- Article 45 emphasizes early childhood care and education, later amended by the 86th Amendment Act, making elementary education a fundamental right.
- Rural and Urban Local Bodies, specified in Schedules 11 and 12 respectively, are empowered to govern education among other subjects.
- The Seventh Schedule delineates powers between the Union and States, with amendments like the 42nd Amendment Act transferring education from the State to the Concurrent list.
Q69Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provided in the:
- A.
Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
- B.
Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919
- C.
Government of India Act, 1935
Correct - D.
Indian Independence Act, 1947
Explanation
Acts and Regulations under The Crown Rule (1858–1947)
The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is detailed in the 7th Schedule. The Schedule divides powers into Union List, State List, and Concurrent List, based on the Government of India Act, 1935, which established Federal, Provincial, and Concurrent Lists.
Other Features of Government of India Act, 1935:
- Abolished dyarchy in provinces and introduced provincial autonomy.
- Introduced Bicameralism in six provinces.
- Extended communal representation to depressed classes, women, and labor.
- Abolished the Council of India.
Q70Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is
- A.
to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance.
Correct - B.
to let opposition members, collect information from the ministers.
- C.
to allow a reduction of specific amounts in demand for grants.
- D.
to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behaviour on the part of some members.
Explanation
Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings
Adjournment Motion: Introduced to address a specific urgent matter of public importance.
Additional Information: Question Hour involves members asking questions, with three types of questions - Starred, Unstarred, and Short Notice.
Q71Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Consider the following statements:
- Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.
- It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.
- According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Basic Provisions of Parliament
Statement 1: Union Territories like Delhi and Pondicherry are represented in Rajya Sabha.
Statement 2: The Supreme Court and High Court adjudicate election disputes, not the Chief Election Commissioner.
Statement 3: Parliament consists of Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, and the President of India.
Q72Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker, consider the following statements:
- He/she holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
- He/she need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
- If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Statement 1: The Speaker presides over the Lok Sabha, with provisions outlined in Articles 93 to 97.
Statement 2: Elected by the Lok Sabha members, with the election date fixed by the President.
Statement 3: The Speaker vacates office if ceasing to be an MP, resigning to the Deputy Speaker, or removed by a resolution passed by a majority of Lok Sabha members after a 14-day notice.
Q73Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?
- A.
To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State.
- B.
To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India Services.
Correct - C.
To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement.
- D.
To determine the functions of the Election Commission and determine the number of Election Commissioners.
Explanation
Special Power of Rajya Sabha
The Rajya Sabha holds exclusive powers, including authorizing Parliament to legislate on State List subjects, creating All-India Services, initiating vice president's removal, and approving emergency proclamations if Lok Sabha is dissolved.
Q74Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha calls for a joint sitting of the Parliament during the passage of
- Ordinary Legislation
- Money Bill
- Constitution Amendment Bill
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Joint Session of Parliament
Joint sittings resolve deadlocks between the Houses over bill passage, presided over by the Lok Sabha Speaker, with quorum comprising one-tenth of total members.
Additional Information: The Chairman of Rajya Sabha does not preside over joint sittings.
Q75Indian Polity › Elections & Political Dynamics › Electoral System, Reforms & Political Parties
With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements:
- The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
- When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Delimitation
Statement 1: Delimitation redraws Lok Sabha and Assembly boundaries based on population changes.
Statement 2: Orders of the Delimitation Commission, once laid before Parliament, cannot be modified.
Additional Information: Delimitation Commissions are appointed by the President, working with the Election Commission, and their decisions are binding.
Q76Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India?
- Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament.
- Withdrawal of money from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill.
- Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on accounts.
- A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office.
- Introducing the Finance Bill in the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Union Budget/Annual Financial Statement
Statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct, concerning annual financial statement presentation, funds withdrawal, and parliamentary approval.
Statement 4 is incorrect, as there's no Parliamentary budget office; however, an Estimate Committee reviews policies.
Q77Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)
Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission?
- A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design.
- A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India’s demographic dividend.
- Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Finance Commission
Statements 1 and 3: The Thirteenth Finance Commission recommended measures for fiscal sustainability and strengthening local fund audit departments.
Statement 2: No mention of job creation design in the recommendations.
Q78Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)
In India, other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for the intended purposes, what is the importance of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
- CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf of the Parliament when the President of India declares a national emergency/financial emergency.
- CAG reports on the execution of projects or programmes by the ministries are discussed by the Public Accounts Committee.
- Information from CAG reports can be used by investigating agencies to press charges against those who have violated the law while managing public finances.
- While dealing with the audit and accounting of government companies, CAG has certain judicial powers for prosecuting those who violate the law.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
CAG
Statements 1 and 3: CAG audits inform investigating agencies for charges against financial violators.
Statement 2: PAC examines CAG audit reports, aiding in accountability.
Q79Indian Polity › Judiciary › Supreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review
Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
- A dispute between the Government of India and one or more States.
- A dispute regarding elections to either House of the Parliament or that of Legislature of a State.
