Q1Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Mughal Empire › Mughal Rulers, Administration & Foreign Policy
Consider the following:
The arrival of Babur into India led to the:
- Introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent
- Introduction of the arch and dome in the region’s architecture
- Establishment of Timurid dynasty in the region
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Political aspect during the Mughals
Gunpowder was first used during the Mongol invasion, not by Babur.
The Delhi Sultanate introduced Islamic architectural details, blending them with Indian forms.
The Timurids, a Sunni dynasty, influenced the Mughal Empire culturally.
Q2Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Miscellaneous
Consider the following pairs:
| Medieval Indian State | Present Region |
|---|
| 1. Champaka | Central India |
| 2. Durgara | Jammu |
| 3. Kuluta | Malabar |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Past and Present name of Medieval Indian State
The 9th century saw the rise of several hill states, some maintaining identity despite wars and frequent raids.
Q3Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Miscellaneous
With reference to Indian history, which of the following is/are the essential element/elements of the feudal system?
- A very strong centralized political authority and a very weak provincial or local political authority
- The emergence of an administrative structure based on control and possession of the land
- Creation of lord-vassal relationship between the feudal lord and his overlord
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Feudalism in India
Statement 1 is incorrect: Feudalism, in its various forms, usually emerged due to the decentralization of empires that lacked the bureaucratic infrastructure needed for administration. Feudalism was the predominant socioeconomic structure in the medieval era, where the nobility owned land from the Crown in return for military service, and vassals were tenants of the nobles, with peasants required to reside on their lord’s land and offer homage, labor, and a share of production in exchange for military protection.
Statement 2 is correct: An essential feature of Feudalism was the emergence of an administrative structure to maintain control and possession of land and generate revenue from it.
Statement 3 is correct: A person became a vassal by pledging political allegiance and providing military, political, and financial service to a lord.
Q4Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Vijayanagara Empire
Who of the following founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna and undertook to rule his new kingdom as the agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna was supposed to belong?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Political aspect of Vijayanagar Empire
The Vijayanagara Empire, or the "city of victory," was founded in the 14th century by Harihara and Bukka. It covered the entire Krishna-Tungabhadra Doab peninsula, from the river Krishna in the north to its southern extremity. Harihara I founded a new city on the south bank of a tributary to the river Krishna and ruled it as an agent of a deity to whom all the land south of the river Krishna belonged.
Q5Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › British Economic Policies & Deindustrialization
Who of the following was/were economic critic/critics of colonialism in India?
- Dadabhai Naoroji
- G. Subramania Iyer
- R.C. Dutt
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Economic Criticism of British Colonialism
Dadabhai Naoroji, G. Subramania Iyer, and R.C. Dutt are notable economic critics of colonialism in India.
Nationalists' Critique of Colonial Economy:
- Early Indian nationalists extensively analyzed British rule's colonial nature in India. Their economic critique was a significant achievement of moderate nationalists.
- Dadabhai Naoroji (Grand Old man of India) in "Poverty and UnBritish Rule in India" proposed the Drain of Wealth Theory, exposing British economic exploitation in India.
- Romesh Chandra Dutta in "The Economic History of India" revealed that half of India's annual GDP flowed out every year.
- G. V. Joshi highlighted that India's development subsidized British industries.
- Other critics such as Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade, G. Subramaniam Iyer, and G.K. Gokhale meticulously examined various economic facets and colonial policies.
Q6Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Charter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts
The Government of India Act of 1919 clearly defined:
- A.
The separation of power between the judiciary and the legislature
- B.
The jurisdiction of the central and provincial governments
Correct - C.
The powers of the Secretary of State for India and the Viceroy
- D.
Explanation
Administrative Reforms post 1857
The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, later enacted as the Government of India Act in 1919, delineated the authority of central and provincial governments.
- The GoI Act 1919 established a diarchy in the provincial government, introducing dual leadership.
- This diarchy was implemented in eight provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bombay, Madras, and Punjab.
- The diarchy system bolstered provincial government authority, with governors serving as chief executives.
Introduction to Diarchy:
- The GoI Act 1919 established a diarchy in provincial governance, featuring dual leadership.
- This system was implemented in eight provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bombay, Madras, and Punjab.
- The diarchy model augmented provincial government power, with governors acting as chief executives.
Division of Subjects:
- Subjects were categorized into 'reserved' and 'transferred' lists.
- The 'reserved' list included vital areas like law and order, finance, land revenue, and irrigation, overseen by the governor's executive council.
- 'Transferred' subjects, like education, health, local government, industry, agriculture, and excise, were managed by ministers drawn from elected legislative council members.
Q7Modern History (India) › Freedom Struggle Personalities › Key Freedom Fighters, Viceroys & Governors General
Consider the following statements:
- The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Sarojini Naidu.
- The first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Important Personalities/ Important sessions of INC
Statement 1 is incorrect: The first woman President of the Indian National Congress was Annie Besant in the 1917 Calcutta Session. Sarojini Naidu became the first Indian woman President of INC in 1925 Kanpur Session.
Statement 2 is correct: Badruddin Tyabji became the first Muslim President of the Indian National Congress in the 1887 Madras Session.
Q8Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
With reference to Congress Socialist Party, consider the following statements:
- It advocated the boycott of British goods and evasion of taxes.
- It wanted to establish the dictatorship of the proletariat.
- It advocated separate electorate for minorities and oppressed classes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Congress Socialist Party
Formation of Congress Socialist Party (CSP):
- Founded in May 1934 in Patna, with Acharya Narendra Dev as president and Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) as general secretary.
- Advocated decentralized socialism and aimed to transcend communal divisions through class solidarity.
Option Analysis:
- (a) Incorrect: The CSP advocated decentralized socialism, not the dictatorship of the proletariat.
- (b) Incorrect: The CSP aimed for democratic socialism, distinct from social democracy and Marxism.
- (c) Incorrect: The CSP sought to overcome communal divisions through class solidarity.
Q9Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
Who of the following organized a march on the Tanjore coast to break the Salt Law in April 1930?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Phases of Mahatma Gandhi/Satyagraha Movements/Salt Satyagraha
Civil Disobedience Movement - The Salt Satyagraha:
- The Dandi March led by Gandhi broke the salt law by collecting salt from the beach at Dandi.
- Satyagraha movements spread to various regions, including Tamil Nadu, Malabar, Orissa, Bihar, Peshawar, and Nagaland.
Q10Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Constitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)
With reference to the Cabinet Mission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It recommended a federal government.
- It enlarged the powers of the Indian courts.
