UPSC CSE Prelims 2013 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 100 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Ancient & Medieval History (India), Indian Polity, Modern History (India), Indian Culture, Environment, Physical Geography (World), Geography of India, Economic Geography (India), Chemistry, Biology, Applied Science & Technology, Physics, Economy.

Questions
100 questions
Duration
120 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.666
Q1Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaGupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana

The Chinese traveler Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The roads and river routes were completely immune from robbery.
  2. As regards punishment for offenses, ordeals by fire, water, and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
  3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Foreign Travellers Account Statement 1 is incorrect. Roads and river routes were not completely robbery-free. Hiuen-Tsang himself was looted a couple of times. Statement 2 is correct. Criminal law was very severe. Mutilation was commonly practiced. Ordeals by fire, water, and poison were used to determine the innocence or guilt of a person. Statement 3 is correct. Duties were to be paid at trade barriers without fail. It was a source of income for the kingdom.

Q2Ancient & Medieval History (India)Prehistoric Era & Indus Valley CivilizationHarappan Civilization: Society, Economy, Decline

Which of the following characterizes/characterizes the people of the Indus Civilization?

  1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
  2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
  3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3

  4. D.

    None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

Aspect of Religious life of Harappan civilizations

  • Statement 1: Incorrect. No temple-like structures have been found in the Indus Valley, though the "Great Bath" might have had ritual significance.
  • Statement 2: Correct. Figurines resembling deities have been discovered in the Indus Valley.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect. No evidence of horse presence has been found in the Indus Valley.
Q3Ancient & Medieval History (India)Bhakti & Sufi MovementsBhakti Saints and Movements (North & South India)

Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

  1. A.

    1 and 3

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3

  4. D.

    1 and 2

Explanation

Bhakti Movement Guru Nanak, born in 1469, coincided with Babur's victory over Ibrahim Lodhi at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526. While Babur consolidated the Mughal dynasty in India, Guru Nanak propagated Sikhism. Tyagaraja, a Carnatic music composer, was born in 1767. Daddu Dayal, a poet-saint from Gujarat, was born in 1544.

Q4Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipHistorical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution

With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were:

  1. A.

    directly elected by the people of those Provinces

  2. B.

    nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League

  3. C.

    elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies

    Correct
  4. D.

    selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Explanation

Constitutional Development The concept of a constituent assembly was initially proposed by MN Roy, with the Indian National Congress formally endorsing the idea in 1935. The assembly, constituted in November 1946 under the Cabinet Mission Plan, allocated seats based on population proportion and employed single transferable vote and proportional representation systems. Mahatma Gandhi did not serve in the assembly, which comprised 389 members, including representatives from princely states.

Q5Modern History (India)Indian National MovementMiscellaneous

The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for:

  1. A.

    the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one third.

    Correct
  2. B.

    the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land.

  3. C.

    the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom.

  4. D.

    writing off all peasant debts.

Explanation

Peasant Movement The Tebhaga Peasant Movement (1946) in Bengal aimed to reduce landlords' share of produce from one-half to one-third. Initiated by the Bengal Provincial Kisan Sabha, it advocated implementing the Floud Commission's Tebhaga recommendations, granting two-thirds share to bargardars, or sharecroppers, instead of the previous one-half. The movement focused on empowering sharecroppers, known as 'bhagchasi' or 'adhyar', to thresh their own paddy rather than delivering it to the jotedar's house, as customary. Primarily concentrated in North Bengal, especially among the Rajbanshis, a low-caste tribal group, the movement saw significant Muslim participation. However, it dissipated swiftly due to the League ministry's Bargardari Bill, the Hindu Mahasabha's call for a separate Bengal, and new riots in Calcutta, which hindered urban support.

Q6Modern History (India)British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal DevelopmentsMiscellaneous

The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the:

  1. A.

    Imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians

  2. B.

    Imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages

  3. C.

    Removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans

    Correct
  4. D.

    Removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth

Explanation

Ilbert Bill controversy Ilbert Bill Controversy (1883):

  • Lord Ripon aimed to abolish two common laws in India.
  • The legal system mandated that only European judges or magistrates could try European individuals.
  • This disqualification unfairly targeted judges of Indian descent, intended to disgrace them.
  • Lawmaker C.P. Ilbert proposed a bill in 1883 to end this bias in the judiciary, vehemently opposed by Europeans.
  • The controversy raised awareness among educated Indians, leading to the formation of the Indian National Congress in Bombay in 1885, with early leaders including Dadabhai Naroji, Pherozeshah Mehta, Badruddin Tyabji, WC Banerjee, etc.
  • The Ilbert Bill Controversy marked a significant moment in the Indian National Movement, culminating in the birth of the Indian National Congress in 1885, the year following Ripon’s departure. Option (a): Incorrect – The Indian Arms Act (1878) imposed restrictions, requiring Indians to obtain licenses for arms. Option (b): Incorrect – The Vernacular Press Act (1878) restricted newspapers and magazines in Indian languages. Option (c): Correct – The Ilbert Bill Controversy of 1883 aimed to remove disqualifications on Indian magistrates regarding the trial of Europeans. Option (d): Incorrect – Lord Lytton's abolition of import duty on cotton goods in 1879 is unrelated to the Ilbert Bill controversy.
Q7Modern History (India)Indian National MovementEarly Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule

Annie Besant was:

  1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement
  2. The founder of the Theosophical Society
  3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress

Select the correct statement/statements using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Important Personalities Annie Besant 1847-1933:

  • She fought for the freedom of thought, secularism, women’s rights, birth control, workers’ rights and Fabian socialism.
  • Following her encounter with Helena Blavatsky in 1889, Besant became a Theosophist.
  • In 1893, she made her first trip to India with the Theosophical Society.
  • She and Henry Steel Olcott co-founded the Theosophical Society - Adyar.
  • She was the society’s president from 1907 to 1933.
  • In Benares, Besant founded the Central Hindu College (CHC).
  • She joined the Indian National Congress (INC) and demanded government action towards self-rule. She became the President of the Calcutta Session of INC, AD 1917.
  • In 1916, Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded the All-India Home Rule League.
  • She did not attend the AD 1920 Session at Nagpur due to growing differences with Gandhiji as she felt that the Government of India Act, 1919 was a means to free India.
  • Newspapers: New India and Commonweal.
  • She wrote the ‘Lotus Song’, an English version of the Gita. Statement 1 is correct: Annie Besant fought for the freedom of thought, secularism, women’s rights, birth control, workers’ rights and Fabian socialism. In 1916, Annie Besant and Tilak started the Home Rule Leagues at Madras and Belgaum respectively. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Theosophical Society was founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York in 1875. In 1882, the headquarters of the Society were established in Adyar, near Madras (now Chennai) in India. Statement 3 is correct: Annie Besant became the President of the INC in Calcutta Session, 1917.
Q8Modern History (India)Indian National MovementGandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India

Quit India Movement was launched in response to:

  1. A.

    Cabinet Mission Plan

  2. B.

    Cripps Proposals

    Correct
  3. C.