- A dispute between the Government of India and a Union Territory.
- A dispute between two or more States.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Court
- Correct: Article 131 covers disputes between the Government of India and states.
- Incorrect: Article 329 (b) addresses election disputes, not jurisdiction.
- Incorrect: UTs aren't mentioned in Article 131; it addresses disputes between federal units.
- Correct: Article 131 covers disputes between states.
Q80Indian Polity › Judiciary › Supreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review
What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the Supreme Court of India?
- While appointing the Supreme Court Judges, the President of India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
- The Supreme Court Judges can be removed by the Chief Justice of India only.
- The salaries of the Judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote.
- All appointments of officers and staff of the Supreme Court of India are made by the Government only after consulting the Chief Justice of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Independence of Supreme Court
- Correct: SC judges are appointed by the President, in consultation with the judiciary.
- Incorrect: SC judges can be removed after parliamentary address to the President.
- Correct: SC expenses are non-votable from the Consolidated Fund.
- Incorrect: The CJI can't appoint SC staff without executive interference.
Q81Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
Which of the following would include Foreign Direct Investment in India?
- Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India.
- Majority foreign equity holding in Indian companies.
- Companies exclusively financed by foreign companies.
- Portfolio investment.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Foreign Investment:
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) involves capital investment by non-residents in Indian companies.
- Foreign Portfolio Investment (FPI) is investment in capital instruments with less than 10% ownership.
Q82Economy › External Sector › Exchange Rate Systems
Consider the following statements:
The price of any currency in the international market is decided by the
- World Bank
- Demand for goods/services provided by the country concerned
- Stability of the government of the concerned country
- Economic potential of the country in question
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Currency Value/IMF
Statement 1: Incorrect. The World Bank provides financial and technical assistance to developing countries but does not affect currency prices.
Statement 2: Correct. Currency prices are influenced by demand and supply, which are affected by exports and investments.
Statement 3: Correct. Government stability is crucial for making effective economic decisions impacting exports and imports.
Statement 4: Incorrect. Currency value on the international market doesn't directly reflect a nation's economic capacity.
Q83Economy › Poverty & Unemployment › Poverty Measures
The Multi-dimensional Poverty Index developed by ‘Oxford Poverty and Human Development’ initiative with UNDP support covers which of the following?
- Deprivation of education, health, assets, and services at the household level.
- Purchasing power parity at the national level.
- Extent of budget deficit and GDP growth rate at the national level.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Reports and Indices
- The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index, launched in 2010 by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) and UNDP's Human Development Report Office, assesses acute multidimensional poverty across 100+ developing countries.
- Poverty, often one-dimensionally defined by income, lacks the complexity to capture multiple dimensions like health, education, living standards, disempowerment, work quality, violence threat, and environmental hazards.
Q84Economy › Industry & Manufacturing › Special Economic Zones (SEZs) & Industrial Zones (NIMZs)
What is/are the recent policy initiative(s) of Government of India to promote the growth of the manufacturing sector?
- Setting up of National Investment and Manufacturing Zones.
- Providing the benefit of ‘single window clearance’.
- Establishing the Technology Acquisition and Development Fund.
Select the correct answer using codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
National Manufacturing Policy:
- Promotes clusters and simplifies state-level business regulations.
- Advisory to states for business regulation simplification and skill development.
- Includes schemes like Technology Acquisition and Development Fund (TADF).
Q85Economy › National Income & Measures › Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
In India, in the overall index of Industrial Production, the Indices of Eight Core Industries have a combined weight of 37.90%. Which of the following are among those Eight Core industries?
- Cement
- Fertilizer
- Natural Gas
- Refinery products
- Textiles
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Core Industry:
- Eight Core Industries constitute 40.27% of the Index of Industrial Production.
- Significantly influence economic and industrial activities.
- IIP provides growth rates for various industrial categories.
Q86Economy › Industry & Manufacturing › Industrial Classification
Despite having large reserves of coal, why does India import millions of tons of coal?
- It is the policy of India to save its own coal reserves for the future, and import it from other countries for the present use.
- Most of the power plants in India are coal-based and they are not able to get sufficient supplies of coal from within the country.
- Steel companies need a large quantity of coking coal which has to be imported.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Coal Sector - Import of Coal:
- India imports coal for various sectors like power, cement, and steel.
- 85% of coking coal needs for steel production are imported.
- Open General Licence allows consumers to freely import coal.
Q87Economy › Planning & Development › NITI Aayog
Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’?
- Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking.
- Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts.
- Increasing government spending on public health.
- Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Inclusive Growth:
- NBFCs' banking roles don't align with inclusive governance.
- District Planning Committees ensure grassroots planning.
- Govt. aims for increased public health spending.
- Mid-Day Meal Program tackles classroom hunger and improves education.
Q88Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › Money Supply
Which of the following measures would result in an increase in the money supply in the economy?
- Purchase of government securities from the public by the Central Bank.