- It provided for more Indians in the ICS.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Cabinet Mission
Cabinet Mission (1946):
- Proposed a weak central government with provincial autonomy, essentially proposing a federal structure of government.
- Recommended the immediate formation of an Interim Government and the creation of a Constituent Assembly.
Option Analysis:
(a) Correct: The Cabinet Mission proposed weak central governance with provincial autonomy.
- (b) Incorrect: The plan did not include enlarging the powers of the Indian Court or increasing Indian representation in the ICS.
- (c) Incorrect: The Cabinet Mission aimed to resolve political deadlock, not to satisfy Indian demands.
- (d) Incorrect: The proposed Constituent Assembly did not consist of equal representation from British India and Indian States.
Q11Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Gandhian Era: Non-Cooperation, Civil Disobedience, Quit India
With reference to Rowlatt Satyagraha, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- The Rowlatt Act was based on the recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'.
- In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to utilize the Home Rule League.
- Demonstrations against the arrival of the Simon Commission coincided with Rowlatt Satyagraha.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Phase of Mahatma Gandhi
- The Rowlatt Act was passed based on the recommendations of the Sedition Committee.
- Gandhi utilised political networks such as the Home Rule Leagues and Satyagraha Sabha.
- The Rowlatt Satyagraha occurred in 1919, while demonstrations against the Simon Commission happened in 1928.
Q12Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Early Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule
Which one of the following movements has contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress resulting in the emergence of ‘moderates’ and ‘extremists’?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Civil Disobedience Movement
Explanation
Swadeshi Movement
Swadeshi and Boycott Movements:
The movement was launched due to the partition of Bengal. Later, it spread to other regions of the nation:
- Poona and Bombay: Bal Gangadhar Tilak
- Punjab: Lala Lajpat Rai, Ajit Singh
- Delhi: Syed Haider Raza
- Madras: Chidambaram Pillai
The Swadeshi Movement contributed to a split in the Indian National Congress in 1907, resulting in the emergence of 'moderates' and 'extremists.' The Congress Session 1907, Surat, presided by Rash Behari Ghosh, was known as Surat Split. Extremists wanted either
B.G. Tilak or Lajpat Rai as President. Moderates proposed Rashbehari Ghosh and wanted the session to be in Surat to exclude Tilak from the presidency. Since a leader from the host province could not be session president, they also sought to drop resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, and national education.
Q13Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Vedic Age & Early Society › Rise of Jainism, Buddhism and Heterodox Sects
Which of the following kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?
- Avanti
- Gandhara
- Kosala
- Magadha
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Buddha's Life:
- Kingdoms: Kosala, Magadha.
- Journey: Travels through Kosala, Magadha, Vaishali, Vajji.
- Influence: Gandhara influenced during Ashoka's reign.
Q14Indian Culture › Languages & Literature › Classical Languages and Literature (Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Regional)
which one of the following was given classical language status recently?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Recently, Odia was granted classical language status. This decision was made by the Government of India in 2014, recognizing Odia's rich literary heritage and its historical significance. Odia is one of the oldest languages in India, with a tradition of literature dating back to the 10th century. It has a vast body of classical texts, including poetry, drama, and philosophical works. The recognition of Odia as a classical language highlights its cultural importance and contribution to Indian heritage.
Q15Indian Culture › Miscellaneous Culture › Cultural Heritage Sites, Handicrafts & Awards
Which of the following has/have been accorded ‘Geographical Indication’ status?
- Banaras Brocades and Sarees
- Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma
- Tirupathi Laddu
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Geographical Indication (GI) status is given to products that have a specific geographical origin and possess qualities, reputation, or characteristics that are essentially attributable to that origin. Here's the explanation for each option:
- Banaras Brocades and Sarees: Banarasi sarees and brocades are traditional handwoven sarees and fabrics originating from Varanasi (Banaras), Uttar Pradesh, India. They have unique designs, weaving techniques, and motifs specific to the region, earning them GI status.
- Rajasthani Daal-Bati-Churma: Daal-Bati-Churma is a traditional Rajasthani dish consisting of lentils (daal), wheat dumplings (bati), and a sweet crumbled wheat mixture (churma). It is a staple dish of Rajasthan, known for its rich flavors and cultural significance, leading to its recognition with GI status.
- Tirupathi Laddu: Tirupati Laddu is a famous sweet offered as prasad (religious offering) at the Sri Venkateswara Temple in Tirumala, Andhra Pradesh. It has a unique taste and preparation method specific to the temple, making it eligible for GI status.
Q16Indian Culture › Painting, Music, Dance & Performing Arts › Schools of Indian Painting
Kalamkari painting refers to:
- A.
A hand-painted cotton textile in South India
Correct - B.
A handmade drawing on bamboo handicrafts in NorthEast India
- C.
A block-painted woollen cloth in the Western Himalayan region of India
- D.
A hand-painted decorative silk cloth in NorthWestern India
Explanation
Indian Painting Schools
Option (a): Kalamkari:
- Cotton textile from Andhra Pradesh, hand-painted or block-printed.
- Kalam (pen) used for freehand drawing and coloring.
- Originated in Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
- Initially depicted scenes from Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Bhagavatam.
Q17Indian Culture › Architecture & Sculpture › Sculpture Traditions across Periods
With reference to the art and archaeological history of India, which one among the following was made earliest?
- A.
Lingaraja Temple at Bhubaneswar
- B.
Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli
Correct - C.
Rock-cut Monuments Mahabalipuram
- D.
Varaha Image at Udayagiri
Explanation
Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/Rock-cut Cave.
Option (b) is correct. The rock-cut elephant in Dhauli dates back to Ashoka's reign, Lingaraj Temple was built in the 11th century AD, and the Mahabalipuram monuments were constructed in the 7th and 8th centuries AD. The Varaha Image was built in the 5th century AD.
- The rock-cut elephant at Dhauli was constructed during Ashoka's reign (272-231 BCE).
- Lingaraj Temple in Bhubaneshwar, Odisha: Constructed in the 11th century AD, dedicated to Lord Shiva.
- Mahabalipuram: Rock-cut monuments built by Pallava king Narasimha in the 7th and 8th centuries.
- Varaha Image at Udayagiri was built in the 5th century AD by Chandragupta to commemorate victory over foreign Shaka kings.