    Simon Commission Report

  4. D.

    Wavell Plan

Explanation

Quit India Movement The failure of the Cripps Mission highlighted the need for decisive action:

  • The Quit India Movement was launched in response to Mahatma Gandhi’s call for non-violent resistance.
  • The movement demanded an orderly British withdrawal from India.
  • The Quit India resolution was ratified on August 8, 1942, at the Congress meeting in Gowalia Tank, Bombay.
Q9Modern History (India)Indian National MovementConstitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)

The people of India agitated against the arrival of the Simon Commission because:

  1. A.

    Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919

  2. B.

    Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the Provinces

  3. C.

    There was no Indian member in the Simon Commission

    Correct
  4. D.

    The Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country

Explanation

Administrative Reform/Constitutional Reforms

  • The Simon Commission, composed entirely of British members, was appointed to assess India’s constitutional development.
  • Indian opposition to the Simon Commission stemmed from its lack of Indian representation.
Q10Indian CulturePainting, Music, Dance & Performing ArtsClassical & Folk Music and Dance

In the context of the cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called ‘Tribhanga’ has been a favorite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?

  1. A.

    One leg is bent and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at the waist and neck

    Correct
  2. B.

    Facial expressions, hand gestures, and make-up are combined to symbolize certain epic or historic characters

  3. C.

    Movements of body, face, and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story

  4. D.

    A little smile, slightly curved waist, and certain hand gestures are emphasized to express the feelings of love or eroticism

Explanation

Indian Classical Dances

  • The Tri-bent pose, or Tribhanga, creates three curves at the neck, waist, and knee, reflecting an "S" shape.
  • Tribhanga, dating back over 2000 years, is a common pose in Indian art and sculpture.
Q11Indian CulturePainting, Music, Dance & Performing ArtsSchools of Indian Painting

Consider the following historical places:

  1. Ajanta Caves
  2. Lepakshi Temple
  3. Sanchi Stupa

Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    1 and 2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3

  4. D.

    None

Explanation

Mural Paintings

  • Option 1: Magnificent paintings in Ajanta, Ellora, and Elephanta caves.
  • Option 2: Lepakshi temple in Andhra Pradesh houses mural paintings of Vijayanagar kings. Selected for Republic Day parade.
  • Option 3: Sanchi known for sculptures, not painted designs like Ajanta. Sanchi Stupa is one of India's oldest Buddhist monuments.
Q12Ancient & Medieval History (India)Bhakti & Sufi MovementsBhakti Saints and Movements (North & South India)

Consider the following Bhakti Saints:

  1. Dadu Dayal
  2. Guru Nanak
  3. Tyagaraja

Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell and Babur took over?

  1. A.

    1 and 3

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3

  4. D.

    1 and 2

Explanation

Bhakti Movement Option (b) is correct: Guru Nanak preached during the fall of the Lodi dynasty, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th-19th century, much later than the fall of the Lodi dynasty.

  • Guru Nanak, born in 1469, preached Sikhism during Babur's consolidation of the Mughal dynasty in India post his victory over Ibrahim Lodhi in the First battle of Panipat in 1526.
  • Tyagaraja, a Carnatic music composer, was born in 1767.
  • Daddu Dayal, a poet-saint of Gujarat, was born in 1544. Guru Nanak:
  • Born near Lahore in Talwandi, Guru Nanak's birth anniversary is commemorated as Guru Nanak Gurpurab.
  • He embarked on spiritual journeys through India, Tibet, and Arabia for nearly 30 years.
  • Guru Nanak spent his final years in Kartarpur, Punjab, where he imparted teachings.
  • He propagated the idea of one God and advocated for direct access to God without intermediaries.
  • Guru Nanak denounced the caste system and championed equality regardless of gender or caste.
  • He introduced the concept of “Vahiguru,” representing a formless, timeless, omnipresent, and invisible being.
  • Guru Granth Sahib, the Sikhs’ most sacred book, comprises 974 of Guru Nanak’s poetic hymns. Daddu Dayal:
  • Born into Ahmedabad’s weaving community, Daddu Dayal preached Nirgunabhakthi.
  • His teachings were compiled into the book “Dadu Dayaram ki Bani.”
Q13Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:

  1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul.
  2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Indian School of Philosophy Statement 1: Incorrect. Samkhya philosophy believes in the theory of rebirth, as it's an Orthodox Indian philosophical system rooted in the soul and karma theory. Statement 2: Correct. Samkhya Philosophy is dualistic, positing two entities, Purush (spirit) and Prakriti (nature), emphasizing the attainment of self-knowledge through concentration and meditation.

Q14Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while the others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?

  1. A.

    Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks.

  2. B.

    Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks.

    Correct
  3. C.

    Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it

  4. D.

    There is no material difference between the two.

Explanation

Basic Understanding of Buddhism Option (b) is correct: Chaitya serves as a place of worship, while Viharas are the dwelling places of monks.

  • Chaitya, a place of worship, housed a rectangular prayer room with a central stupa for offerings.
  • Viharas initially served as dwelling places for wandering monks during the rainy season but evolved into centers of learning through the donations of wealthy lay Buddhists.
Q15Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?

  1. A.

    The extinction of the flame of desire

    Correct
  2. B.

    The complete annihilation of self

  3. C.

    A state of bliss and rest

  4. D.

    A mental stage beyond all comprehension

Explanation

Buddhism Option (a) is correct: Nirvana in Buddhism signifies freedom from desire, pain, and pleasure, akin to the extinguishing of a flame.

  • Nirvana is described as the extinguishing of three fires: greed, aversion, and ignorance, leading to liberation from the cycle of rebirth.
Q16Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?

  1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practise penance.
  2. Every object, even the smallest particle, has a soul.
  3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Jainism Option (d) is correct: Jainism advocates penance as the primary means to annihilate Karma and attain liberation.