- Deposit of currency in commercial banks by the public.
- Borrowing by the government from the Central Bank.
- Sale of government securities to the public by the Central Bank.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Money Supply
- Correct: Central Bank buying government securities increases money supply.
- Incorrect: Public depositing currency in banks decreases money supply.
- Correct: Government borrowing from Central Bank increases money supply.
- Incorrect: Sale of government securities by Central Bank decreases money supply.
Q89Economy › Poverty & Unemployment › Employment Schemes
How does the National Rural Livelihood Mission seek to improve livelihood options of rural poor?
- By setting up a large number of new manufacturing industries and agribusiness centers in rural areas.
- By strengthening ‘self-help groups’ and providing skill development.
- By supplying seeds, fertilizers, diesel pump-sets and micro-irrigation equipment free of cost to farmers.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Government Schemes:
- Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana aims to uplift rural livelihoods.
- It covers 7 crore rural families through self-help groups and federal institutions.
Q90Schemes & Social Justice › Health Schemes › Health Budget Allocations
With reference to the National Rural Health Mission, which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA’, a trained community health worker?
- Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care check-up.
- Using pregnancy test kits for early detection of pregnancy.
- Providing information on nutrition and immunization.
- Conducting the delivery of a baby.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Government Schemes:
- ASHA workers facilitate community health services.
- They provide first-contact healthcare and support maternal and child health.
Q91Schemes & Social Justice › Health Schemes › Nutrition Schemes for Women
The endeavor of ‘Janani Suraksha Yojana’ Programme is
- To promote institutional deliveries.
- To provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery.
- To provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinement.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Government Schemes and Policies
- JSY (Janani Suraksha Yojana) aims to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality by promoting institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- It's a 100% centrally sponsored scheme integrating cash assistance with delivery and post-delivery care.
- Compensation for wage loss around the first living child's delivery falls under Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana.
Q92Economy › Poverty & Unemployment › Employment Schemes
Consider the following:
- Hotels and restaurants
- Motor transport undertakings
- Newspaper establishments
- Private medical institutions
The employees of which of the above can have the ‘Social Security’ coverage under Employees’ State Insurance Scheme?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Government Schemes and Policies
- The Employees State Insurance Scheme offers medical care and financial benefits to workers in events like sickness, maternity, disability, or work-related deaths.
- It initially applies to non-seasonal factories with 10 or more employees.
- State governments extend its provisions to various businesses, including shops, hotels, and transportation undertakings.
Q93Schemes & Social Justice › Rural Development Schemes › Rural Infrastructure Schemes
If the National Water Mission is properly and completely implemented, how will it impact the country?
- Part of the water needs of urban areas will be met through recycling of waste-water.
- The water requirements of coastal cities with inadequate alternative sources of water will be met by adopting appropriate technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
- All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be linked to the rivers of peninsular India.
- The expenses incurred by farmers for digging bore-wells and for installing motors and pumpsets to draw ground-water will be completely reimbursed by the Government.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Water Conservation
- National Water Mission, under NAPCC, aims for water conservation and equitable distribution.
- It emphasizes recycling wastewater and adopting technologies like low-temperature desalination.
- Linking all Himalayan rivers to peninsular rivers is not part of the mission.
- Providing complete expenses for bore wells and installations is not encouraged by the government.
Q94Economy › Poverty & Unemployment › Employment Schemes
How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India?
- DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country.
- DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the causes of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures.
- DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes.
- DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programmes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Poverty Alleviation/Rural Development/Inclusive Growth
- DRDAs are expected to coordinate with PRIs but not perform their functions.
- DRDAs don't undertake area-specific studies on poverty and malnutrition.
- DRDAs play roles in planning and coordinating anti-poverty programs.
Q95Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › Taxes (Direct & Indirect)
Under which of the following circumstances may ‘capital gains’ arise?
- When there is an increase in sales of product.
- When there is a natural increase in the value of the property owned.
- When you purchase a painting, there is a growth in its value due to an increase in its popularity.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Taxation
Capital gains refer to profit from asset sales, subject to taxation. Various assets fall under this category, excluding certain business and personal items.
Q96Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) acts as a bankers’ bank. This would imply which of the following?
- Other banks retain their deposits with the RBI.
- The RBI lends funds to the commercial banks in times of need.
- The RBI advises the commercial banks on monetary matters.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Role and Functions of RBI
- RBI acts as government banker, lender, and advisor.
- It provides financial guidance to banks and government.
Q97Economy › Banking › Commercial Banks
The basic aid of Lead Bank Scheme is that:
- A.
Big banks should try to open offices in each district.
- B.
There should be stiff competition among the various nationalized banks.
- C.
Individual banks should adopt a particular district for intensive development.
Correct - D.
All the banks should make intensive efforts to mobilize deposits.
Explanation
Lead Bank Scheme
The Lead Bank Scheme assigns individual banks to adopt specific districts for focused development, introduced by the RBI based on the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s Committee recommendations in 1969.