Q1Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote
- A.Correct
- B.
Coins of different monetary value
- C.
Classification of urban land
- D.
Explanation
Administrative Aspect of Gupta Age/Terminologies Based on Ancient India: The terms "Kulyavapa" and "Dronavapa" denote land measures during the Gupta period. "Kulyavapa" represented the area to sow one kulya of grain, while "Dronavapa" indicated the area for one drona of grain, essential terminologies for agricultural management.
Q2Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval) › Ancient & Medieval Trade Routes and Maritime Commerce
With reference to the period of the Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura, and Chaul were well known as:
- A.
Ports handling foreign trade
Correct - B.
Capitals of powerful kingdoms
- C.
Places of exquisite stone art and architecture
- D.
Important Buddhist pilgrimage centers
Explanation
Trades and Commerce during Gupta Age
The correct answer is Option (a): In India, trade with foreign empires dates to Harappan culture. Important among them were Lothal, Lakhabawal, Kindarkhera, Kuntasi, Megham, Prabhasa, Todio, and Amra. This tradition continued through the Mauryan and Gupta empires. India had commercial and cultural ties with nearly all of the Southeast Asian nations as well as Egypt, Rome, the Greeks, Arabs, and China. Chaul was one of the ports in Western India, with Kalyan, Broach, and Cambay. In the south were Kadura, Ghantsala, and Puhar (Kaveripattinam).
Q3Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Gupta Empire (Golden Age) & Harshavardhana
With reference to the scholars/literatures of ancient India, consider the following statements:
- Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
- Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
- Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta-II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Ancient Indian Literature
The Correct answer is Option (c): Panini was a contemporary of the Mahajanapada era (6th to 4th CE). He was a Sanskrit Grammarian known for writing Ashtadhyayi- a sutra style treatise on Sanskrit grammar. Pushyamitra Shunga started the Shunga dynasty by assassinating Brihadratha, the last ruler of the Magadha Empire, in 185 BCE. Pushyamitra Sunga was a Buddhist follower. Some historians have portrayed him as anti-Buddhist, but there is no credible evidence for the claim. He also constructed a stone gateway at Sanchi and restored Buddhist stupas at Barhut. He also patronized the Sanskrit grammar scholar Patanjali. Amarasimha was a Sanskrit grammarian and poet who lived in ancient India. Amarasimha was one of the nine gems that adorned the throne of Vikramaditya, and according to the accounts of Hieun Tsang, it is believed that he was the Chandragupta Vikramaditya (Chandragupta II) who flourished around 375 CE. Amarsimha is famous for his Sanskrit thesaurus- Amarakosha. Kalidasa was a renowned Classical Sanskrit writer who is widely regarded as one of the greatest poets and dramatists in Indian history. He generally draws inspiration from the Vedas, the Ramayana, the Mahabharata, and the Puranas for his plays and poems. Kalidasa wrote three plays: Malavikagnimitram, Abhijnanasakuntalam, and Vikramorvasiyam. Two epic poems of Kalidasa are Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava. Kalidasa and Amarsimha were among the nine jewels of Chandragupta-II, also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya.
Q4Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta India › Mauryan Empire & Ashoka
Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription?
“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Ashoka and His Dhamma: The Major Rock Edicts 7 and 12 advocate religious tolerance and honor for ascetics of all faiths. Ashoka’s Dhamma emphasized moral teachings without deity worship or sacrifices. He aimed to educate his subjects inspired by Buddha’s teachings, deploying dhamma mahamatta to spread his message through inscriptions.
Q5Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Regional & South Indian Dynasties › Cholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas
Consider the following events in the history of India:
- Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
- Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman-I
- Establishment of Chola power by Purantaka
- Pala dynasty founded by Gopala
What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Chronology of Regional Dynasty of Medieval India
Nagabhatta I founded the Gurjara Pratihara dynasty in the Malwa region in the 8th century AD. The dynasty ruled Northern India from the mid-8th to the 11th century. Mihir Bhoja (836–885 CE) was the greatest ruler of the Pratihara dynasty.
The Pallavas ruled southern India between the 6th and 9th centuries AD, with Kanchipuram as their capital. Mahendravarman I (c. 600–630) was a prominent ruler.
The Cholas formed an empire that included most of South India in the 9th century, with Tanjore as their capital. Parantaka’s reign (907-953 CE) was significant.
The Pala Empire, which began in Bengal, ruled throughout the post-classical period (8th and 9th century AD). The empire officially started with Gopala as Gauda’s emperor in 750 CE.
Q6Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval) › Coinage Systems through the Ages
Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the ‘Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period?
- A.
An advisory issued by the king to his subordinates
- B.
A diary to be maintained for daily accounts
- C.Correct
- D.
An order from the feudal lord to his subordinates
Explanation
Medieval Terminology or keyword/Economic History of Medieval India
Correct answer: Option (c): Hundis are used as a form of remittance instrument to transfer money, as credit instruments to borrow money, and as bills of exchange in trade transactions. The word "hundi" is derived from the Sanskrit word "hundika," first used in 914 AD. The Lekhapaddhati and Kalhan’s Rajatrangini (12th century) mention the use of hundika by kings, nobles, and possibly merchants.
The Reserve Bank of India describes the Hundi as "an unconditional order in writing made by a person directing another to pay a certain sum of money to a person named in the order." Hundis promised payment of a sum of money to the bearer at a particular place, either immediately or afterward.
Q7Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › British Economic Policies & Deindustrialization
Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of
- A.
peasant resistance to the oppressive conduct of planters
- B.
its unprofitability in the world market because of new inventions
Correct - C.
national leaders’ opposition to the cultivation of indigo
- D.
Government control over the planters
Explanation
Peasant Movement
- Decline of Indigo Cultivation: By the early 20th century, indigo cultivation in India decreased due to the introduction of chemical colors that replaced indigo, making its production unprofitable in the global market.
- Indigo Revolt 1856-57:
- Area: Bengal
- Leaders: Bishnu Charan Biswas and Diagambar Biswas
- Indigo's significant value earned it the nickname "blue gold" for its blue dye.
- Reason: Peasants faced land loss and indebtedness due to poor output.
- India's first peasant strike arose from forced indigo planting, driven by the profitable trade in blue dye.
- Peasants boycotted indigo production and contracts, with support from other zamindars and the establishment of a favorable commission.
- Intelligentsia, including Harsh Chandra Mukherjee (editor Hindu patriot) and Dinabandhu Mitra's play "Neel Darpan," bolstered the campaign's influence.
Q8Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Miscellaneous
With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult is the description of which of the following events?
- A.
- B.
The Mappila Rebellion of 1921
- C.