Q18Current Affairs › Places in News › National and International Places
The area known as ‘Golan Heights’ sometimes appears in the news in the context of the events related to
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The area known as 'Golan Heights' is located in the Middle East. It is a region that has been a subject of conflict between Israel and Syria. Israel captured the Golan Heights from Syria during the Six-Day War in 1967 and subsequently annexed it, a move not recognized by the international community. The area remains a contentious issue in the Israeli-Palestinian conflict and has strategic importance due to its location overlooking Israel's northern border. Therefore, the correct option is:
Q19Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?
- A.
- B.
Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan
- C.
- D.
Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat
Correct
Explanation
Basic Understanding of Indian map
- Westernmost point: Guhar Moti (Kutch district, Gujarat).
- Northernmost point: Eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas, near Indira Col, Siachen Glacier.
- Easternmost point: Kibithu in Arunachal Pradesh.
- Southernmost point: Indira Point, Great Nicobar Island.
Q20Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
Consider the following pairs:
| Place of Pilgrimage | Location |
|---|
| 1. Srisailam | Nallamala Hills |
| 2. Omkareshwar | Satmala Hills |
| 3. Pushkar | Mahadeo Hills |
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Famous pilgrim places of India
Pair 1: Srisailam in Andhra Pradesh and Khajuraho Temples in Madhya Pradesh are correctly matched.
Pair 2: Omkareshwar in Madhya Pradesh and Pushkar in Rajasthan are incorrectly matched.
Q21Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Miscellaneous
Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
World Map
Jordan is a landlocked country with no opening to the Mediterranean Sea.
Q22Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves
What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial counter current? :
- A.
The Earth’s rotation on its axis
- B.
Convergence of the two equatorial currents
Correct - C.
Difference in salinity of water
- D.
Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator
Explanation
Equatorial Counter Currents
Option (a): Incorrect - Equatorial currents move west to east.
Option (b): Correct - Water piling up in the western Pacific leads to the Equatorial Counter Current (CEC).
Option (c): Incorrect - Salinity influences vertical, not horizontal, currents.
Option (d): Incorrect - The Doldrums have little effect on Equatorial Counter Currents.
Q23Physical Geography (World) › Oceanography › Ocean Relief, Currents, Tides & Waves
Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following? :
- Gravitational force of the Sun
- Gravitational force of the Moon
- Centrifugal force of the Earth
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Formation of Tides
Tides result from the gravitational pull of the moon and sun, balancing with centrifugal force.
Studying tides involves complex geographical and temporal considerations.
Q24Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclone does not originate. What is the reason?
- A.
Sea surface temperatures are low
- B.
Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs
Correct - C.
Coriolis force is too weak
- D.
Absence of land in those regions
Explanation
Cyclone:
- Weather phenomenon with a low-pressure center and rotating winds.
- Classified as tropical or extra-tropical.
- Tropical cyclones form over warm ocean water, with low atmospheric pressure and high humidity, influenced by the Coriolis effect.
Q25Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Atmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds
Consider the following statements:
- The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
- The moist air masses that cause winter rains in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Westerlies:
- Winds from subtropical high-pressure belts to sub-polar low-pressure belts.
- Play a role in transporting warm equatorial waters and winds to western coasts of continents.
Q26Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Climate Types, Cyclones & Jet Streams
“Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.” Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Equatorial Climate:
- Hot, humid climate near the equator.
- Little temperature variation, high and frequent precipitation.
- Prone to tropical storms and cyclones, especially in coastal areas.
Q27Economic Geography (India) › Industry & Transport › Industrial Regions and Major Industries
In India, the steel production industry requires the import of:
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Industry
Option (c): Steel production requires coking coal, with 85% of the requirement currently met through imports.
Options (a) and (b) are incorrect as saltpetre and rock phosphate are not used in steel production.
Q28Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Forest Cover and Vegetation Types
In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?
- A.
Tropical moist deciduous forest
Correct - B.
- C.
Tropical thorn scrub forest
- D.
Temperate forest with Grasslands
Explanation
Natural Vegetation of India:
- Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests: Annual rainfall 100-200 cm, mean annual temperature around 27°C, and average annual relative humidity of 60-75%.
Q29Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns
Consider the following rivers:
- Vamsadhara
- Indravati
- Pranahita
- Pennar
Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Peninsular Drainage/River
About River Godavari:
- India’s second longest and third-biggest river
- Drains into the Bay of Bengal via a network of tributaries
- Nicknamed the Dakshina Ganga or “Southern Ganga”
- Indravati and Pranhita are its tributaries
Additional Information:
- River Vamsadhara flows between Rushikulya and Godavari in Odisha and Andhra Pradesh but is not a tributary
- The Pennar rises in Karnataka and flows east to the Bay of Bengal
Q30Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Miscellaneous
In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Living Root Bridges
About Living Root Bridges:
- Found in Meghalaya, known as Jing Kieng Jri
- Constructed by shaping and weaving Indian rubber tree roots
- Resemble suspension bridges, created by guiding roots across streams and allowing them to strengthen
Q31Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Forest Cover and Vegetation Types
Consider the following States:
- Arunachal Pradesh
- Himachal Pradesh
- Mizoram
In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Natural Vegetation of India
Tropical wet evergreen forests found in states like Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Tripura, Mizoram, West Bengal, Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Himachal Pradesh falls under the Montane type.
Q32Geography of India › Soils & Natural Vegetation › Forest Cover and Vegetation Types
Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
- A.
North Coastal Andhra Pradesh
- B.
- C.
- D.
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Correct
Explanation
Natural Vegetation of India
About Andaman and Nicobar Islands:
- Tropical rainforest canopy with moist deciduous forests in the Middle Andamans
- Wet evergreen forests in North Andamans, mangrove forests in coastal regions
Q33Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the
- A.
- B.
International Monetary Fund
- C.
United Nations Environment Programme
- D.Correct
Explanation
The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is indeed managed by the World Bank. It supports reducing greenhouse gas emissions from the land sector, particularly from deforestation and forest degradation, through payments for emission reductions achieved by countries.
Q34Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a global partnership governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples.
- It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management.
- It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation+)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
- The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility (FCPF) is indeed a global partnership that involves governments, businesses, civil society, and indigenous peoples. It aims to reduce carbon emissions from deforestation and forest degradation.
- However, the FCPF does not provide financial aid specifically to universities, individual scientists, or institutions for scientific forestry research. Its focus is on assisting countries in their efforts to reduce emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+).
- The primary objective of the FCPF is to support countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing financial and technical assistance. This includes funding for activities such as capacity building, forest monitoring, and implementation of REDD+ strategies.
Q35Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › National Environmental Authorities
With reference to the Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency(IREDA), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a Public Limited Public Limited Government Company.