  • Jainism asserts that every entity, even the smallest particle, possesses a soul and that Karma must be eradicated to achieve liberation.
  • The three Jewels of Jainism are Right Faith, Right Knowledge, and Right Action, while its five doctrines include principles like Ahimsa (non-injury) and Satya (truthfulness).
Q17Indian CultureArchitecture & SculptureAncient & Medieval Temple Architecture

With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:

  1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
  2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
  3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ancient Indian Architecture Statement 1: The Chalukya dynasty built the Badami caves in the 6th century in their capital, formerly known as Vatapinagar. The Barabar caves, the oldest rock-cut caves in India, predate them. Statement 2: Emperor Ashoka commissioned the Barabar caves, situated in the Jehanabad district of Bihar. Statement 3: The Ellora caves, constructed during the Rashtrakuta dynasty, encompass Hindu, Buddhist, and Jain monuments and are recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage site.

Q18EnvironmentConservation & Protected AreasNational Parks

Consider the following pairs:

1. Nokrek Biosphere ReserveGaro Hills
2. Logtak (Loktak) LakeBarail Range
3. Namdapha National ParkDafla Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1, 2, and 3

  4. D.

    None

Explanation

Pair 1: Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya. Pair 2: Loktak Lake in Manipur is known for the phumdis floating above it, housing Keibul Lamjao National Park, the world's only floating national park. Pair 3: Namdapha National Park in Arunachal Pradesh has dipterocarp woods, known for its rich biodiversity.

Q19Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsMiscellaneous

Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

Geographical FeatureRegion
1. Abyssinian PlateauArabia
2. Atlas MountainsNorth-Western Africa
3. Guiana HighlandsSouth-Western Africa
4. Okavango BasinPatagonia
  1. A.

    Abyssinian Plateau - Arabia

  2. B.

    Atlas Mountains - North-Western Africa

    Correct
  3. C.

    Guiana Highlands - South-Western Africa

  4. D.

    Okavango Basin - Patagonia

Explanation

World Map

  • Atlas Mountain: Situated in Northwest Africa, dividing the Sahara Desert from the Mediterranean and Atlantic coasts.
  • Abyssinian Plateau: Located in Ethiopia, formerly known as Abyssinia, and is crossed by the Blue Nile.
  • Okavango Basin: In southwest Africa, comprising Botswana, Namibia, Zimbabwe, Angola, and other countries.
  • Guiana Highlands: In South America, situated south of the Orinoco River and north of the Amazon River.
Q20Physical Geography (World)OceanographyOcean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves

The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where :

  1. A.

    Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet

  2. B.

    Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea

  3. C.

    Warm and cold oceanic currents meet

    Correct
  4. D.

    Continental shelf is undulating

Explanation

Ocean Currents Option (c): Correct - Regions where warm and cold currents meet are rich in plankton, attracting abundant fish. Examples: Newfoundland, seas north of Japan.

Q21Geography of IndiaSoils & Natural VegetationSoil Types and Conservation

Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct? :

  1. They are generally red in color.
  2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
  3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
  4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3

  2. B.

    2, 3, and 4

  3. C.

    1 and 4

    Correct
  4. D.

    2 and 3 only

Explanation

Soil Characteristics Laterite soil is reddish-brown due to iron oxide, found in regions like Karnataka and Kerala. It is suitable for crops like groundnut, cashew, coffee, rubber, etc.

Q22Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesMetallic & Non-Metallic Minerals

Consider the following statements :

  1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
  2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
  3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 and 2

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3

  4. D.

    None

Explanation

Gondwana System Statement 1: Incorrect - Gondwana rocks contain India's coal reserves, not petroleum. Statement 2: Correct - Koderma is renowned for mica production. Statement 3: Incorrect - Dharwar rocks yield valuable minerals like iron-ore, manganese, and copper, not petroleum.

Q23Physical Geography (World)Geomorphology & LandformsInterior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes

Consider the following :

  1. Electromagnetic radiation
  2. Geothermal energy
  3. Gravitational force
  4. Plate movements
  5. Rotation of the earth
  6. Revolution of the earth

Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?

  1. A.

    1, 2, 3, and 4 only

  2. B.

    1, 3, 5, and 6 only

  3. C.

    2, 4, 5, and 6 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6

    Correct

Explanation

Dynamic Changes of The Earth Factors of The Dynamic Changes of The Earth:

  • Electromagnetic Radiation: Travels in waves with electric and magnetic fields, including X-rays, gamma rays, infrared light, visible light, ultraviolet light, radio waves, and microwaves.
  • Geothermal Energy: The primary source for endogenic geomorphic processes, sourced from radioactivity, friction from tidal and rotational motion, and primordial heat from the earth’s formation.
  • Gravitational Force: Activates downward motions and stresses the earth’s constituent parts, leading to phenomena like mass movement and avalanches.
  • Plate Movements: Responsible for earthquakes and continent building.
  • Rotation of the Earth: Unequal heating generates pressure differences and winds due to the earth's rotation about its axis.
  • Revolution of the Earth: The elliptical orbit around the sun causes variations in distance known as "Aphelion" (greatest distance) and "Perihelion" (shortest distance).
Q24Geography of IndiaSoils & Natural VegetationSoil Types and Conservation

Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in:

  1. A.

    Desert margins, liable to strong wind action

  2. B.

    Low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding

  3. C.

    Scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth

  4. D.

    None of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Soil Conservation Option (d) is correct: Contour bunding, used in terrace farming, is a method of soil conservation.

  • Terracing and Contour Bunding: Divides hill slopes into smaller slopes, checking water flow, promoting water absorption, and preventing soil erosion.
  • Soil Conservation: Preventing soil erosion or diminished fertility due to excessive use, acidification, salinization, or other chemical soil contamination.
  • Contour Bunding: Construction of banks along contours to conserve soil and water, especially in affluent areas.
Q25EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemBiogeochemical Cycles (Carbon, Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Sulphur)

Which of the following adds nitrogen to the soil? :

  1. Excretion of urea by animals
  2. Burning of coal by man
  3. Death of vegetation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Soil Fertility Statements 1 and 3 are correct:

  • Animal waste and vegetation death add nitrogen directly to the soil in the form of nitrates.
  • Burning coal releases air pollutants like CO, CO2, sulphur dioxide, and oxides of nitrogen.
Q26Physical Geography (World)BiogeographySoils, Vegetation & Forestry

Which of the following is/are unique characteristic/characteristics of equatorial forests?

  1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
  2. Coexistence of a large number of species
  3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Major Climate of the World Statement 1: Tropical rainforests appear as dense green canopies, occasionally interrupted by rivers or cleared areas for farming. Statement 2: Higher temperatures in the tropics lead to increased metabolism rates, ecological dynamics, and biodiversity, fostering the coexistence of numerous species. Statement 3: Equatorial vegetation comprises evergreen trees like mahogany and ebony, forming odd layer structures. Natural Vegetation:

  • High temperatures and abundant rainfall support lush tropical rainforests.
  • The dense Amazon lowlands are known as 'Selvas.'
Q27Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereClimate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/reasons?