The Indigo Revolt of 1859 – 60
- D.
Birsa Munda’s Revolt of 1899-1900
Correct
Explanation
Tribal Movement
Munda Rebellion:
- Prominent 19th-century tribal uprising in the subcontinent. Birsa Munda led the movement in south Ranchi during 1899–1900.
- Ulgulan, or "the Great Tumult," aimed to establish Munda Raj or Munda authority in the area.
Reason for Revolt:
- In 1874, British replaced the traditional Khuntkari system with the zamindari system for Munda tribals.
- Introduction of zamindari system led to the creation of zamindars (landlords) and ryots (tenants).
- Monetization forced tribals to rely on cash for rent and daily needs.
- Forced reliance on moneylenders charging high interest rates.
Birsa Munda:
- Tribal liberation warrior from the Munda tribe, revered as a folk hero.
- Spearheaded the Ulgulan movement against British colonization in 19th-century Bihar and Jharkhand.
- Known as the ‘Dharti Abba’ or Earth Father.
- Organized masses to stop paying debts/interest to moneylenders and taxes to British, leading a revolt against Victorian rule and establishment of Munda Rule in Jharkhand (Chotanagpur region).
Q9Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Reform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)
In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around:
- women’s right to gain education
- age of consent
- restitution of conjugal rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Social Reform Organization:
Dr. Rakhmabai (1864–1955)
- Indian physician and feminist.
- Involved in legal case regarding child marriage between 1884 and 1888.
- Married at 11 to Dadaji Bhikaji, who was 19.
- Bhikaji sought "restitution of conjugal rights" in 1885.
- Behramji Malabari and Pandita Ramabai formed Rakhmabai Defense Committee.
- Case ended in 1888 with compensation for Bhikaji.
- Led to drafting of Age of Consent Act in 1891.
Statement 1: Incorrect. Rakhmabai's case didn't concern women's right to education.
Statement 2: Correct. Rakhmabai's case influenced Age of Consent Act drafting.
Statement 3: Correct. Rakhmabai married at 11, Bhikaji filed petition after 12 years.
Q10Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Land Revenue Systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
- Aurang - In-charge of treasury of the State
- Banian - Indian agent of the East India Company
- Mirasidar - Designated revenue payer to the State
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Colonial Revenue Policy Keywords
Pair 1: Incorrect - "Aurang" is a Persian term for a warehouse where goods are stored before sale.
Pair 2: Correct - "Bania" (also "Vania") originates from Sanskrit "vanij," meaning "merchant." Banians served as agents for individual East India Company managers, handling tasks such as bookkeeping, interpreting, brokerage, and household management. They acted as intermediaries for European merchants in Bengal during the British era.
Pair 3: Correct - "Mirasdar" in Urdu refers to hereditary landowners or co-proprietors, while "miras" in Persian means inheritance or estate. Under the Ryotwari settlement system in Southern India, the East India Company recognized mirasdars as sole landowners, negating tenants' rights. Although prohibited from selling land, they could lease it to tenants for cultivation at a nominal fee and were responsible for paying state revenue.
Q11Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › British Economic Policies & Deindustrialization
Which of the following statements correctly explain the impact of the Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century?
- A.
Indian handicrafts were ruined.
Correct - B.
Machines were introduced in the Indian textile industry in large numbers.
- C.
Railway lines were laid in many parts of the country.
- D.
Heavy duties were imposed on the imports of British manufactures.
Explanation
Impact of Industrial Revolution on indigenous industry
The decline of Indian traditional cottage and handicraft industry resulted from the Industrial Revolution in England and India's colonization.
Impact on India’s indigenous industry:
- Severe consequences were brought by the Industrial Revolution.
- Destruction of urban and rural handicraft industry under British Rule was significant.
- English textiles posed serious threats to Indian textiles in European and American markets.
- Indian textiles faced high taxes in Britain and were overshadowed by cheap, machine-made textiles in African markets.
- By the 1830s, inexpensive British products flooded Indian markets, impacting Indian textile industries.
- British machine-made textiles were more affordable and of higher quality.
- Industrial revolution negatively impacted the Indian handicraft industry.
- Decline of kings, chieftains, and zamindars expanded British dominion, affecting Indian handicrafts.
- India became both a raw material supplier and a finished goods market, turning into an economic colony.
- British items were inexpensive with minimal duty compared to Indian goods.
Q12Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Early Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule
With reference to the book “Desher Katha” written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statement:
- It warned against the Colonial State's hypnotic conquest of the mind.
- It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
- The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Literary Works during Indian National Movement
Statements 1 and 2: The book "Desher Katha" meticulously chronicled the contributions of M. G. Ranade and D. Naoroji in a popular narrative, cautioning against the colonial state’s pervasive influence over the populace. "Desher Katha" profoundly impacted Bengal, inspiring the youth and galvanizing support for the Swadeshi Movement.
Statement 3: Deuskar's use of the term 'desh' pertained to the entire nation.
Q13Modern History (India) › Social & Religious Reform Movements › Caste, Depressed Classes & Backward Class Movements
The Vital-Vidhvansak, the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi
- D.
Explanation
Literary Works during Indian National Movement
Gopal Baba Walangkar (1840-1900):
- Also known as Gopal Krishna, he hailed from the untouchable Mahar caste in Maharashtra.
- A pioneering social activist, Walangkar advocated for the liberation of untouchable communities from historical socio-economic oppression.
- He formulated a racial theory to elucidate oppression and launched the first journal targeting untouchable readership.
- Walangkar's "Vital-Vidhvansak" (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), initiated in 1888, was the first publication aimed at untouchable readers.
- He contributed articles to Marathi newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu and composed inspiring Marathi couplets.
- In 1889, Walangkar published "Vital Viduvansan" (Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), a pamphlet addressing the plight of untouchables and raising societal consciousness.
- Crafted as a collection of 26 questions, the pamphlet was directed at the Maharashtrian elite.
Q14Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Miscellaneous
Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because:
- A.
he was asked by the Board of Directors at London to do so
- B.
he wanted to revive interest in oriental learning in India
- C.
he wanted to provide William Carey and his associates with employment
- D.
he wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India
Correct
Explanation
Reforms in Education during the British Time
Fort William College (1800):
- Founded on 10 July 1800 in Calcutta, British India.
- Set up by Lord Richard Wellesley in 1800.
- Training civil servants of the Company in languages and customs of Indians.
- Court of directors of British East India Company initially opposed it.
- Closed in 1802; separate college established in England in 1807.
Q15Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following?
- Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
- Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
- Acceptance of Gandhi’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses.
- Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Gandhi-Irwin Pact:
Statement 1: Pact signed by Gandhi and Lord Irwin before the Second Round Table Conference.
