UPSC CSE Prelims 2016 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

All 98 questions from this paper with the correct answer and a detailed explanation for each. Covers Ancient & Medieval History (India), Modern History (India), Indian Culture, Current Affairs, Geography of India, Environment, Economic Geography (India), Biology, Chemistry, Physics, Applied Science & Technology, Economy, Indian Polity, International Relations, Agriculture Science, Schemes & Social Justice.

Questions
98 questions
Duration
120 minutes
Marking
+2.000 / −0.666
Q1Ancient & Medieval History (India)Regional & South Indian DynastiesCholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas

In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs:

TermDescription
1. EripattiLand revenue which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank
2. TaniyursVillages donated to single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins
3. GhatikasColleges generally attached to the temples

Which of the pairs given above is correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1 and 2

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3

  4. D.

    1 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Terminologies based on ancient India

  1. Etipatti: This term refers to land revenue that was specifically allocated for the maintenance of village tanks. It ensured that there was a sustainable source of funding for the upkeep of these crucial water bodies, which played a significant role in irrigation and agriculture.
  2. Ghatikas: These were indeed centers of learning or colleges that were typically associated with temples. They served as places of education and intellectual discourse, often focusing on religious teachings and scriptures. They were integral parts of temple complexes and contributed to the dissemination of knowledge in ancient India.
Q2Ancient & Medieval History (India)Vedic Age & Early SocietyVedic Literature, Society and Polity

With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories, and epic tales was the profession of which of the following?

  1. A.

    Shramana

  2. B.

    Parivraajaka

  3. C.

    Agrahaarika

  4. D.

    Magadha

    Correct

Explanation

Terminologies based on ancient India The Correct answer is Option (d): About Buddhism and Jainism: Buddhism and Jainism emerged as prominent religions having a large number of followers, referred to as Sramanic religions; these two religious systems were antithetical to the mainstream Vedic religion. During its development, the term came to refer to several non-Brahmanical ascetic religions parallel to but separate from the Vedic religion. The Sramaṇa tradition includes primarily Jainism, Buddhism, and others such as the Ajivika. The Sramaṇa religions became popular in the same circles of mendicants from greater Magadha that led to the development of spiritual practices, as well as the popular concepts in all major Indian religions such as Samsara (the cycle of birth and death) and moksha (liberation from that cycle). The Sramanic traditions have a diverse range of beliefs, ranging from accepting or denying the concept of soul, fatalism to free will, idealization of extreme asceticism to that of family life, renunciation, strict ahimsa (non-violence), and vegetarianism to permissibility of violence and meat-eating. Memorizing chronicles, dynastic histories, and epic tales was the profession of different types of people, the sutas and the Magdhas, who were descendants of priest families of the Vedic period. Shramana means seeker, one who performs acts of austerity. Agraharika looked after the lands given in charity. Agrahara means grant given to Brahmins; it was perpetual, hereditary, and tax-free. Parivrajaka means “One who roams around”. The Sanskrit word parivrajaka means renunciant & wanderer in English. Only a few parivrajakas have ever existed in history. Ajita Keshkambalin, Makhkhali Goshala, Gauthama Buddha, and Vardhamana Mahavira are a few well-known examples.

Q3Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mauryan, Gupta & Post-Gupta IndiaMauryan Empire & Ashoka

Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka?

  1. A.

    Georg Buhler

  2. B.

    James Prinsep

    Correct
  3. C.

    Max Muller

  4. D.

    William Jones

Explanation

Ashoka and His Inscriptions: James Prinsep decoded Ashoka's edicts in 1837, unveiling Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts. His work revolutionized understanding of Mauryan history. Inscriptions primarily referred to a king named Piyadassi or Asoka, enhancing historical insights.

Q4Ancient & Medieval History (India)Art, Architecture, Coinage & Trade (Ancient-Medieval)Ancient & Medieval Trade Routes and Maritime Commerce

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally

  1. A.

    Agriculturists

  2. B.

    Warriors

  3. C.

    Weavers

  4. D.

    Traders

    Correct

Explanation

Medieval Terminology/Keyword Banjaras were primarily merchants who transported grain and goods. They played a significant role during Alauddin Khalji's reign in transporting grain to markets. Emperor Jahangir's chronicles document Banjaras' role in grain transportation using bullocks.

Q5Ancient & Medieval History (India)Bhakti & Sufi MovementsBhakti Saints and Movements (North & South India)

With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

  1. Siddhas (Sittars) of the Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
  2. Lingayats of the Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Cultural History of Medieval India Statement 1: Correct. Siddhas advocated renunciation of the world and meditation on the formless ultimate reality. Statement 2: Correct. Lingayats challenged the caste system and questioned the theory of rebirth.