  1. Thermal difference between land and water
  2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
  3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
  4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    1 and 2 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Distribution of Earth's Temperature Statement 1: Land and ocean distribution significantly impacts Earth's temperature distribution, with continents losing heat faster due to differing specific heat capacities. Statement 2: Altitude variation between continents and oceans does not explain the higher annual temperature range in continental interiors compared to coastal areas. Statement 3: Interior areas typically receive low annual precipitation and experience weak winds. Statement 4: Central Asian interiors receive minimal rainfall due to their distance from the sea.

Q28Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereClimate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams

“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?

  1. A.

    African Savannah

  2. B.

    Central Asian Steppe

    Correct
  3. C.

    North American Prairie

  4. D.

    Siberian Tundra

Explanation

Biomes/World Climate Steppe Climate or Temperate Grassland Climate: Temperature:

  • Extreme temperature fluctuations characterize this continental climate.
  • Temperatures vary significantly between summer and winter. Precipitation:
  • Average rainfall ranges from 25 cm to 75 cm, with the heaviest rainfall occurring in June and July. Nomadic herding in Asian Steppes:
  • Traditional migratory animal grazing has declined among major grasslands inhabited by nomadic tribes like the Kirghiz and Kazakhs.
Q29Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereAtmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds

During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the:

  1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
  2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
  3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3

  3. C.

    1 and 3

  4. D.

    None of the above produces the thunder

    Correct

Explanation

Wind Movement Statement 1: Thunder results from lightning heating the air and causing a shock wave, not from thundercloud formations. Statement 2: Thunderstorms are associated with cumulonimbus clouds, not nimbus clouds. Statement 3: Updrafts and downdrafts influence the path of thunderstorms. Additional Information:

  • Cumulonimbus clouds are tall, dense clouds associated with thunderstorms, capable of producing heavy rain, hail, lightning, and tornadoes.
  • Nimbus clouds are low-level clouds that typically produce light to moderate rain or snow, often appearing as a uniform layer of gray or white covering the sky.
Q30Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesConventional & Renewable Energy Resources

Which of the following is/are the characteristic/characteristics of Indian coal?

  1. High ash content
  2. Low sulphur content
  3. Low ash fusion temperature

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Major Mineral Option (a): Indian coal is characterized by high ash content and low sulfur content. Indian coal is extensively used for power generation and industrial purposes due to its properties.

Q31Economic Geography (India)Agriculture & CroppingCropping Seasons, Patterns & Major Crops

Consider the following crops

  1. Cotton
  2. Groundnut
  3. Rice
  4. Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

  1. A.

    1 and 4 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Major Crops Option (c): Cotton, Groundnut, and Rice are Kharif crops in India, sown during June-July and harvested in September-October. Kharif crops include rice, maize, jowar, bajra, moong, tur, urad, jute, cotton, soybean, and groundnut, among others.

Q32Economic Geography (India)Industry & TransportIndustrial Regions and Major Industries

Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?

  1. A.

    Engineering

  2. B.

    Paper and pulp

  3. C.

    Textiles

  4. D.

    Thermal power

    Correct

Explanation

Water consumption Water consumption in various industries:

  • Engineering: 2019.9 million cubic meters annually
  • Paper and pulp: 905.8 million cubic meters annually
  • Textiles: 829.8 million cubic meters annually
  • Thermal power plants: 35,157.4 million cubic meters annually
Q33Geography of IndiaPopulation & Human GeographyPopulation Distribution, Density & Growth

Consider the following pairs:

TribeStates
1. Limboo (Limbu)Sikkim
2. Karbi HimachalPradesh
3. Dongaria KondhOdisha
4. BondaTamil Nadu

Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 4 only

  3. C.

    1, 3, and 4 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Tribes of India:

  • Correct pairs: Sikkim: Tamang, Limbu, Bhutia, Khas, Lepchas; Odisha: Dongaria.
  • Incorrect pairs: Karbi Anglong: Karbi; Odisha: Bonda.
Q34Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainageRiver Systems and Drainage Patterns

The Narmada River flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?

  1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
  2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
  3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3

  3. C.

    1 and 3

  4. D.

    None

Explanation

West Flowing Peninsular Rivers:

  • Narmada and Tapi flow through faults formed due to the northern peninsula's bending during Himalayan formation.
  • Narmada flows westward through rift valleys, not due to land slopes.
Q35EnvironmentConservation & Protected AreasNational Parks

Consider the following pairs:

National ParkRiver flowing through the Park
1. Corbett National ParkGanga
2. Kaziranga National ParkManas
3. Silent Valley National ParkKaveri

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1 and 2

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3

  4. D.

    None

    Correct

Explanation

Geography of Protected Areas:

  • Incorrect pairs: Ramganga, Sonanadi, Mandal, Palain, Kosi in Corbett National Park; Kaziranga circumscribed by the Brahmaputra and Mora Diphlu Rivers.
  • Kunthipuzha River drains Silent Valley Park.
Q36Physical Geography (World)Climatology & AtmosphereMiscellaneous

Variations in the length of daytime and nighttime from season to season are due to:

  1. A.

    The earth’s rotation on its axis

  2. B.

    The earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner

  3. C.

    Latitudinal position of the place

  4. D.

    Revolution of the earth on a tilted axis

    Correct

Explanation

Motion of the Earth

  • Option (d) is correct: Variations in daylight and nighttime are due to the Earth's tilt and revolution around the sun, causing seasonal changes.
  • Movement around the sun takes approximately 365¼ days, resulting in seasonal fluctuations.
Q37ChemistryImportant Chemicals & Compounds in NewsIndustrial & Agricultural Chemicals

With reference to the usefulness of the byproducts of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
  2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilizers.
  3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Byproduct of Sugar Industry Statement 1: Bagasse can be used for generating heat energy and electricity. Statement 3: Molasses can be used for producing ethanol and as a prime ingredient in distilling alcoholic beverages.

Q38EnvironmentPollutionWater Pollution & Bodies

Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?