Statement 2: Viceroy agreed to withdraw ordinances restricting INC activities.
Statement 3: Viceroy rejected the demand for a public enquiry into police excesses.
Statement 4: Political prisoners, except those guilty of violence, were released.
Q16Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term Paramitas?
- A.
The earliest Dharmashastra texts written in aphoristic (sutra) style.
- B.
Philosophical schools that did not accept the authority of Vedas.
- C.
Perfections whose attainment led to the Bodhisattva path.
Correct - D.
Powerful merchant guilds of early Medieval South India.
Explanation
Buddhism
Option (c) is correct: Paramitas are qualities to be perfected to attain a state of self-enlightened Universal Buddha (a samma sambuddha) prevalent in Eastern and Northern traditions.
- Paramitas are qualities to be perfected to attain a state of self-enlightened Universal Buddha (a samma sambuddha) prevalent in Eastern and Northern traditions.
- These are similar to the 4th Noble truth to attain the state of Bodhisattva.
- Following are the Ten Paramitas: Generosity, Morality, Patience, Energy, Meditation, Wisdom, Skillful means, Resolution, Power, Knowledge.
Q17Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:
- Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
- Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of the Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
- The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered Mahayana Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Buddhism
Statement 1 is incorrect: After the 2nd Buddhist council in Vaishali (Bihar), Buddhism bifurcated into two factions- sthaviravada and mahasanghika, the basis of Hinayana (The lesser vehicle) and Mahayana (The greater vehicle) respectively.
- Hinayana followers stayed true to Buddha’s teaching, never practised idol worship, while Mahayana followers started believing in the heavenliness of Buddha, and idol worship in Buddhism began.
Statement 2 is correct: Mahasanghika was further subdivided into lokottarvadin, kavya variks, kaukkitikas in coming years.
- Lokottarvadin was based on the philosophy of lokottar buddha or supernatural Buddha.
Statement 3 is correct: The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghika fostered Mahayana Buddhism. They attributed divinity to Buddha and worship of Buddha in Statue form started which is still prevalent.
Q18Indian Culture › Miscellaneous Culture › Cultural Heritage Sites, Handicrafts & Awards
With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:
| Famous Place | Present State |
|---|
| 1. Bhilsa | Madhya Pradesh |
| 2. Dwarasamudra | Maharashtra |
| 3. Girinagar | Gujarat |
| 4. Sthanesvara | Uttar Pradesh |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Places of historical importance
Pair 1 is correct: Bhilsa is the medieval name of the modern-day Vidisha city of Madhya Pradesh, known as Besnagar in ancient times. King Ashoka served as the Governor of Vidisha during his father’s regime.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Dwarasamudra was the capital of the Hoysala kingdom, known today as Halebidu in Karnataka.
Pair 3 is correct: Girinagar, also known as Girnar or Revatak Parvat, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh district of Gujarat sacred to both Digambar and Swetambars branches of Jainism.
Pair 4 is incorrect: Thanesar (Thaneshwar) is an old Hindu pilgrimage town of Haryana, ruled by King Harsha of the Vardhan dynasty.
Q19Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs:
- Parivrajaka : Renunciant and Wanderer
- Shramana : Priest with a high status
- Upasaka : Lay follower of Buddhism
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Keywords of Ancient India/Buddhism
Pair 1 is correct: The Sanskrit word Parivrajaka means renunciant & wanderer. Famous examples include Ajita Keshkambalin, Makhkhali Goshala, Gauthama Buddha, and Vardhamana Mahavira.
Pair 2 is incorrect: Brahmins were intermediaries between God and followers, while Shramanas were a group of ascetics, monks, and lay followers who renounced worldly life to search for truth, without caste distinctions.
Pair 3 is correct: Lay followers of Buddhism were known as Upsakas or Upasikas, followers who were not monks or nuns and took certain vows.
Q20Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
Siachen Glacier is situated to the:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Siachen Glacier, situated northeast of the point NJ9842, is the world's highest battlefield.
Q21Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Landforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)
Consider the following pairs:
| River | Flow into |
|---|
| 1. Mekong | Andaman Sea |
| 2. Thames | Irish Sea |
| 3. Volga | Caspian Sea |
| 4. Zambezi | Indian Ocean |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
The Mekong River flows through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, and Cambodia, while the Volga River runs through Russia into the Caspian Sea. The Thames River is in England, and the Zambezi River flows through Zambia to the Indian Ocean.
Q22Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves
With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct? :
- OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January–March.
- OMT collected during January–March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Oceanography
Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT) predicts Indian monsoons better than Sea Surface Temperature (SST).
OMT measures upper ocean thermal energy, crucial for monsoon forecasting.
Q23Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Metallic & Non-Metallic Minerals
Consider the following minerals:
- Bentonite
- Chromite
- Kyanite
- Sillimanite
In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Major Minerals in India
Chromite, Kyanite, and Sillimanite are metallic minerals, primarily categorized as major minerals.
Q24Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
Consider the following statements :
- Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
- Only some cyclones develop an eye.
- The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C less than that of the surroundings.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Jet Stream:
- Geostrophic wind blowing west to east across upper troposphere.
- Formation influenced by colliding air masses with different temperatures.
- Some cyclones develop an eye, absent in temperate cyclones.
Q25Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Cropping Seasons, Patterns & Major Crops
With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:
- Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.
- Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
- In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased the production of rabi pulses has decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Major crops
Correct statement:
- Important pulse crops in India include chickpea, lentil, lathyrus, field pea, and kidney bean.
Incorrect statements:
- Pulse production shares in 2018-19 do not match the provided percentages.
- Pulse production has increased in recent decades.
Q26Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Cropping Seasons, Patterns & Major Crops
“The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Major Crop
Cotton:
- Grown in temperatures between 21-30°C with rainfall around 50-100 cm.
- Thrives in well-drained black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau.
- Top cotton-producing states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan.
- Requires 210 frost-free days and abundant sunshine for growth.
Q27Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?
- Nagarhole National Park
- Papikonda National Park
- Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
- Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Major Places and Rivers/Map based
Option 1: Correct, Nagarahole River joins the Kabini River, a tributary of the Cauvery
Option 2: Incorrect, Papikonda Park lies along the Godavari River
Option 3: Correct, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is at the confluence of Western and Eastern Ghats, near the Palar River
Option 4: Correct, Kabini River flows through Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary.