Q6Ancient & Medieval History (India)Mughal EmpireSociety, Economy & Culture under the Mughals

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term ‘Araghatta’ refers to:

  1. A.

    bonded labour

  2. B.

    land grant made to military officers

  3. C.

    waterwheel used in the irrigation of land

    Correct
  4. D.

    wasteland converted to cultivated land

Explanation

Medieval Terminology or keyword/Economic History of Medieval India Correct answer: Option (c): The ‘Persian Wheel’ is referred to as Araghatta in ancient Sanskrit writings. It is a water-lifting device usually used by draft animals like bulls, buffaloes, or camels. The term "ara-ghatta" derives from "ara," meaning "spoke," and "ghatta," meaning "pot." It originated in India and was mentioned in texts like the Panchatantra (3rd century BCE) and the Rajatarangini (12th century CE). The Persian wheel, also known as the "Araghattikka" or "arahattiyanara," was used to draw water from open wells.

Q7Ancient & Medieval History (India)Delhi Sultanate & Regional KingdomsVijayanagara Empire

Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

  1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
  2. Private owners of workshops paid an industry tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Vijayanagar Economy Statement 1: Correct. The tax rate ranged between one-third and one-sixth, depending on land quality. Land revenue was the main income source during Krishna Deva's reign, supplemented by other taxes like grazing tax, customs duty, and industrial taxes. Statement 2: Correct. Commercial taxes, including levies, duties, and customs on manufactured trade articles, were imposed. Private workshop owners paid an industry tax. Additionally, taxes were levied on various professions, along with grazing and house taxes.

Q8Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Satya Shodhak Samaj organized:

  1. A.

    a movement for the upliftment of tribals in Bihar

  2. B.

    a temple-entry movement in Gujarat

  3. C.

    an anti-caste movement in Maharashtra

    Correct
  4. D.

    a peasant movement in Punjab

Explanation

Social Reform Organization Satyashodhak Samaj:

  • Formed by Jotirao Govindrao Phule on September 24, 1873, focusing on the rights of oppressed groups.
  • Opposed idolatry and condemned the caste system.
  • Advocated against the need for priests and promoted reason.
  • Aimed to promote happiness, well-being, equality, and simplicity in religious practices for all.
  • The Deenbandhu newspaper, published from Pune, voiced the Samaj's viewpoints.
  • Members included Muslims, Brahmins, and government officials, with leading support from Phule's Mali caste.
Q9Modern History (India)Social & Religious Reform MovementsReform Movements and Reformers (19th–20th Century)

Consider the following:

  1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
  2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
  3. Indian Reform Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above?

  1. A.

    1 and 3 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Social Reform Movement: Keshab Chandra Sen (1838-1884):

  • Became Acharya of Brahmo Samaj in 1858.
  • Spread Samaj's ideas beyond Bengal.
  • Opposed caste system, advocated inter-caste marriage.
  • Removed from Acharya position in 1865.
  • Established Brahmo Samaj of India in 1866.
  • Ananda Mohan Bose, Shibchandra Deb, and Umesh Chandra Datta formed Sadharan Brahmo Samaj in opposition.
  • Built Tabernacle of New Dispensation in 1868.
  • Indian Reform Association founded in 1870, with Sen as President, aiming to implement British ideas.
Q10Modern History (India)British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal DevelopmentsCharter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to:

  1. A.

    social reforms

  2. B.

    educational reforms

  3. C.

    reforms in police administration

  4. D.

    constitutional reforms

    Correct

Explanation

Administrative Reforms/Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals led to the Government of India Act of 1919.

  • The Act introduced diarchy in provincial governments.
  • Implemented in eight provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bombay, Madras, and Punjab.
  • The diarchy system enhanced provincial government authority.
  • Under this system, the governor served as the chief executive.
Q11Modern History (India)Indian National MovementConstitutional Developments (Simon Commission, Round Table, GoI Act 1935)

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War:

  1. A.

    India should be granted complete independence

  2. B.

    India should be partitioned into two before granting independence

  3. C.

    India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the Commonwealth

    Correct
  4. D.

    India should be given Dominion status

Explanation

Cripps Mission Cripps Mission (1942):

  • Proposed an Indian union with Dominion status, allowing India to determine its relation with the UN and the Commonwealth.
  • Established conditions for accepting the New Constitution, including the option for provinces to form separate unions.
Q12Modern History (India)Indian National MovementEarly Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907?

  1. A.

    Introduction of communalism into Indian politics by Lord Minto

  2. B.

    Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government

    Correct
  3. C.