  1. Arsenic
  2. Sorbitol
  3. Fluoride
  4. Formaldehyde
  5. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 3 only

  2. B.

    2, 4, and 5 only

  3. C.

    1, 3, and 5 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Explanation

  • Arsenic, Fluoride, and Uranium are common pollutants in drinking water. Water Pollution:
  • Water pollution results from human activities contaminating water bodies.
  • Point pollution sources are well-defined, while non-point sources are spread over larger areas.
  • Agricultural runoff, sewage, industrial effluents, thermal pollution, oil spills, and other economic activities contribute to water pollution.
  • Groundwater pollutants in India include Arsenic, Fluoride, Iron, Uranium, Nitrate, and Salinity.
  • Sorbitol is not a groundwater pollutant but a sugar alcohol found in fruits and plants, while Formaldehyde, used to preserve fish, is banned in fresh foods in India.
Q39EnvironmentPollutionSolid Waste Management

Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

  1. Beryllium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. Heptachlor
  5. Mercury
  6. Lead
  7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only

  2. B.

    1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2, 4, 5, and 7 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7

Explanation

Waste Management E-WASTE:

  • E-waste refers to discarded electrical or electronic equipment.
  • India's first e-waste clinic is located in Bhopal.
Q40EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment by

  1. A.

    Carbon dioxide and nitrogen

  2. B.

    Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

  3. C.

    Ozone and carbon dioxide

  4. D.

    Nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide

    Correct

Explanation

Air Pollution

  • Nitrous oxide and Sulphur dioxide are responsible for Acid rain formation.
  • Acid rain occurs when pollutants like SO2 and NOx react with water and other chemicals, leading to the formation of sulfuric and nitric acids, causing various environmental harms.
Q41EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among

  1. A.

    NO2, O3, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

    Correct
  2. B.

    CO, O2, and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight

  3. C.

    CO, CO2, and NO2 at low temperature

  4. D.

    High concentration of NO2, O3, and CO in the evening

Explanation

Air Pollution

  • NO2, O3, and peroxyacetyl nitrate react in sunlight to form Photochemical Smog, also known as summer smog.
Q42BiologyMicroorganismsBacteria, Viruses & Fungi – Structure & Classification

Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by the normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by:

  1. A.

    bacteria

  2. B.

    protozoa

  3. C.

    moulds

    Correct
  4. D.

    viruses

Explanation

General Science

  • Fungi produce Aflatoxins, poisonous substances that contaminate food crops, posing health risks to humans and livestock.
  • Aflatoxins thrive in high temperatures and humid climates, causing economic losses by destroying food crops.
Q43EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

Consider the following fauna and India:

  1. Gharial
  2. Leatherback turtle
  3. Swamp deer

Which of the above is/are endangered?

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct
  4. D.

    None

Explanation

Endangered species: Gharial (Critically Endangered), Mugger crocodile (Vulnerable), Saltwater crocodile (Least Concern).

Q44EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

Consider the following:

  1. Star tortoise
  2. Monitor lizard
  3. Pygmy hog
  4. Spider monkey

Which of the above are naturally found in India?

  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 4 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Star tortoise, Monitor lizard, Pygmy hog found in India. Spider Monkey found in Central and South America.

Q45BiologyAnimal BiologyClassification of Animals (incl. Endangered/Extinct e.g. Dodo, Cassowary)

Consider the following animals:

  1. Sea cow
  2. Sea horse
  3. Sea lion

Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Sea Cow (Dugong) and Sea Lion are mammals. Sea Horse is a bony fish.

Q46BiologyMicroorganismsBeneficial Microbes (Probiotics, Fermentation)

Consider the following organisms:

  1. Agaricus
  2. Nostoc
  3. Spirogyra

Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?

  1. A.

    1 and 2

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3

  4. D.

    3 only

Explanation

Bio-fertilizers: Nostoc fixes nitrogen, Spirogyra not used as biofertilizer.

Q47EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Kerala
  3. Karnataka
  4. Andhra Pradesh

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    1, 3, and 4 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, and 4

Explanation

Lion-tailed Macaque: Endemic to Western Ghats.

Q48EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemFood Web & Energy Transfer

With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?

  1. Virus
  2. Fungi
  3. Bacteria

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Biotic Components

  • Fungi and bacteria are decomposers in ecosystems.
  • Decomposers break down dead organisms or waste.
  • They play a vital role in nutrient recycling.
Q49EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemEcosystem Concepts

In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of:

  1. A.

    Insects and fungi

  2. B.

    Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients

  3. C.

    Water limits and fire

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Ecological Succession

  • Water scarcity and fire influence the transition from grasslands to deserts.
  • Grasslands develop in areas with limited rainfall.
  • Over time, grasslands can transform into desert ecosystems.
Q50EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemFood Web & Energy Transfer

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?

  1. A.

    Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves

  2. B.

    Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes

  3. C.

    Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans

    Correct
  4. D.

    Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands

Explanation

Energy Flow

  • Ocean productivity is lower compared to land.
  • Salt marshes and mangroves have high productivity.
  • Productivity is the rate of biomass production in ecosystems.
Q51EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemFood Web & Energy Transfer

With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:

  1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
  2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
  3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism which are eaten by others.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    1 and 2 only

  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3

  4. D.

    None

Explanation

Food Chain

  • A food chain represents the transfer of energy and nutrients between organisms.
  • Each organism occupies a trophic level.
  • Food webs illustrate the complex interactions among species.
Q52EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemEcological Niche

Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms?

  1. A.

    Ecotone

  2. B.

    Ecological niche

    Correct
  3. C.

    Habitat

  4. D.

    Home range

Explanation

Ecological Community

  • An ecological niche includes the physical space occupied by an organism and its functional role in the community.
  • No two species have exactly the same niche.
  • Ecotones are transition zones between ecosystems.
Q53EnvironmentEcology & EcosystemEcosystem Concepts

On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion:

  1. A.

    is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds

  2. B.

    is found in freshwater lakes and rivers

  3. C.

    exists as groundwater

    Correct
  4. D.

    exists as soil moisture

Explanation

Water Conservation Option (c) is correct: Ground has the largest portion of freshwater after ice caps and glaciers. Water Resources:

  • About 71% of Earth's surface is water-covered.
  • Majority of Earth's water is in seas and oceans (over 97%), termed saline water.
  • Remaining water is freshwater.
  • Freshwater forms: snow caps, icebergs, glaciers → groundwater → soil moisture → freshwater lakes → atmosphere → rivers.
Q54Applied Science & TechnologyBio-TechnologyBiotechnology Applications

Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to

  1. Resist drought and increase absorptive area
  2. Tolerate extremes of pH
  3. Resist disease infestation
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Mycorrhizal Biotechnology Mycorrhizal fungi in tree roots help absorb nutrients from the soil and resist drought.