Q28Environment › International Environmental Efforts › COP & Paris Agreement
Consider the following pairs :
| International agreement/set-up | Subject |
|---|
| 1. Alma-Ata Declaration | Healthcare of the people |
| 2. Hague Convention | Biological and chemical weapons |
| 3. Talanoa Dialogue | Global climate change |
| 4. Under2 Coalition | Child rights |
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
- Alma-Ata Declaration: This declaration, adopted in 1978, focused on primary healthcare and emphasized the importance of addressing the healthcare needs of all people, particularly those in developing countries. It aimed to achieve "Health for All" by the year 2000.
- Hague Convention: The Hague Convention primarily deals with the rules and regulations governing international conventions during times of armed conflict, including the protection of cultural property during warfare. It does not specifically focus on biological and chemical weapons.
- Talanoa Dialogue: The Talanoa Dialogue is a platform established under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) to facilitate discussions and consultations on global climate change. It involves sharing stories, ideas, and experiences to inform climate action.
- Under2 Coalition: The Under2 Coalition is a global community of state and regional governments committed to keeping global temperature rise below 2 degrees Celsius. It focuses on climate change mitigation efforts rather than child rights.
Q29Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › National Environmental Authorities
Consider the following statements:
- 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
- CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
- India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Major Environmental Organization/Groundwater
- Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) manages India's groundwater resources.
- CGWA regulates groundwater extraction and collaborates with FAO.
Q30Agriculture Science › Agriculture Science › Precision Agriculture
What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?
- Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
- Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
- Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
- Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Agriculture and Environment
Fertigation:
- Technique integrating fertiliser into drip irrigation water.
- Practised in commercial agriculture and horticulture.
- Supplements nutrients and controls weed growth.
Statements: 1. Correct - Drip irrigation avoids water spillage and promotes weed control. 2. Incorrect - Rock phosphate is not suitable for fertigation. 3. Correct - Accurate nutrient placement enhances plant absorption. 4. Correct - Reduces leaching of chemicals into water supply.
Q31Agriculture Science › Agriculture Science › Precision Agriculture
What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?
- Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
- Without the need for a nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
- Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Sustainable Agriculture
Benefits of Zero tillage or No-till farming:
- Reduces labour, fuel, irrigation, and machinery costs.
- Decreases soil erosion and increases water infiltration and storage capacity.
- Increases soil organic matter and carbon sequestration.
Statements: 1. Correct - Zero tillage involves sowing seeds without prior land preparation. 2. Correct - Direct Seeded Rice with minimum or zero tillage enhances water-saving benefits. 3. Correct - No-till farming increases soil organic matter and carbon sequestration.
Q32Agriculture Science › Agriculture Science › Precision Agriculture
In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?
- Crop diversification
- Legume intensification
- Tensiometer use
- Vertical farming
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Sustainable Agriculture
Different Methods of Sustainable Agriculture:
- Mixed cropping, legume intensification, crop rotation, tensiometer, and vertical farming promote sustainability.
- Crop diversification: Crop diversification involves growing a variety of crops on the same piece of land over time. It helps in improving soil health, reducing pest and disease pressure, and enhancing biodiversity. This practice is considered eco-friendly as it promotes sustainable agriculture and reduces the reliance on chemical inputs.
- Legume intensification: Legume intensification refers to the increased cultivation of leguminous crops, such as pulses and beans. Legumes have the ability to fix nitrogen from the atmosphere, thereby reducing the need for synthetic fertilizers. Additionally, they improve soil fertility and structure, making them an eco-friendly choice for agricultural practices.
- Tensiometer use: Tensiometers are devices used to measure soil moisture levels. By accurately monitoring soil moisture, farmers can optimize irrigation practices, leading to water conservation and reduced water wastage. This practice contributes to eco-friendly agriculture by promoting efficient water management and reducing the environmental impact of irrigation.
- Vertical farming: Involves growing crops in vertically stacked layers or structures, often indoors or in controlled environments. While vertical farming has its own benefits such as maximizing space utilization and reducing transportation distances, it may not necessarily be considered a practice of eco-friendly agriculture in all contexts, especially if it heavily relies on artificial lighting, energy-intensive systems, or non-renewable resources.
Therefore, options 1, 2, and 3 align more closely with eco-friendly agricultural practices, making option (a) the correct choice.
Q33Agriculture Science › Agriculture Science › Vermicomposting & Soil
What is the use of biochar in farming?
- Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
- When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
- When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Environment and Agriculture
Biochar:
- Biochar is a high-carbon residue produced through modern pyrolysis processes.
- It consists of solid biochar, liquid bio-oil, and syngas.
- Benefits of biochar include increased agricultural output, protection from diseases, and enhanced soil fertility, especially in acidic soils.
- Its use in vertical farming can significantly enhance yield.
Benefits:
- Carbon Sink: Biochar helps reduce carbon dioxide and methane emissions into the atmosphere.
- Soil Improvement: It retains water and nutrients, improves soil fertility, and promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
- Water retention: Biochar attracts and retains water, making it desirable for soil use.
Q34Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?
- Automobile exhaust
- Tobacco smoke
- Wood burning
- Using varnished wooden furniture
- Using products made of polyurethane
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Air Pollution
Option (a) is the correct answer: Exposure to benzene pollution is primarily from automobile exhaust, tobacco smoke, and wood burning.
Benzene:
- A colourless or light-yellow liquid at room temperature with a sweet odour.
- Evaporates quickly into the air and may sink into low-lying areas.
- Slightly soluble in water and will float on top.
Sources include volcanoes, forest fires, gasoline, cigarette smoke, and crude oil.
- Used in various industries to make plastics, resins, nylon, synthetic fibres, lubricants, rubbers, dyes, detergents, drugs, and pesticides.
Q35Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Non-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)
According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?
- Cassava
- Damaged wheat grains
- Groundnut seeds
- Horse gram
- Rotten potatoes
- Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Eco-Engineering
National Policy on Biofuels 2018:
- The Policy classifies biofuels into "Basic Biofuels" and "Advanced Biofuels."
- Basic Biofuels include First Generation (1G) bioethanol & biodiesel, while Advanced Biofuels encompass Second Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G) biofuels, bio-CNG, etc.
- The Policy broadens the range of raw materials for ethanol production, allowing the use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, and Rotten Potatoes.
Q36Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’?
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the:
- A.
Long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
Correct - B.
Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels.
- C.
Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place.
- D.
Contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.
Explanation
Air Pollution/Carbon Pricing/Carbon Emission
- The Social Cost of Carbon (SCC) measures the monetary value of long-term damage from a tonne of CO2 emissions in a given year.
- SCC estimates the economic damage resulting from emitting one ton of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
- It helps policymakers understand the economic impacts of decisions affecting emissions.
- India's country-level social cost of carbon emission was estimated at 86pertonneofCO2,thehighestamongcountries,followedbytheUS(48) and Saudi Arabia ($47).