- It is a Non-Banking Financial Company.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
- It is a Public Limited Government Company: This statement is correct. The Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) is indeed a public limited company established by the Government of India. It operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.
- It is a Non-Banking Financial Company: This statement is also correct. IREDA functions as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) that provides financial assistance and promotes renewable energy projects in India. As an NBFC, it facilitates the financing of renewable energy projects through various financial instruments and schemes.
Q36Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
With reference to an organisation known as ‘BirdLife International’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations.
- The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organisation.
- It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Major Conservation Organizations
- BirdLife International works on bird and habitat conservation.
- It identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
- Incorrect: Biodiversity Hotspots concept originated from Norman Myers.
- Correct: BirdLife identifies Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas.
Q37Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › International Environmental Organisations
With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resource (IUCN) and the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?
- IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments.
- IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments.
- CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Major Environmental Conventions
- IUCN is an NGO, while CITES is an intergovernmental treaty.
- IUCN supports scientific research and policy implementation.
- Correct: CITES is legally binding but complements national laws.
Q38Environment › International Environmental Efforts › COP & Paris Agreement
Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?
- It is intended to assist developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change.
- It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Global Climate Finance Architecture
- Green Climate Fund (GCF) aims to mitigate and adapt to climate change.
- Incorrect: GCF was discussed in Cancun Summit 2010 and adopted in Durban Summit 2011.
- Correct: GCF contributes to global climate goals.
Q39Environment › Pollution › Water Pollution & Bodies
What can be the impact of excessive/inappropriate use of nitrogenous fertilizers in agriculture?
- Proliferation of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms in soil can occur.
- Increase in the acidity of soil can take place.
- Leaching of nitrate to the groundwater can occur.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Soil Pollution
Impact of Nitrogenous Fertilizers:
- Excessive use leads to decreased necessity for nitrogen-fixing bacteria and increases soil acidity, affecting groundwater.
- Statement 1: Incorrect. More nitrogen reduces the need for nitrogen-fixing bacteria.
- Statement 2 & 3: Correct. Excessive use increases soil acidity and nitrate leaching.
Q40Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a herbivorous marine animal.
- It is found along the entire coast of India.
- It is given legal protection under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Sea Cow (Dugong): Herbivorous mammal, found in India, legally protected.
Q41Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Gangetic River Dolphin: National Aquatic Animal of India.
Q42Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?
- A.
Bhitarkanika National Park
- B.
Keibul Lamjao National Park
Correct - C.
Keoladeo Ghana National Park
- D.
Explanation
Keibul Lamjao National Park
Option (b) correct: Unique floating park in Manipur, protecting Eld’s deer habitat with diverse flora and fauna.
Q43Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?
- A.
Khangchendzonga National Park
- B.
- C.
Neora Valley National Park
- D.Correct
Explanation
Namdapha National Park
Option (d) correct: Located in Arunachal Pradesh, diverse climates due to altitude variation, established as India's 15th Tiger Reserve in 1983.
Q44Environment › Ecology & Ecosystem › Ecosystem Concepts
Which one of the following is the best description of the term ‘ecosystem’?
- A.
A community of organisms interacting with one another
- B.
That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms
- C.
A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live
Correct - D.
The flora and fauna of a geographical area
Explanation
Ecosystem
Option (c) is correct: Ecosystem is a community of organisms with their environment.
Ecosystem:
- Functional unit of nature where organisms interact with each other and the environment.
- Can be of any size but usually includes specific species (e.g., Aquatic Ecosystem).
- Biotic and abiotic components linked through nutrient cycles and energy flows.
- Species and elements in an ecosystem are interdependent.
- Damage or extinction of a component affects the entire system.
Q45Environment › International Environmental Efforts › Miscellaneous
Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone depleting substances?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer:
The Montreal Protocol addresses ozone-depleting substances and was the first universal treaty on environmental protection.
Q46Environment › International Environmental Efforts › Miscellaneous
What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?
- A.
It is the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development
Correct - B.
It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization
- C.
It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change.
- D.
It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity.
Explanation
Major Environment Conventions, Conference, etc.:
The Rio+20 Conference, held in 2012, aimed to address poverty, equity, and environmental protection. It focused on building a green economy and enhancing international cooperation for sustainable development.
Q47Environment › Environmental Legislation & Bodies › Environmental Protection Acts
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee is constituted under the
- A.
Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
- B.
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
- C.
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
Correct - D.
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
Explanation
Genetically Modified Crops:
The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee, established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, appraises activities involving hazardous microorganisms and evaluates proposals for releasing genetically engineered organisms into the environment.
Q48Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Miscellaneous
With reference to ‘Near Field Communication (NFC) Technology’, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It is a contactless communication technology that uses electromagnetic radio fields.
- NFC is designed for use by devices which can be at a distance of even a meter from each other.
- NFC can use encryption when sending sensitive information.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Near Field Communication (NFC):
- Contactless communication technology
- Operates at 13.56 MHz frequency
- Exchanges data between devices through touch gesture
- Designed for short operation distance, enhancing security
- Higher security level compared to other wireless protocols
Q49Chemistry › Metals, Alloys & Materials › Plaster of Paris & Building Materials
With reference to ‘fly ash’ produced by the power plants using coal as fuel, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Fly ash can be used in the production of bricks for building construction.
- Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some of the Portland cement contents of concrete.
- Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and calcium oxide only and does not contain any toxic elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Fly ash, a byproduct of coal-fired power stations, has pozzolanic characteristics that make it useful in cementitious compounds.
Q50Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Battery Technology & Fuel Cells
With reference to ‘fuel cells’ in which hydrogen-rich fuel and oxygen are used to generate electricity, consider the following statements:
- If pure hydrogen is used as a fuel, the fuel cell emits heat and water as by-products.
- Fuel cells can be used for powering buildings and not for small devices like laptop computers.
- Fuel cells produce electricity in the form of Alternating Current (AC).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Fuel cells generate electricity efficiently and cleanly by utilizing the chemical energy of fuels like hydrogen, producing only water, heat, and electricity as byproducts.
Q51Awards & Honours › National Awards › Miscellaneous
Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2014 was given to which one of the following?
- A.
Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
- B.
Indian Institute of Science
- C.
Indian Space Research Organization
Correct - D.
Tata Institute Research of Fundamental
Explanation
The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament, and Development for 2014 was awarded to the Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO). ISRO received this prestigious award in recognition of its significant contributions to the peaceful use of outer space technology, as well as its efforts in advancing space research and development for the benefit of humanity.