  • Exchange carbon from trees for essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphate, and potassium.
  • Enable plants to withstand adverse soil conditions, high pH levels, droughts, and heavy metal toxicity.
  • Mycorrhizae foster symbiotic relationships between plant roots and specific soil fungi, vital for nutrient cycling and plant protection.
Q55BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyRecombinant DNA Technology & GM Organisms

Recombination DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred:

  1. Across different species of plants
  2. From animals to plants
  3. From microorganisms to higher organisms
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

DNA Technology/Genetic Engineering Involves altering genetic material outside an organism to produce living organisms or products with desired traits.

  • DNA fragments with desired gene sequences are inserted using appropriate vectors.
  • Manipulates an organism's genome by introducing new genes or regulatory elements or reducing/excluding expression of endogenous genes.
  • Facilitates gene transfer across different species, from microorganisms to higher organisms.
Q56BiologyMicroorganismsBacteria, Viruses & Fungi – Structure & Classification

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
  2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
  3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only
  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Virus

  • Viruses lack the cellular machinery for independent survival and reproduce by infecting host cells.
  • Tattoos can transmit diseases if instruments are not sterilized, highlighting the importance of hygiene in tattoo parlors.
Q57BiologyDiseasesCommunicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)

Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?

  1. Chikungunya
  2. Hepatitis B
  3. HIV-AIDS
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Disease transmission: Tattoos may cause diseases because tattoo instruments come in contact with blood and bodily fluids if used on more than one person without being sterilised. However, tattoo-related infections are rare in contemporary tattoo parlours using single-use needles.

Q58BiologyHuman Physiology & SystemsSkeletal System & Calcium

Consider the following minerals:

  1. Calcium
  2. Iron
  3. Sodium

Which of the minerals given above is/are required by the human body for the contraction of muscles?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Components of Food/Balanced Diet Minerals like calcium, iron, and sodium aid muscle contraction and energy production.

Q59BiologyPlant BiologyPhotosynthesis & Plant Physiology

Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because

  1. A.

    Exposure to sunlight is prevented

  2. B.

    Concentration of carbon dioxide in the environment is increased

  3. C.

    Rate of respiration is decreased

    Correct
  4. D.

    There is an increase in humidity

Explanation

Respiration and Fruit Preservation: Controlling respiration by lowering temperature after harvest helps preserve fruits and vegetables, as respiration is a manifestation of metabolic activity. Lower respiration rate allows the product to survive off its existing nutrients, delaying degradation.

Q60PhysicsMechanics & MotionFriction, Work, Energy & Power

Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc., because–

  1. A.

    The actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

  2. B.

    The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased

  3. C.

    The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above statements is correct

Explanation

Ball bearings reduce friction between surfaces, supporting loads and lessening rotational friction in bicycles, vehicle axles, etc. They are spherical, rolling rather than dragging, with rolling friction being the least forceful.

Q61PhysicsOptics & SoundReflection, Refraction & Lenses

Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?

  1. Dispersion
  2. Refraction
  3. Internal reflection

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct

Explanation

A rainbow results from light reflection, refraction, and dispersion in water droplets, forming a multicolored circular arc opposite the Sun.

Q62BiologyPlant BiologyPlant Adaptations

Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because

  1. A.

    The new soil does not contain favorable minerals

  2. B.

    Most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard

  3. C.

    Most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation

    Correct
  4. D.

    Leaves get damaged during transplantation

Explanation

Transplanted seedlings suffer transplant shock from root injury, affecting water absorption and root establishment, making them vulnerable to stress and water shortage.

Q63PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsStandard Model of Particle Physics

The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force, and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?

  1. A.

    Gravity is the strongest of the four

    Correct
  2. B.

    Electromagnetism acts only on particles with an electric charge

  3. C.

    Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity

  4. D.

    Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom

Explanation

Fundamental forces include gravitational, weak and strong nuclear, and electromagnetic forces, each with specific characteristics and roles in physics.

Q64PhysicsOptics & SoundReflection, Refraction & Lenses

Consider the following statements:

  1. Size of the sun at dusk
  2. Color of the sun at dawn
  3. Moon being visible at dawn
  4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
  5. Polestar being visible in the sky

Which of the above are optical illusions?

  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3

  2. B.

    3, 4, and 5

  3. C.

    1, 2, and 4

    Correct
  4. D.

    2, 3, and 5

Explanation

Optical illusions are visually perceived images differing from reality due to brain processing. They challenge the accuracy of perception compared to physical measurements. Statement 1 correction: The sun appears larger at dusk due to distant objects near the horizon. Statement 2 correction: The red color of the sun at dawn results from its light spectrum properties. Statement 3 correction: The moon is visible in the sky at dawn throughout its phase cycle. Statement 4 correction: Stars appear to twinkle due to atmospheric refraction. Statement 5 correction: Polestars' visibility depends on Earth's rotation, not an optical illusion.

Q65PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsStandard Model of Particle Physics

The efforts to detect the existence of the Higgs boson particle have become frequent news in the recent past. What is/are the importance/importances of discovering this particle?

  1. It will enable us to understand why elementary particles have mass.
  2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology of transferring matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
  3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear missions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

The Higgs Boson, linked to the Higgs field, helps understand mass origins. While not directly enabling teleportation, it aids in understanding mass, objects, and space-time travel. Statement 1 correction: The Higgs boson contributes to understanding mass origins. Statement 2 correction: The Higgs Boson aids in comprehending mass and space-time travel. Statement 3 correction: The Higgs Boson may assist in developing an energy source for nuclear missions.

Q66Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.
  2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Election of Vice President: The Vice President of India is elected indirectly by an Electoral College comprising all members of Parliament. State governments do not participate in the election.

Q67Indian PolityJudiciaryAlternate Dispute Resolution, Tribunals & Judicial Activism

With reference to National Legal Services Authority consider the following statements:

  1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker section of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
  2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Legal Services Authority/Legal Aid

  1. Correct: NALSA provides free legal services.
  2. Correct: State Legal Service Authority follows NALSA's directives.
Q68Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

  1. A.

    To provide self-governance

  2. B.

    To recognize traditional rights

  3. C.

    To create autonomous regions in tribal areas

    Correct
  4. D.

    To free tribal people from exploitation

Explanation

PESA Act Option (c): PESA applies to 5th schedule areas, while autonomous regions in tribal areas fall under the 6th schedule.