- Social Cost refers to the total cost borne by society due to the production of a commodity, also known as External Cost.
Q37Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Consider the following statements:
- Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
- Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
- High ash content is observed in Indian coal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Air Pollution/Coal Ash
- Coal ash contains contaminants like mercury, cadmium, and arsenic, which can pollute waterways, groundwater, drinking water, and air without proper management.
- Burning fossil fuels like coal and oil produces sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides, leading to acid rain.
- Indian Coal has higher ash content than imported coal due to the drift theory of coal deposit formation, resulting in higher ash content in coal seams formed by drift theory.
Q38Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:
- The leader of an elephant group is a female.
- The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
- An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
- Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Hedgehogs: Small mammals with spines, Pangolins roll up into a ball when threatened.
Q39Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet and White-throated redstart are
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Filter Feeders: Oysters, clams, krill, sponges, baleen whales.
Q40Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct?
- It is spread over two districts.
- There is no human habitation inside the Park.
- It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Desert National Park
Option (c) correct: Located in Rajasthan, showcases Thar Desert environment, with diverse flora and fauna.
Q41Environment › Biodiversity › Tiger & Wildlife Census
Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Nagarjunsagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve
Option (c) correct: Largest tiger reserve in India, spanning Telangana and Andhra Pradesh, diverse flora and fauna.
Q42Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Which one of the following protected areas is well known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
- D.
Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
Explanation
Kanha National Park
Option (a) correct: Located in Madhya Pradesh, home to Swamp Deer and other species.
Q43Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?
- Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
- Gangotri National Park
- Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
- Manas National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary & Gangotri National Park
Option (a) correct: Askot Musk Deer Sanctuary conserves Musk Deer, while Gangotri National Park protects diverse fauna in Uttarakhand.
Q44Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?
- A.
A licence is required to cultivate that plant.
Correct - B.
Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances.
- C.
It is a Genetically Modified crop plant.
- D.
Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem.
Explanation
Environmental Laws
Option (a) is the correct answer: The Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 has six schedules. Schedule VI has provisions prohibiting cultivation of specified plants without a license granted by the Chief WildLife Warden.
Q45Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?
- Construction of base road
- Improvement of agricultural soil
- Production of cement
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Government Policies
- Steel slag, a by-product of steel making, is produced during the separation of molten steel from impurities.
- It solidifies into a complex solution of silicates and oxides.
- Correct statements: Steel slag used in road construction and cement production. It can also correct soil acidity.
Q46Environment › Pollution › Solid Waste Management
In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?
- Copper slag
- Cold mix asphalt technology
- Geotextiles
- Hot mix asphalt technology
- Portland cement
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Green Technologies
- Copper slag is a by-product of copper smelting and refining.
- It provides environmental and economic benefits in cement and concrete production.
- Cold mix asphalt is produced without heating mineral aggregate, suitable for light to medium trafficked roads.
- Coir-based geotextiles permitted for rural road construction under Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana.
- Incorrect: Hot Mix Asphalt is environmentally polluting, and Portland cement is a major CO2 emitter.
Q47Biology › Blood, Immunity & Vaccines › Vaccines & Immunisation Programmes
What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?
- These vaccines are effective against pneumonia as well as meningitis and sepsis.
- Dependence on antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistant bacteria can be reduced.
- These vaccines have no side effects and cause no allergic reactions.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Vaccines and Drugs
Vaccines work by eliciting an immune response to antigens, protecting against infections. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccines provide protection against pneumococcal illnesses, reducing the spread of bacterial illnesses and antimicrobial resistance (AMR). Vaccine side effects may include fever, loss of appetite, fussiness, and headache.
Q48Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Genome Sequencing & Genome Editing
Consider the following statements:
- Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
- A person's genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
- Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Gene Therapy
Gene therapy corrects gene mutations via cell injection.
- Correct: Germline therapy repairs inherited mutations.
- Correct: Embryonic editing prevents disease inheritance.
- Correct: Intermediate stem cells show potential for development.
Q49Applied Science & Technology › Emerging Technology › Artificial Intelligence
With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?
- Bring down electricity consumption in industrial units
- Create meaningful short stories and songs
- Disease diagnosis
- Text-to-Speech Conversion
- Wireless transmission of electrical energy
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Artificial Intelligence
Artificial intelligence (AI) enables machines to perform cognitive functions such as reasoning, perception, learning, and problem-solving. Intelligent systems have advanced significantly in data processing and computation power, enhancing productivity across various sectors like healthcare, entertainment, finance, and education. AI applications include disease diagnosis, music composition, and text-to-speech conversion. Google utilizes AI and the Internet of Things (IoT) to reduce energy consumption in data centers.
Q50Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Miscellaneous
With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct?
- VLC uses electromagnetic spectrum wavelengths 375 to 780 nm
- VLC is known as long-range optical wireless communication.
- VLC can transmit large amounts of data faster than Bluetooth
- VLC has no electromagnetic interference
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Communication Technology
Visible Light Communication (VLC) uses visible light for data transmission, typically between 400 and 800 THz. VLC can transmit data directly or via surface reflection but cannot penetrate solid objects like walls, limiting its range. It offers high data speeds, surpassing Bluetooth, and utilizes LED lighting for communication. VLC, also known as Li-Fi, leverages the vast visible light spectrum to overcome RF bandwidth limitations, making it suitable for ubiquitous computing.
Q51Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Miscellaneous
With reference to “Blockchain Technology” consider the following statements:
- It is a public ledger that everyone we inspect, but which no single user controls
- The structure and design of blockchain are such that all the data in it is about cryptocurrency only.
- Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody’s permission.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Blockchain Technology
Blockchain is a decentralized, distributed digital ledger used for recording transactions across multiple computers. It ensures transaction transparency and integrity, making auditing feasible. Blockchain finds applications in supply chains, healthcare, banking, and smart contracts. Public blockchain networks eliminate the need for access control, allowing seamless app integration.
Q52Applied Science & Technology › Emerging Technology › Miscellaneous
Consider the following activities:
- Spraying pesticides on a crop field
- Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
- Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis.
At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Drones, or unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs), have various applications, including aerial spraying, volcano exploration, and collecting whale spray for health analysis.
Q53Biology › Cell Biology › Cell Structure & Organelles
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?
- Plant cells have cellulose cell walls while animal cells do not.
- Plant cells do not have plasma membranes unlike animal cells which do.
- Mature plant cell has one large vacuole while an animal cell has many small vacuoles.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Both plants and animals have eukaryotic cells with similar structures, including a plasma membrane, nucleus, cytoplasm, ribosomes, and mitochondria.
Q54Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART) & Surrogacy
In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for
- A.