Q52Biology › Diseases › Communicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)
Among the following, which were frequently mentioned in the news for the outbreak of Ebola virus recently?
- A.
- B.
Guinea, Sierra Leone and Liberia
Correct - C.
Philippines and Papua New Guinea
- D.
Jamaica, Haiti and Surinam
Explanation
The outbreak of the Ebola virus has been predominantly associated with countries in West Africa. Guinea, Sierra Leone, and Liberia were particularly affected by the recent outbreak. The Ebola virus caused significant public health concerns in these regions due to its highly contagious nature and severe health impacts.
Q53Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › Indian Space Programme
In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?
- Assessment of crop productivity
- Locating groundwater resources
- Mineral exploration
- Telecommunications
- Traffic studies
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites play a crucial role in various activities. Here's a brief explanation of how they are used:
- IRS satellites provide valuable data for monitoring crop health, estimating yield, and identifying areas affected by pests, diseases, or other factors. This helps in agricultural planning, management, and decision-making.
- Locating groundwater resources: By analyzing satellite imagery and data, geologists and hydrologists can identify potential groundwater sources, assess aquifer characteristics, and monitor changes in groundwater levels over time.
- Mineral exploration: IRS satellites are utilized in identifying geological structures, mapping terrain, and detecting mineral deposits based on spectral signatures. This aids in mineral exploration and resource assessment, contributing to the mining industry's development.
- Telecommunications: While IRS satellites primarily focus on Earth observation, they may also have limited telecommunications capabilities for data transmission and communication purposes.
- Traffic studies: IRS satellites can be used to monitor traffic patterns, vehicle movements, and infrastructure development in urban and rural areas, providing valuable insights for transportation planning and management.
Q54Biology › Diseases › Communicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)
HINI virus is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to which one of the following diseases?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The HINI virus is often associated with the disease known as swine flu. Swine flu, caused by the H1N1 influenza virus, is a respiratory illness commonly found in pigs. However, it can also infect humans, leading to symptoms such as fever, cough, sore throat, body aches, fatigue, and sometimes vomiting and diarrhea.
In severe cases, it can result in complications such as pneumonia and respiratory failure. The virus can spread from person to person through respiratory droplets, similar to how the seasonal flu spreads.
Therefore, it's important to take preventive measures such as vaccination and practicing good hygiene to reduce the risk of contracting swine flu.
Q55Biology › Microorganisms › Beneficial Microbes (Probiotics, Fermentation)
With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian Railways, consider the following statements :
- The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets is initiated by a fungal inoculum.
- Ammonia and water vapour are the only end products in this decomposition which are released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
- The decomposition of human waste in the bio-toilets of Indian Railways is indeed initiated by a fungal inoculum. This inoculum contains microorganisms like bacteria and fungi that break down organic matter, including human waste, into simpler compounds.
- Ammonia and water vapor are indeed among the end products of this decomposition process. However, in addition to these, other compounds such as carbon dioxide and methane may also be released. These end products are eventually released into the atmosphere, contributing to the natural carbon and nitrogen cycles.
Q56Applied Science & Technology › Nano Technology › Nanotechnology: Applications & Impacts
With reference to the use of nanotechnology in the health sector, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- Targeted drug delivery is made possible by nanotechnology.
- Nanotechnology can largely contribute to gene therapy.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Nanotechnology
Nanotechnology involves understanding and controlling matter at the nanoscale. Targeted drug delivery via nanoscale carriers enhances therapeutic efficacy while minimizing side effects. Nanotechnology can advance genetic treatment by addressing diseases at a genetic level.
Q57Physics › Nuclear & Modern Physics › Standard Model of Particle Physics
In the context of modern scientific research, consider the following statements about ‘IceCube,’ a particle detector located at the South Pole, which was recently in the news:
- It is the world’s largest neutrino detector, encompassing a cubic kilometer of ice.
- It is a powerful telescope to search for dark matter.
- It is buried deep in the ice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The IceCube Neutrino Observatory, designed to observe the cosmos from deep within the South Pole ice, is the largest neutrino detector ever built. It detects high-energy cosmic messengers from violent astrophysical sources, aiding in studying stellar explosions, gamma-ray bursts, and phenomena involving black holes and neutron stars. Statement 1 correction: IceCube, with a cubic kilometer of ice, is the largest neutrino detector built, buried up to 2.5 km deep. Statement 2 correction: IceCube telescope aids in searching for dark matter and understanding high-energy particle origins. Statement 3 correction: IceCube detects neutrinos in a cubic kilometer of ice.
Q58Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › World Space Missions
The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of
- A.
The limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth
- B.
Regions inside the Earth where shale gas is available
- C.
Search for Earth-like planets in outer space
Correct - D.
Search for meteorites containing precious metals
Explanation
The Goldilocks Zone, or habitable zone around a star, maintains an optimal temperature for liquid water, crucial for life. Earth's position in this zone allows for liquid water and life to thrive. Statement 1 correction: The Goldilocks Zone is crucial for liquid water to exist on a planet. Statement 2 correction: Earth's position in the Goldilocks Zone allows for the existence of liquid water and life.
Q59Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Non-Constitutional & Statutory Bodies (NITI Aayog, NHRC, CVC, Lokpal)
The Government of India has established NITI Aayog to replace the
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Government of India established NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission. NITI Aayog serves as a policy think tank that provides strategic and directional inputs to the government. Unlike the Planning Commission, which focused on centralized economic planning, NITI Aayog promotes cooperative federalism and fosters the involvement of states in the economic decision-making process.
Q60Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
"To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India" is a provision made in the:
- A.
Preamble of the Constitution
- B.
Directive Principles of State Policy
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
List of Fundamental Duties
Article 51A of part IV-A of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties. These duties are the moral and civic obligations that all citizens of a nation have. In 1976, the Fundamental Duties were first recommended by the Swaran Singh Committee, its need was felt during the internal emergency (1975-77) and were added to the Constitution by 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976. One of the Fundamental Duties is to “To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India” among the 11 Fundamental Duties.
Q61Indian Polity › Local Government › Panchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)
The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- People’s participation in development
- Political accountability
- Democratic decentralization
- Financial mobilization
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Objective of Local Governance
Statements 1 and 3: Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs) aim to promote grassroots democracy, development, ensure socio-economic progress, and provide justice. Political accountability is achievable in any democratic system.
Statement 2: Political accountability is achievable in any democratic system.
Statement 4: Financial mobilization was not the basis for establishing PRIs.
Q62Indian Polity › Legislature › State Legislature
Consider the following statements:
- The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Composition of Legislative Assembly/Legislative Council
- Incorrect: Article 171 sets Legislative Council size.