Q69Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

  1. A.

    State Forest Department

  2. B.

    District Collector/Deputy Commissioner

  3. C.

    Tahsildar/Block Development Officer/Mandal Revenue Officer

  4. D.

    Gram Sabha

    Correct

Explanation

Power of Gram Sabha Forest Rights Act, 2006:

  • Recognizes forest rights and occupation in forest land to Forest Dwelling Scheduled Tribes (FDST) and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFD) residing in such forests for generations.
  • Empowers Gram Sabha and rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity, and maintaining ecological balance.
  • Strengthens conservation regime for forests, rectifying historical wrongs against OTFD and FDST, vital for forest ecosystem's sustainability.
Q70Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Which one of the following statements is correct?

  1. A.

    In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.

  2. B.

    The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.

  3. C.

    No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.

    Correct
  4. D.

    In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.

Explanation

Appointment of Governor/Administration of Union Territories Governors head states and act as agents of the Central Government.

Q71Indian PolityConstitution: Features, Preamble & CitizenshipPreamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy

'Economic Justice' as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitutional has been provided in:

  1. A.

    the Preamble and the Fundamental Rights

  2. B.

    the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy

    Correct
  3. C.

    the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy

  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Key Words in the Preamble and Socialistic principles of DPSP "Economic Justice" is a goal of the Indian Constitution, found in both the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Preamble:

  • "Justice" in the preamble includes social, economical, and political aspects, with economic justice emphasizing fair treatment regardless of economic status. Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP):
  • The Socialistic principles aim for social and economic justice, moving towards a welfare state.
  • The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced Article 38, urging the State to reduce inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities.
Q72Indian PolityFundamental Rights, DPSP & DutiesDirective Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

  1. A.

    Fundamental Rights

  2. B.

    Fundamental Duties

  3. C.

    Directive Principles of State Policy

    Correct
  4. D.

    Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Explanation

Features of the Directive Principles

  • Article 37 establishes Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) as fundamental to governance, though not enforceable by courts.
  • DPSP aims at a comprehensive socio-economic and political agenda, guiding legislative, executive, and administrative actions for a welfare state.
Q73Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Consider the following statements:

  1. The National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
  2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

NDC / Planning Commission / NITI AAYOG Statements 1, 2, and 3: NDC and Planning Commission are abolished, with planning responsibilities under the Concurrent List and PRIs.

Q74Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?

  1. The Prime Minister
  2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
  3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
  4. Chief Ministers of the States

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    1, 2 and 3 only

  2. B.

    1, 3 and 4 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 4 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

NDC/Planning Commission/NITI AAYOG Option (b): NDC includes the Prime Minister, Union Cabinet, CMs, and Union Territory chiefs, excluding the Finance Commission chairman.

Q75Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesNon-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?

  1. National Development Council
  2. Planning Commission
  3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

NDC / Planning Commission / NITI Ayog Non-constitutional bodies include NDC, Planning Commission, and Zonal Councils.

Q76Indian PolityConstitutional AmendmentsConstitutional Amendment Process

Consider the following statements:

  1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.
  2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

Explanation

Procedure for the Amendment Statement 1 is incorrect: An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by the introduction of a bill in either house of the Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect: If the bill seeks to amend the Federal provisions of the Constitution, then it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority.

Q77Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts:

  1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
  2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of the Government.
  3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Parliamentary Committee Statement 1: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts comprises 22 members, with a term of one year. Statement 2: It scrutinizes the Government's appropriation and finance accounts.

Q78Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
  2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
  3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Functions of Parliament Statement 1: The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, not the entire Parliament. Statement 2: Ministers hold office at the President's pleasure. Statement 3: The PM communicates decisions to the President regarding the administration and legislation.

Q79Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

  1. A.

    The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

    Correct
  2. B.

    The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

  3. C.

    The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration

  4. D.

    The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Explanation

Sub-Theme: Money Bill Money Bills concern financial matters, introduced only in Lok Sabha, with Rajya Sabha's limited power, requiring the Speaker's certification. Additional Information: Rajya Sabha can only suggest amendments, returning the bill to Lok Sabha.

Q80Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties:

  1. A.

    with the consent of all the States

  2. B.

    with the consent of the majority of States

  3. C.

    with the consent of the States concerned

  4. D.

    without the consent of any State

    Correct

Explanation

Functions of Parliament Parliament legislates on Union and Concurrent List matters, with expanded powers during emergencies or for treaty implementations.

Q81Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePrime Minister & Council of Ministers

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are, implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?

  1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
  2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
  3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Forms of Government Parliamentary System:

  • Executive is accountable to the legislature.
  • Cabinet members are also parliamentarians.
  • Ministers hold office as long as they have parliamentary confidence.
  • President is the nominal executive, not heading the cabinet.
Q82Indian PolityConstitutional & Statutory BodiesConstitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)

Consider the following statements: Attorney General of India can

  1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
  2. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha
  3. speak in the Lok Sabha
  4. vote in the Lok Sabha

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 4

  3. C.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct
  4. D.

    1 and 3 only

Explanation

Attorney General of India Article 76 of the Constitution covers Attorney General appointments and roles.

Q83EconomyExternal SectorBalance of Payments

Which of the following constitute a Capital Account?

  1. Foreign Loans
  2. Foreign Direct Investment
  3. Private Remittances
  4. Portfolio Investment
  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3

  2. B.

    1, 2, and 4

    Correct
  3. C.

    2, 3, and 4

  4. D.

    1, 3, and 4

Explanation

BoP 1, 2, and 4 are correct: The capital account tracks changes in asset ownership for a country, including Foreign Direct Investment, Portfolio Investment, foreign loans, and reserve account adjustments. Statement 3 is incorrect: Private remittances are part of the Current account, not the Capital account. Balance of Payment (BoP):

  • Records all economic transactions between one country's residents and those of another country in a financial year.
  • Comprises balance of trade, current account, and capital account.
  • Positive Balance/Trade Surplus: Country exports more than imports.
  • Negative Balance/Trade Deficit: Imports exceed exports.
  • BoP categorizes transactions into two accounts:
    1. Current account
    2. Capital account
Q84EconomyExternal SectorForeign Exchange Management

Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign-exchange reserves?

  1. A.

    Foreign-currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs), and loans from foreign countries

  2. B.

    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI, and SDRs

    Correct
  3. C.

    Foreign-currency assets, loans from the World Bank, and SDRs

  4. D.

    Foreign-currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI, and loans from the World Bank

Explanation

Forex Reserve Legal provisions for managing foreign exchange reserves are established by the Reserve Bank of India Act and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. RBI builds reserves by purchasing foreign currency from authorized dealers in open market operations. India's reserves include foreign currency assets (FCA), gold, special drawing rights (SDRs), and reserve tranche position (RTP) in the International Monetary Fund (IMF).