Fertilisation of egg in vitro by the donor sperm
- B.
Genetic modification of sperm-producing cells
- C.
Development of stem cells into functional embryos
- D.
Prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring
Correct
Explanation
Pronuclear transfer involves transferring pronuclei from a zygote to a donor egg to prevent the transmission of certain genetic diseases.
Q55Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Non-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)
With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements :
- Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
- Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Solar water pumps use photovoltaic panels to power electric pumps, which can be centrifugal or piston pumps.
Q56Agriculture Science › Crops, Cropping Systems & Horticulture › Major Crops and Cropping Patterns
With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:
- A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
- When direct planting of seeds is done, the germination percentage is better with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
- If bad weather conditions prevail when seeds are directly planted, single-budded seeds have better survival as compared to large setts.
- Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Tissue culture methods are used in sugarcane cultivation to produce disease-free seed cane, improving quality and yield.
Q57Physics › Nuclear & Modern Physics › Nuclear Energy & Nuclear Power in India
In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?
- A.
Some use uranium and others use thorium
- B.
Some use imported uranium and others use domestic supplies
- C.
Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises
Correct - D.
Some are State-owned and others are privately-owned
Explanation
Some nuclear reactors in India are kept under "IAEA Safeguards" while others are not due to international agreements and obligations. The correct option is (c) Some are operated by foreign enterprises and others are operated by domestic enterprises.
Reactors operated by foreign enterprises or those that involve international collaborations are typically subject to International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards to ensure compliance with nuclear non-proliferation agreements and to verify that nuclear materials are not diverted for military purposes. On the other hand, reactors operated solely by domestic enterprises may not be subject to such safeguards, as they fall under the jurisdiction of the Indian government and its regulatory agencies.
Q58Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Digital governance
In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of
- A.
Digital security infrastructure
Correct - B.
Food security infrastructure
- C.
Health care and education infrastructure
- D.
Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure
Explanation
The term "Public Key Infrastructure" (PKI) refers to a digital security infrastructure used to facilitate secure communication and transactions over networks, particularly the internet. PKI involves the use of public and private cryptographic keys to encrypt and decrypt data, verify the identity of users, and ensure the integrity and authenticity of information exchanged between parties.
Given this context, the correct option is : (a) Digital security infrastructure
Q59Applied Science & Technology › Nano Technology › Nanotechnology: Applications & Impacts
When reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:
- They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
- They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
- They can be used in biochemical sensors.
- Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Nanotechnology
Carbon Nanotubes (CNTs): Cylindrical molecules of rolled-up single-layer carbon atoms. Can efficiently deliver drugs to specific cells due to their large surface area. NASA uses CNTs in biochemical sensors for diagnostic devices. CNTs can be degraded by microbes.
Q60Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › World Space Missions
The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometers long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Space Technology/Space Mission
Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) aims to study the gravitational universe. ESA selected eLISA as a large-class mission for launch in 2034, involving daughter and mother spacecraft forming a precision interferometer.
Q61Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
The Preamble to the Constitution of India, is:
- A.
part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
- B.
not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
- C.
a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
- D.
a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Correct
Explanation
Preamble as Part of the Constitution
The status of the Preamble:
- SC judgments:
- Berubari Union Case (1960) viewed the Preamble as explanatory but not a part of the Constitution.
- Kesavananda Bharati Case (1973) and LIC of India Case (1995) deemed the Preamble integral to the Constitution, amendable with safeguards.
Q62Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
- A.
Directive Principles of State Policy
Correct - B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Features of the Directive Principles
- DPSPs, borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland, promote a welfare state, ensuring justice, social, economic, and political, for all citizens.
Q63Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- They shall be enforceable by courts.
- They shall not be enforceable by any court
- The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Features of the Directive Principles
- DPSP, outlined in Articles 36 to 51, offers guidelines for governance without legal enforceability, aiming at socio-economic justice.
Q64Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
- A.
the Preamble of the Constitution
- B.
a Directive Principle of State Policy
Correct - C.
- D.
the conventional practice
Explanation
Liberal-Intellectual Principles
- Article 50 advocates separation of judiciary from the executive, reflecting Liberal-Intellectual Principles promoting liberty and democratic values.
The separation of judiciary from the executive is a fundamental principle of the Indian Constitution, aimed at ensuring the independence and impartiality of the judiciary. This principle is enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are guidelines for the government to follow in the governance of the country. Option (b) is the correct choice because it reflects this constitutional provision. The Preamble of the Constitution sets out the aims and objectives of the Constitution, while the Seventh Schedule deals with the distribution of powers between the Union and the States. The separation of judiciary from the executive is not merely a conventional practice but a constitutional mandate aimed at upholding the rule of law and ensuring justice.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.
Q65Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?
- Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000.
- Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000.
- Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000.
- All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Application part of DPSPs
- Free legal services, provided under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, target vulnerable groups, ensuring access to justice regardless of economic status.
- Transgender individuals are eligible for free legal aid up to Rs. 2,00,000, but Other Backward Classes (OBCs) are not specifically mentioned.
- Elderly citizens' eligibility for free legal assistance depends on state rules, often requiring income limits.
Q66Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution
A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which:
- A.
all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
- B.
the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
Correct - C.
the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them
- D.
the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term
Explanation
System of Government - Parliamentary:
In a parliamentary system, the executive is accountable to the electorate through a periodically elected legislature. India follows this system, where the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are responsible to the Lok Sabha, termed Collective Responsibility.
Q67Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution
A constitutional government by definition is a
- A.
government by legislature
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
System of Government - Constitutional:
A constitutional government operates within the framework of a constitution to prevent autocracy and safeguard individual liberty. In India, government powers are limited by Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution.
Q68Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
- A.
Right against Exploitation
- B.
- C.
Right to Constitutional Remedies
- D.Correct
Explanation
Right to Equality
- Articles 14 to 18 cover equality before law, non-discrimination, and abolition of untouchability and titles.
- Articles 23 & 24 deal with the Right Against Exploitation, and Articles 19 - 21 with the Right to Freedom.
Q69Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights ? (2020)
- Preamble
- Directive Principles of State Policy
- Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Universal Declaration of Human Rights
- The objectives of the Preamble reflect principles in the UDHR.
- Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) resemble principles in UDHR Article 22.
- Fundamental duties (Article 51A) complement human rights.
Q70Indian Polity › Elections & Political Dynamics › Pressure Groups & Political Philosophy
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
- A.
the final goal of a stateless society
Correct - B.
- C.
abolition of private property
- D.
Explanation
Major Political Theories
Gandhism and Marxism share the goal of a stateless and classless society but differ in means. Marx views the state as an instrument of class oppression, advocating for class struggle and revolution. Gandhi prefers minimal state and local self-governments over force.