- Incorrect: Legislative Council members are indirectly elected.
Q63Indian Polity › Union Executive › President, Vice-President & Governor
Consider the following statements:
- The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- The Prime Minister is the ex Officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Powers of President/Executives:
The executive power of the Union is vested in the President, exercised directly or through subordinate officers. The Cabinet Secretary serves as the top civil servant of the Indian government.
Q64Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
- The principles spell out of the socio-economic democracy in the country.
- The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Features of the Directive Principles
- DPSPs, including Article 38 promoting social, economic, and political justice, form a comprehensive framework for governance.
- Article 37 highlights the non-justiciable nature of DPSP, essential for governance but not enforceable by courts.
Q65Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Directive Principles of State Policy & Fundamental Duties
The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
- A.
- B.
Directive Principles of State Policy
Correct - C.
- D.
Explanation
Features of the Directive Principles
- DPSPs embody socio-economic and political goals for a welfare state, distinct from fundamental rights that restrict state action.
Q66Indian Polity › Union Executive › Prime Minister & Council of Ministers
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
- A.
Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
- B.
Parliament can amend the Constitution
- C.
Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
- D.
Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Correct
Explanation
Parliamentary System of Government
India operates under a parliamentary system of government, where the executive is responsible to the legislature. The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers are accountable to the Lok Sabha, and collective responsibility ensures the government's accountability to Parliament.
Q67Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
Consider the following statements:
- The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Annual Financial Statement / Money Bill
Statement 1: Correct. The Rajya Sabha can hold a Money Bill for a maximum of 14 days without amending it.
Statement 2: Correct. Only the Lok Sabha votes on demand for grants.
Statement 3: Incorrect. Rajya Sabha doesn't have equal status with Lok Sabha regarding the Annual Financial Statement discussions.
Q68Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by
- A.
a simple majority of members present and voting
Correct - B.
three-fourths majority of members present and voting
- C.
two-thirds majority of the Houses
- D.
absolute majority of the Houses
Explanation
Joint Session of Parliament
Joint sitting (Article 108):
- Mechanism for resolving House deadlock over bill passage.
- Summoned by the President.
- Occurs when bills are rejected, or there's disagreement, or if six months pass without action.
Q69Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › State Reorganization, UTs & Scheduled Areas
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to:
- A.
protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
Correct - B.
determine the boundaries between States
- C.
determine the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats
- D.
protect the interests of all the border States
Explanation
Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution
Fifth and Sixth Schedule:
- Fifth: Administration and control of scheduled areas and tribes except in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
- Sixth: Administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Q70Indian Polity › Judiciary › Supreme Court, High Courts & Judicial Review
Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?
- A.
- B.
The Prime Minister of India
- C.
The Lok Sabha Secretariat
- D.
The Supreme Court of India
Correct
Explanation
Interpretation of Constitution
The SC interprets and safeguards the Constitution's integrity.
Q71Economy › National Income & Measures › GDP, GNP, NNP Concepts
With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:
- The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
- The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Economic Growth
Statement 1: Real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is an inflation-adjusted measure that reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year, expressed in base-year prices. It allows for meaningful comparisons of GDP over time and across different years. The rate of growth of Real GDP fluctuated considerably over the last decade, notably decreasing in 2008-09 due to the global financial crisis.
Statement 2: Gross Domestic Product at market prices is the sum of added values of all activities producing goods and services, plus taxes and minus subsidies on products. It determines the total wealth generated by both private and public agents in a nation’s territory over a specific time frame. Despite fluctuations, Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has generally increased without a declining trend over the last decade, as evidenced by planning commission data.
Q72Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › Government Expenditure
There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
- Reducing revenue expenditure
- Introducing new welfare schemes
- Rationalizing subsidies
- Expanding industries
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Public Finance:
- Budget deficit occurs when spending exceeds revenue.
- Rationalizing subsidies can reduce the deficit.
Q73Economy › External Sector › Foreign Exchange Management
Convertibility of rupee implies:
- A.
being able to convert rupee notes into gold.
- B.
allowing the value of rupee to be fixed by market forces.
- C.
freely permitting the conversion of rupee to other currencies and vice versa.
Correct - D.
developing an international market for currencies in India.
Explanation
Currency Convertibility
Currency convertibility allows a country's currency to be freely exchanged for foreign currency or gold at market exchange rates, facilitating smooth financial transactions for importing and exporting goods and services.
Q74Economy › External Sector › Balance of Payments
The problem of international liquidity is related to the nonavailability of:
- A.
- B.
- C.
Dollars and other hard currencies
Correct - D.
Explanation
Basic Economic Concepts
International liquidity refers to the resources available to countries' monetary authorities to address balance of payments deficits. These resources range from readily available assets to those accessible through negotiation. Gold and widely accepted foreign currencies are the primary sources of international liquidity, a challenge primarily faced by developing nations.
Q75Economy › National Income & Measures › Index of Industrial Production (IIP)
In the ‘Index of Eight Core Industries’, which one of the following is given the highest weight?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Index of Industrial Production
- The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) tracks sectoral growth in mining, electricity, and manufacturing.
- The all India IIP is a composite indicator measuring short-term production volume changes compared to a base period, published monthly by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) six weeks post the reference month.
- Eight core sectors, constituting 40.27% of the IIP weight, include Refinery Products, Electricity, Steel, Coal, Crude Oil, Natural Gas, Cement, and Fertilisers.
Q76Economy › Agricultural Policy › Minimum Support Price (MSP)
The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is approved by the :
- A.
Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs.
Correct - B.
Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices.
- C.
Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, Ministry of Agriculture.
- D.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee.
Explanation
Government Policies (FRP):
FRP's role in ensuring timely payment to sugarcane farmers:
The Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane is a price mechanism implemented by the government to ensure that sugarcane farmers receive fair compensation for their produce. It is approved by the authority responsible for agricultural pricing and policies.
The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is the authority responsible for recommending the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) for sugarcane to the government. It is a statutory body that advises the government on agricultural pricing policies and ensures fair compensation to farmers.
Q77Economy › Agricultural Policy › Miscellaneous
In India, markets in agricultural products are regulated under the :
- A.
Essential Commodities Act, 1955
- B.
Agricultural Produce Market Committee Act enacted by States
Correct - C.
Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937
- D.
Food Products Order, 1956 and Meat and Food Products Order, 1973
Explanation
Government Policies (APMC):
APMC's role in regulating agricultural trade:
In India, markets in agricultural products are primarily regulated under the (b) Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act enacted by States.