Q85EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentTypes of Unemployment

Disguised unemployment generally means

  1. A.

    Large number of people remain unemployed

  2. B.

    Alternative employment is not available

  3. C.

    Marginal productivity of labor is zero

    Correct
  4. D.

    Productivity of workers is low

Explanation

Unemployment

  • Unemployment occurs when capable individuals actively seeking work can't find employment. Calculated by dividing jobless persons by the total labour force, the unemployment rate is a key indicator.
  • Disguised unemployment, common in agriculture, implies surplus labour with zero marginal productivity, where removing extra workers won't affect productivity.
Q86EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyInflation Control

Consider the following statements:

  1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
  2. Inflation benefits the bond-holders.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Inflation:

  • Inflation diminishes purchasing power, benefiting debtors over creditors.
  • Bondholders suffer from inflation.
Q87EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyInflation Control

Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?

  1. A.

    Repayment of public debt

  2. B.

    Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit

  3. C.

    Borrowings from banks to finance a budget deficit

  4. D.

    Creating new money to finance a budget deficit

    Correct

Explanation

Inflation - Budget Deficit:

  • Borrowing for budget deficits decreases money supply.
  • Creating new money for deficits increases inflationary effects.
  • Borrowing from the public through bonds does not cause inflation.
Q88EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyInflation Control

A rise in the general level of prices may be caused by:

  1. An increase in the money supply
  2. A decrease in the aggregate level of output
  3. An increase in the effective demand

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    1 and 2 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Inflation

  • Correct: Factors contributing to rising prices include increased money supply, decreased output, and increased demand.
  • Correct: Inflation defined as rise in prices, eroding purchasing power.
  • Causes include increased demand, reduced supply, excess money circulation, among others.
  • In India, inflation measured by Wholesale Price Index (WPI) and Consumer Price Index (CPI).
Q89EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentEmployment Schemes

To obtain full benefits of the demographic dividend, what should India do?

  1. A.

    Promoting skill development

    Correct
  2. B.

    Introducing more social security schemes

  3. C.

    Reducing infant mortality rate

  4. D.

    Privatization of higher education

Explanation

Demographic Dividend:

  • Skill development initiatives aim to enhance youth employability.
  • Government schemes like 'Skill India' focus on skilling/upskilling the workforce.
Q90EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyMoney Supply

Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be:

  1. A.

    A fall in the level of prices

  2. B.

    An increase in the rate of interest

    Correct
  3. C.

    A decrease in the rate of interest

  4. D.

    An increase in the level of income and employment

Explanation

Inflation

  • Increased money demand without supply raises interest rates, encouraging savings over spending.
Q91EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to:

  1. A.

    Borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI

  2. B.

    Lending by commercial banks to industry and trade

  3. C.

    Purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above

Explanation

Monetary Policy

  • Open Market Operations involve buying and selling securities by the RBI.
Q92EconomyBankingPriority Sector Lending (PSL)

Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to:

  1. A.

    Agriculture

  2. B.

    Micro and small enterprises

  3. C.

    Weaker sections

  4. D.

    All of the above

    Correct

Explanation

Priority Sector

  • RBI mandates lending to specified sectors under PSL.
Q93EconomyBankingCommercial Banks

Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?

  1. Regional Rural Banks
  2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
  3. Land Development Banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Banking Roles and Functions/Credit Assistance

  • RRBs aim to provide credit facilities to rural communities.
  • NABARD focuses on rural development, not direct credit assistance.
  • Land Development Banks offer long-term loans for farm equipment.
Q94EconomyBankingBanking Reforms

The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of:

  1. Liquidity of assets
  2. Branch expansion
  3. Merger of banks
  4. Winding-up of banks

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. A.

    1 and 4 only

  2. B.

    2, 3 and 4 only

  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3 and 4

    Correct

Explanation

Functions of RBI

  • RBI regulates banks and authorizes branch openings.
  • M&A deals in banking may need clearance from RBI and CCI.
  • RBI may order bank winding-up under DICGC scheme.
Q95EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyMoney Supply

Consider the following liquid assets:

  1. Demand deposits with the banks
  2. Time deposits with the banks
  3. Savings deposits with the banks
  4. Currency

The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is

  1. A.

    1-4-3-2

  2. B.

    4-3-2-1

  3. C.

    2-3-1-4

  4. D.

    4-1-3-2

    Correct

Explanation

Money Supply

  • Demand deposits are most liquid, followed by savings deposits and time deposits.
Q96EconomyNational Income & MeasuresEconomic Growth Indicators

Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if:

  1. A.

    There is technical progress in the world economy

  2. B.

    There is population growth in X

  3. C.

    There is capital formation in X

    Correct
  4. D.

    The volume of trade grows in the world economy

Explanation

Economic Growth and Development

  • Capital formation adds to a nation's stock of capital goods, boosting development.
  • Technical advancements require investment but may lead to unemployment.
  • The volume of trade affects a nation's overall trade surplus or deficit.
Q97EconomyNational Income & MeasuresNational Income Calculation

The national income of a country for a given period is equal to the:

  1. A.

    Total value of goods and services produced by the nationals

  2. B.

    Sum of total consumption and investment expenditure

  3. C.

    Sum of personal income of all individuals

  4. D.

    Money value of final goods and service produced

    Correct

Explanation

National Income

  • National income represents the monetary value of goods and services produced in a nation.
  • It includes wages, interest, rent, and profit received by factors of production.
Q98EconomyExternal SectorBalance of Payments

The balance of payments of a country is a systematic record of:

  1. A.

    All import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year

    Correct
  2. B.

    Goods exported from a country during a year

  3. C.

    Economic transaction between the government of one country to another

  4. D.

    Capital movements from one country to another

Explanation

BoP

  • The balance of payments records transactions in goods, services, and assets between residents of a country and the rest of the world.
Q99EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the:

  1. A.

    Market rate of interest is likely to fall

  2. B.

    Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks

  3. C.

    Central Bank is following an easy money policy

  4. D.

    Central Bank is following a tight money policy

    Correct

Explanation

Monetary Policy/Money and Banking

  • Bank rate is the rate at which the RBI lends to banks, affecting inflation.
Q100EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationGovernment Budgeting – Revenue & Capital Accounts

In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for:

  1. A.

    Economic development

    Correct
  2. B.

    Redemption of public debt

  3. C.

    Adjusting the balance of payments

  4. D.

    Reducing the foreign debt

Explanation

Budget Option (a) correct: Deficit financing covers spending exceeding income. The government borrows through bond sales or printing money, often necessary for developing countries like India with private sectors hesitant to spend. Deficits are funded through borrowing or printing currency.

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