Q71Indian Polity › Union Executive › Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
- A.
An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
- B.
An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
- C.
An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth
- D.
An Agency for the implementation of public policy
Correct
Explanation
Basic Understanding of Executive
Bureaucracy, the executive arm of government, employs state officials to manage state affairs. It provides continuity of policies and execution, focusing on implementation rather than political stability.
Q72Indian Polity › Elections & Political Dynamics › Electoral System, Reforms & Political Parties
Consider the following statements:
- According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State
- According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
People’s Representative
Statement 1: Incorrect. State legislature members must be at least 30 or 25 years old, depending on the chamber.
Statement 2: Incorrect. A person convicted and sentenced for over two years is disqualified for six years.
Q73Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Consider the following statements:
- The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks it.
- The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
- There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Sessions of Parliament
Statement 1: Correct. The President can summon Parliament with a six-month gap between sessions.
Statement 2: Incorrect. Conventionally, Parliament holds three sessions annually.
Statement 3: Correct. No minimum days are stipulated for Parliament's yearly sessions.
Q74Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
- A.
the matter of creating new All India Services
- B.
amending the Constitution
Correct - C.
the removal of the government
- D.
Explanation
Rajya Sabha
Rajya Sabha shares equal powers with Lok Sabha in impeaching the President, vice-president removal, constitutional amendments, and judge removal. However, it has limitations in financial matters.
Additional Information:
- Rajya Sabha has exclusive authority in creating All India Services.
- It lacks power over government removal and financial matters compared to Lok Sabha.
Q75Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › FRBM Act & Fiscal Responsibility Framework
Along with the Budget, the finance minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include “The Macro Economic Framework Statement”. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by:
- A.
Long-standing parliamentary convention
- B.
Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
- C.
Article 113 of the Constitution of India
- D.
Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Correct
Explanation
Annual Financial Statement
The FRBM Act, 2003 mandates presenting a Macro Economic Framework Statement to Parliament, covering GDP growth, fiscal balance, and external sector balance.
Q76Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
- MPLADS funds must be used to create durable sets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- A specified portion of each MP fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all work under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
MPLADS
- Correct: MPLADS enables MPs to recommend developmental works focusing on local needs.
- Correct: MPs must allocate at least 15% for Scheduled Caste areas and 7.5% for Scheduled Tribe areas.
- Incorrect: MPLADS funds are non-lapsable, carrying over to the next year.
- Correct: District authorities must inspect at least 10% of works annually and involve MPs.
Q77Indian Polity › Judiciary › Supreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review
Consider the following statements:
- The Constitution of India defines its structure in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- The Constitution of India provides for ‘Judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Basic Structure of Indian Constitution
- Basic Structure includes core values like federalism, secularism, fundamental rights, and democracy.
- Cannot be amended by parliament under Article 368.
- Various Supreme Court judgments establish the Basic Structure Doctrine.
Q78Economy › External Sector › Balance of Payments
With reference to the international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- India’s merchandise exports are less than its merchandise imports.
- India’s imports of iron and steel, chemicals, fertilizers, and machinery have decreased in recent years.
- India’s exports of services are more than its imports of services.
- India suffers from an overall trade/current account deficit.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
BoP
India's trade deficit and service surplus affect the current account balance, reflecting trade competitiveness.
Q79Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Crude Oil Trade:
- Approximately 160 crude oils are traded internationally, differing in characteristics and quality.
- Main benchmarks: West Texas Intermediate and Brent Crude.
Q80Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
- They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
- They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
WTO Agreements:
- TRIMs impose quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors, aiming to prevent trade-restrictive effects.
- TRIMs apply only to investment measures related to trade in goods.
- TRIMs do not directly affect WTO members’ ability to regulate foreign investment.
Q81Economy › Poverty & Unemployment › Types of Unemployment
With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalisation, consider the following statements:
- Worker productivity (Rs. per worker at 2004 -05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
- The % age share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased.
- In rural areas, the growth in the non-farm economy increased.
- The growth rate in rural employment decreased.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Economic Reforms:
- Rural and urban areas witnessed changes in worker productivity and income levels.
- Shift towards urbanization decreased rural workforce share.
- Rural economy diversified with increased non-agricultural activities.
- Rural employment growth slowed post-2004 despite output growth.
Q82Economy › Agricultural Policy › Minimum Support Price (MSP)
Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?
- Minimum Support Price
- Government’s trading
- Government’s stockpiling
- Consumer subsidies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Government Policies (Rice Prices):
- MSP, govt. trading, and stockpiling affect rice prices.
- Consumer subsidies lower rice prices.
Q83Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agriculture Schemes
With reference to chemical fertilisers in India, consider the following statements:
- At present, the retail price of chemical fertilisers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
- Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
- Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Agriculture Fertilizer:
- Govt. administers fertilizer prices to support farmers.
- Ammonia's uses and production details.
Q84Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agriculture Schemes
In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?
- Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops.
- Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
- Social Capital development.
- Free electricity supply to farmers.
- Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system
- Setting up cold storage facilities by the governments.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Public Investment in Agriculture:
- Public investment includes credit societies, social capital, and cold storage.
- MSP and electricity subsidies aren't categorized as public investment.
Q85Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agricultural Credit & Crop Insurance
Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?
- Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
- Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks.
- Consumption requirements of farm households
- Post-harvest expense
- Construction of a family house and setting up a village cold storage facility.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Agricultural Credit (Kisan Credit Card):
The Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme provides short-term credit support to farmers for various agricultural purposes.
- Working capital for maintenance of farm assets: Farmers can use the credit for day-to-day expenses related to maintaining their farm assets, such as seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and labor costs.
- Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors, and mini trucks: Farmers can utilize the credit to invest in agricultural machinery and equipment, such as tractors and harvesters, to improve efficiency and productivity.
- Post-harvest expenses: The credit can be used to cover expenses incurred after the harvest, such as storage, transportation, processing, and marketing of agricultural produce.
- Construction of family house and setting up village cold storage facility: In addition to agricultural purposes, the credit can also be used for non-farm activities like constructing a family house or setting up cold storage facilities in the village.
Option (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 includes all the purposes mentioned above, making it the correct choice. The KCC scheme aims to provide comprehensive financial assistance to farmers to meet their diverse agricultural and household needs, thereby promoting rural development and improving farmers' livelihoods.
Q86Economy › Agricultural Policy › Minimum Support Price (MSP)
Consider the following statements:
- In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.
- In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
MSP:
- MSP procurement isn't open-ended.
- Market prices can fluctuate irrespective of MSP.