This Act provides for the establishment of market committees, commonly known as APMC mandis, which oversee the buying and selling of agricultural produce within their respective jurisdictions.
These mandis aim to ensure fair prices for farmers, prevent exploitation, maintain quality standards, and promote orderly marketing of agricultural commodities.
The APMC Act empowers state governments to regulate the functioning of these markets, including licensing of traders, imposition of market fees, and establishment of market yards.
Q78Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agriculture Schemes
Consider the following statements :
- The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched during 1996-97 to provide loan assistance to poor farmers.
- The Command Area Development Programme was launched in 1974-75 for the development of water-use efficiency.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Sustainable Agriculture:
- AIBP and CADWM's roles in irrigation development.
Q79Economy › Microeconomics Basics › Theory of Firm, Costs & Production
The substitution of steel for wooden ploughs in agricultural production is an example of :
- A.
Labour-augmenting technological progress
- B.
Capital-augmenting technological progress
Correct - C.
Capital-reducing technological progress
- D.
Explanation
Agricultural Infrastructure:
- Definitions and examples of labour and capital augmenting technologies.
- Capital-augmenting progress refers to technological advancements that increase the efficiency or productivity of capital inputs in the production process.
- In this case, replacing wooden ploughs with steel ploughs enhances the capital input by introducing a more durable and efficient tool for agricultural tasks.
- Steel ploughs are more resilient, require less maintenance, and can be used for longer periods compared to wooden ploughs. This increases the productivity of capital investment in agricultural equipment.
- Therefore, the substitution of steel for wooden ploughs represents a form of capital-augmenting progress.
Q80Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agriculture Schemes
Which one of the following best describes the main objective of ‘Seed Village Concept’?
- A.
Encouraging the farmers to use their own farm seeds and discouraging them to buy the seeds from others
- B.
Involving the farmers for training in quality seed production and thereby to make available quality seeds to others at appropriate time and affordable cost
Correct - C.
Earmarking some villages exclusively for the production of certified seeds
- D.
Identifying the entrepreneurs in villages and providing them technology and finance to set up seed companies
Explanation
Government Policies (Seed Village):
The main objective of the 'Seed Village' concept is to engage farmers in the production of high-quality seeds through training and guidance.
By training farmers in quality seed production techniques, the aim is to ensure that they can produce seeds of superior quality.
These quality seeds are then made available to other farmers at the right time and at an affordable cost.
This approach helps in improving seed availability, accessibility, and affordability for farmers, thereby enhancing agricultural productivity and crop yields.
It also promotes self-sufficiency among farmers by encouraging them to produce their own seeds rather than relying on external sources.
Q81Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › Inflation Control
With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct?
- A.
Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
- B.
The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
- C.
Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Correct - D.
Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Explanation
Measures to Combat Inflation:
- RBI controls inflation through monetary policies.
- Decreased money circulation helps combat inflation.
- Causes of inflation include increased demand and reduced supply.
Q82Economy › Banking › Banking Reforms
‘Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana’ has been launched for:
- A.
Providing housing loans to poor people at cheaper interest rates.
- B.
Promoting women’s Self-help Groups in backward areas.
- C.
Promoting financial inclusion in the country.
Correct - D.
Providing financial help to the marginalized communities.
Explanation
Government Policies
- Financial inclusion is a key objective of PMJDY Scheme.
Q83Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, which of the following is likely to happen?
- A.
India’s GDP growth rate increases drastically
- B.
Foreign Institutional Investors may bring more capital into our country
- C.
Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut their lending rates
Correct - D.
It may drastically reduce the liquidity to the banking system
Explanation
Monetary Policy Tools
- SLR cut provides banks room to reduce rates and increase lending.
Q84Economy › Banking › Banking Reforms
‘Basel III Accord’ or simply ‘Basel III’ often seen in the new, seeks to:
- A.
Develop national strategies for the conservation and sustainable use of biological diversity
- B.
Improve banking sector’s ability to deal with financial and economic stress and improve risk management
Correct - C.
Reduce the greenhouse gas emissions but places a heavier burden on developed countries
- D.
Transfer technology from developed countries to poor countries to enable them to replace the use of chlorofluorocarbons in refrigeration with harmless chemicals
Explanation
BASEL III Norms
- Basel III aims to strengthen banking regulation and requires banks to hold a minimum of 10.5% tier-1 and tier-2 assets.
Q85Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
With reference to Indian economy, consider the following:
- Bank rate
- Open market operations
- Public debt
- Public Revenue
Which of the above is/are component/components of Monetary Policy?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
RBI Monetary Policy
- Monetary policy tools include bank rate and open market operations.
Q86International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › SAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region
The 'Fortaleza Declaration’, recently in the news, is related to the affairs of
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The 'Fortaleza Declaration' is related to the affairs of BRICS. It was issued during the BRICS Summit held in Fortaleza, Brazil, in 2014. The declaration outlined key initiatives and agreements among the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) on various economic, political, and strategic issues.
Q87International Relations › International Organisations › WTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions
Which one of the following issues the ‘Global Economic Prospects’ report periodically?
- A.
The Asian Development Bank
- B.
The European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
- C.
The US Federal Reserve Bank
- D.Correct
Explanation
The "Global Economic Prospects" report is issued periodically by the World Bank. This report provides analysis and forecasts of global economic trends, including growth prospects, risks, and challenges faced by countries around the world. It offers valuable insights into the state of the global economy and helps policymakers, investors, and businesses make informed decisions.
Q88Applied Science & Technology › Information & Communication Technology › Miscellaneous
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF}?
- NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology under the Central Government.
- NIF is an initiative to strengthen the highly advanced scientific research in India’s premier scientific institutions in collaboration with highly advanced foreign scientific institutions.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
- National Innovation Foundation-India (NIF) is indeed an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology (DST) under the Central Government. It was set up to promote grassroots innovations and foster a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in India.
- However, NIF's primary focus is not on collaboration with foreign scientific institutions but rather on identifying, nurturing, and scaling up grassroots innovations developed by individuals and communities across the country.
Q89Economy › National Income & Measures › Price Indices (CPI, WPI, PPI, GDP Deflator)
Which of the following brings out the ‘Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers'?
- A.
The Reserve Bank of India
- B.
The Department of Economic Affairs
- C.Correct
- D.