Q87Economy › National Income & Measures › Price Indices (CPI, WPI, PPI, GDP Deflator)
Consider the following statements:
- The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
- The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
- The Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Inflation:
- WPI measures wholesale price changes, excluding services.
- CPI indicates retail-level price changes, including services.
- RBI adopted CPI (combined) as the key inflation measure in 2014.
Q88Economy › External Sector › Foreign Exchange Management
“Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to:
- A.
A loan system of the World Bank
- B.
One of the operations of a Central Bank
- C.
A credit system granted by WTO to its members
- D.
A credit system granted by IMF to its members
Correct
Explanation
Functions of IMF
Reserve Tranche:
- Portion of required currency quota provided to IMF members for own use without service fee or economic reform conditions.
- Serves as an emergency account.
- Considered as last resort facilities for nations, used before formal credit tranche requests.
- No interest costs for initial 25% tranche; additional items incur service charge.
Q89Economy › Financial Markets › Securities & Bonds
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- ‘Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
- ‘Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
- ‘Call Money’ is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
- ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds are the interest-bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Instruments of Money Market
- Correct: Commercial Paper finances working capital needs, issued as unsecured promissory notes.
- Incorrect: Certificate of Deposit issued by banks, freely transferable, with maturity ranging from 91 days to 1 year.
- Correct: Call money used by banks for short-term liquidity needs, borrowed and lent daily.
- Incorrect: Zero coupon Bond issued at a discount, no interest payments, usually long-term.
Q90Economy › External Sector › Foreign Exchange Management
If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?
- Not depending on short-term foreign borrowings
- Opening up to more foreign banks
- Maintaining full capital account convertibility
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Mechanism to Counter Financial Crisis
- Statement 1: Correct; Global economic crises pose challenges for both creditor and debtor nations.
- Statement 2: Incorrect; Increased exposure to foreign banks raises risks during global crises; strengthening domestic banks is more beneficial.
- Statement 3: Incorrect; Full capital account convertibility can lead to "Capital flight" during a crisis.
Q91Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › Money Supply
If you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be:
- A.
To reduce it by Rs. 1,00,000
- B.
To increase it by Rs. 1,00,000
- C.
To increase it by more than Rs. 1,00,000
- D.Correct
Explanation
Demand and Supply of Money
- Demand Deposit: Funds in a bank account that can be withdrawn at any time; does not affect money supply when withdrawn.
When you withdraw Rs. 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand Deposit Account, it simply transfers existing money from your account to your pocket. It does not create or destroy money in the economy; it merely changes the form in which the money exists. Therefore, there is no immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy.
Q92Economy › Banking › Non-Performing Assets (NPAs)
What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India?
- It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
- It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give a loan to.
- The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Banking Interest
- Statements 1 & 2: Correct; Interest coverage ratio measures a company's ability to pay debt interest.
- Statement 3: Incorrect; Higher coverage ratio indicates easier debt interest payments.
Q93Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it not do?
- Cut and optimise the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
- Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
- Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Monetary Policy
- Statement 1: Incorrect; Reducing SLR increases bank liquidity, stimulating growth.
- Statement 2: Correct; Increased MSF rate raises borrowing costs for banks.
- Statement 3: Incorrect; Expansionary policy lowers repo and bank rates to boost liquidity.
Q94Economy › Banking › Commercial Banks
Consider the following statements:
- In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCBs) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
- One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agriculture Credit Societies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Cooperative Banking
- Statement 1: Incorrect; Rural cooperative lending focuses on agriculture but contributes only 12.1% compared to SCBs.
- Statement 2: Correct; DCCBs gather public deposits and provide credit to the public and PACS.
Q95International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › SAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region
In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20?
- A.
Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
Correct - B.
Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
- C.
Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
- D.
Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea
Explanation
The G20, or Group of Twenty, is an international forum of the world's major economies, consisting of 19 individual countries plus the European Union. The countries listed in option (a) - Argentina, Mexico, South Africa, and Turkey - are all members of the G20. Argentina and Mexico represent the Latin American region, South Africa represents the African continent, and Turkey represents the Middle East and Europe.
Therefore, option (a) is the correct choice as it includes all countries that are members of the G20.
Q96International Relations › Bilateral Relations › Relations with Neighbours (Nepal, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Pakistan, China, Myanmar, Afghanistan)
Consider the following statements :
- The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
- “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
- In the the last five years, Nepal has been largest trading partner of India in South Asia.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
- The first statement regarding the value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade consistently increasing in the last decade is incorrect. The trade value may have fluctuated over the years, but there is no information provided to support a consistent increase.
- The second statement about "Textile and textile articles" constituting an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh is correct. Textiles are indeed a significant component of trade between the two countries.
- The third statement stating that Nepal has been the largest trading partner of India in South Asia in the last five years is incorrect. India's largest trading partner in South Asia is generally considered to be either Bangladesh or Sri Lanka, depending on the specific time period and the metrics used.
Q97Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Digital governance
In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits?
- Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
- Cost of a new computer if some miscreant willfully damages it, if proved so
- Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
- Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, the benefits generally covered include:
- Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.
- Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.
- Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit.
Option (b) 1, 3, and 4 only is the correct choice. This option includes the benefits mentioned in points 1, 3, and 4, which are commonly covered under cyber insurance for individuals in India. These benefits aim to provide financial assistance and support to individuals in case of cyber-related incidents, such as malware attacks, cyber extortion, and legal disputes.
Q98Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Digital governance
Consider the following statements :
- Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
- State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
- Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
- Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
- Statement 1 is incorrect. Aadhaar metadata can be stored for up to six months, as per the Aadhaar Act.
- Statement 2 is correct. The state cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data, as per the Aadhaar Act.
- Statement 3 is incorrect. Aadhaar is not mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
- Statement 4 is correct. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India, as per various government schemes.
Therefore, option (b) 2 and 4 only is the correct choice.
Q99Economy › Financial Markets › Securities & Bonds
In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following?
- Housing loans owed by households
- Amounts outstanding on credit cards
- Treasury bills
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Debt Financing
Debt financing covers public and non-financial debts, including housing loans and credit card balances.
Q100Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic?
- A.
It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
- B.
It is a largely non-debt creating capital flow.
Correct - C.
It is an investment that involves debt-servicing.
- D.
It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in the Government Securities.
Explanation
Foreign Investment – FDI
(a) FDI entails investment in Indian companies by non-residents, involving capital instruments.
(b) FDI is primarily a non-debt creating capital flow, distinguishing it from debt obligations.
(c) Debt servicing involves regular repayment of interest and principal, not applicable to FDI.
(d) FDI investments can be in equities or debt instruments issued by the company, not directly in government securities.