The Department of Personnel and Training
Explanation
The "Consumer Price Index Number for Industrial Workers" is brought out by the Labour Bureau. This index measures changes in the prices paid by industrial workers for a fixed basket of goods and services, providing crucial insights into inflation trends affecting this segment of the population. Therefore, the correct option is:
Q90Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agricultural Trade & WTO
The terms ‘Agreement on Agriculture’, ‘Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures’ and ‘Peace Clause’ appear in the news frequently in the context of the affairs of the
- A.
Food and Agriculture Organization
- B.
United Nations Framework Conference on Climate Change
- C.Correct
- D.
United Nations Environment Programme
Explanation
The terms 'Agreement on Agriculture', 'Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures' (SPS Agreement), and 'Peace Clause' are all related to the functions and regulations of the World Trade Organization (WTO).
- Agreement on Agriculture: This agreement sets out the rules for international trade in agricultural products, aiming to promote fair competition and reduce distortions in agricultural markets.
- Agreement on the Application of Sanitary and Phytosanitary Measures (SPS Agreement): This agreement establishes the rules for food safety and animal and plant health standards in international trade. It ensures that countries can protect human, animal, and plant health without unjustifiably restricting trade.
- Peace Clause: This clause provides temporary protection to developing countries against legal challenges for breaching WTO subsidy limits on agricultural production. It allows them to exceed their agreed-upon subsidy limits temporarily without facing trade retaliation from other WTO members.
Q91International Relations › International Organisations › Miscellaneous
- A.
an agency of the United Nations to help refugees of civil wars
- B.
a global Human Rights Movement
Correct - C.
a non-governmental voluntary organization to help very poor people
- D.
an inter-governmental agency to cater to medical war-ravaged regions
Explanation
Amnesty International is a non-governmental organization that focuses on advocating for human rights worldwide. It conducts research and generates action to prevent and end grave abuses of human rights, and to demand justice for those whose rights have been violated. Amnesty International works independently of any government, political ideology, economic interest, or religion, and it relies on voluntary donations and contributions from individuals and organizations around the world to carry out its work.
Q92International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › Miscellaneous
India is a member of which among the following?
- Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
- Association of South-East Asian Nations
- East Asia Summit
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
India is a member of none of them
Explanation
India is a member of the East Asia Summit (EAS). The East Asia Summit is a regional forum held annually by leaders of 18 countries in the East Asian, Southeast Asian, and South Asian regions. It addresses strategic, political, and economic issues of common concern to promote peace, stability, and prosperity in the region. India's participation in the East Asia Summit reflects its commitment to regional cooperation and engagement in addressing shared challenges.
Q93International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › Miscellaneous
In the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation, an initiative of six countries, which of the following is/are not a participant/participants?
- Bangladesh
- Cambodia
- China
- Myanmar
- Thailand
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation is an initiative involving six countries: India and five ASEAN countries - Cambodia, Laos, Myanmar, Thailand, and Vietnam. The cooperation aims to enhance cultural, economic, and political ties between the member nations, particularly focusing on connectivity, trade, tourism, and people-to-people exchanges.
- Cambodia (Option 2) is a participant in the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation.
- China (Option 3) is not a participant in the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation. China is not among the six member countries.
- Myanmar (Option 4) is a participant in the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation.
- Thailand (Option 5) is a participant in the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation.
Q94International Relations › Regional & Global Groupings › SAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region
With reference to 'Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC), consider the following statements :
- It was established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and accidents of oil spills.
- It is an alliance meant for maritime security only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
The Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Cooperation (IOR-ARC) was not established very recently in response to incidents of piracy and oil spills. It was actually established in 1997 with the aim of promoting regional cooperation and sustainable development within the Indian Ocean region. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
Additionally, the IOR-ARC is not solely focused on maritime security but encompasses a broader range of issues including trade, investment, fisheries management, disaster risk reduction, and cultural exchanges among member states. Therefore, statement 2 is also incorrect.
Q95Environment › International Environmental Efforts › Miscellaneous
The term 'IndARC’, sometimes seen in the news, is the name of
- A.
an indigenously developed radar system inducted into Indian Defence
- B.
India’s satellite to provide services to the countries of Indian Ocean Rim
- C.
a scientific establishment set up by India in Antarctic region
- D.
India’s underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region
Correct
Explanation
The term 'IndARC' refers to India's underwater observatory to scientifically study the Arctic region. It stands for "Indian Arctic Research Centre." This facility allows India to conduct scientific research and gather data in the Arctic region, contributing to global understanding of climate change, environmental dynamics, and other related phenomena.
Q96International Relations › International Organisations › United Nations and its Bodies
‘Beijing Declaration and Platform Action’, often seen in the news, is
- A.
a strategy to tackle the for regional terrorism, an outcome of a meeting of the Shanghai Organization
- B.
a plan action Cooperation for sustainable of economic growth in the Asia-Pacific Region, an outcome of the deliberations of the Asia-Pacific Economic Forum
- C.
an agenda for women’s empowerment, an outcome of a World Conference convened by the United Nations
Correct - D.
a strategy to combat wildlife trafficking, a declaration of the East Asia Summit
Explanation
The "Beijing Declaration and Platform for Action" is an agenda for women's empowerment. It emerged from the Fourth World Conference on Women held in Beijing in 1995, convened by the United Nations. This landmark declaration outlines strategic objectives and actions for achieving gender equality and the empowerment of women globally. It covers various areas such as women's rights, education, healthcare, economic participation, and political representation.
Q97Economy › External Sector › Balance of Payments
The problem of international lquidity is related to the non-availability of
- A.
- B.
- C.
dollars and other hard currencies
Correct - D.
Explanation
International liquidity refers to the availability of foreign currencies, particularly stable and widely accepted currencies like the US dollar, for conducting international transactions and settling debts. When there is a shortage of dollars and other hard currencies in the global market, it creates a problem of international liquidity. This scarcity can hinder trade, investment, and economic stability, as countries may struggle to obtain the necessary currency for their international transactions.
Q98Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)
With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent.
- It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Finance Commission
The Fourteenth Finance Commission increased states' share in central divisible funds but didn't recommend sector-specific grants.
Q99Economy › Fiscal Policy & Taxation › Government Budgeting – Revenue & Capital Accounts
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
- The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.
- No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.
- All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Public Finance
Budgetary processes and classifications, including the Consolidated Fund of India and Public Account, govern financial operations.
Q100Economy › National Income & Measures › Economic Growth Indicators
A decrease in tax to GDP ratio of a country indicates which of the following?
- Slowing economic growth rate
- Less equitable distribution of national income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Economic Growth
Tax-to-GDP ratio impacts fiscal health, influencing government spending and economic growth.