    Foundation of Muslim League

  4. D.

    Aurobindo Ghosh’s inability to be elected as the President of the Indian National Congress

Explanation

Important INC Sessions/Surat Split/Swadeshi Movement Option (a) is incorrect: Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 introduced separate electorates on the basis of religion, thus introducing a system of communal representation. This was not the reason for the Congress split in 1907. Option (b) is correct: On the backdrop of the Swadeshi Movement, the Extremists wanted either B.G. Tilak or Lajpat Rai as President. Moderates proposed Rashbehari Ghosh and wanted the session to be in Surat to exclude Tilak from the presidency. Since a leader from the host province could not be session president, they also sought to drop resolutions on swadeshi, boycott, and national education. Thus, it resulted in a split in the congress. Therefore, Extremists’ lack of faith in the capacity of the moderates to negotiate with the British Government. Option (c) is incorrect: The formation of the Muslim League in 1906 at Dhaka was not the reason for the Congress split in 1907. Option (d) is irrelevant to the particular question.

Q13Modern History (India)Indian National MovementEarly Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule

The ‘Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the:

  1. A.

    agitation against the Partition of Bengal

    Correct
  2. B.

    Home Rule Movement

  3. C.

    Non-Cooperation Movement

  4. D.

    visit of the Simon Commission to India

Explanation

Swadeshi Movement Option (a): 'Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' were mass movements against Bengal partition. Option (b): Home Rule Movement, a response to World War I, led by Tilak and Annie Besant, started amid wartime hardships. Option (c): The timelines of Swadeshi and Boycott Movement and Non-Cooperation Movement are distinct, showing no correlation. Option (d): Simon Commission, in 1928, reviewed constitutional reforms in Britain's major colony.

Q14Indian CultureMiscellaneous CultureIndia's Cultural Contribution Abroad

A recent movie titled The Man Who Knew Infinity is based on the biography of

  1. A.

    S. Ramanujan

    Correct
  2. B.

    S. Chandrasekhar

  3. C.

    S. N. Bose

  4. D.

    C.V. Raman

Explanation

The movie "The Man Who Knew Infinity" is based on the biography of S. Ramanujan. Srinivasa Ramanujan was an Indian mathematician who made significant contributions to mathematical analysis, number theory, infinite series, and continued fractions. He is renowned for his extraordinary insights and discoveries, despite having no formal training in mathematics. The film portrays his life, struggles, and the collaboration with British mathematician G.H. Hardy at Trinity College, Cambridge.

Q15Indian CultureReligions & Philosophy of IndiaHinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
  2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
  3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Bodhisattva:

  • Definition: Aspires to enlightenment, central to Mahayana Buddhism.
  • Characteristic: Compassion, sharing others' sufferings.
  • Vows: Four vows to work for others' happiness.
Q16Indian CultureLanguages & LiteratureClassical Languages and Literature (Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Regional)

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of the Shunga dynasty?

  1. A.

    Swapnavasavadatta

  2. B.

    Malavikagnimitra

    Correct
  3. C.

    Meghadoota

  4. D.

    Ratnavali

Explanation

Malavikagnimitra:

  • Play: Kalidas' Sanskrit play about Agnimitra, son of Pushyamitra Shunga.
  • Plot: Falls in love with exiled servant girl Malavika.
Q17Indian CultureArchitecture & SculptureAncient & Medieval Temple Architecture

What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

  1. Both were built in the same period.
  2. Both belong to the same religious denomination.
  3. Both have rock-cut monuments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    None of the statements given above is correct

Explanation

Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/Ajanta Cave Statement 1: Ajanta Caves, dating from the 2nd century BCE to 480 or 650 CE, consist of 30 rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments. Mahabalipuram features rock-carved sanctuaries from the 7th and 8th centuries. Statement 2: While Ajanta is predominantly Buddhist, Mahabalipuram shows a greater inclination towards the Vaishnavite sect. Statement 3: Both Ajanta and Mahabalipuram exemplify exquisite rock-cut monuments.

Q18Current AffairsInternational NewsInternational Relations, Treaties & Conflicts

Consider the following pairs:

Community sometimes mentioned in the news : In the affairs of

  1. Kurd : Bangladesh
  2. Madhesi : Nepal
  3. Rohingya : Myanmar
  1. A.

    1 and 2

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3

    Correct
  4. D.

    3 only

Explanation

  1. Kurds are an ethnic group primarily inhabiting areas in the Middle East, including parts of Turkey, Iraq, Iran, and Syria. They have been mentioned in the news primarily in the context of conflicts and political developments in these regions, not in Bangladesh.
  2. Madhesis are an ethnic group residing in the Terai region of Nepal, bordering India. They have been frequently mentioned in the news due to their involvement in political movements and protests concerning issues related to representation and rights in Nepal.
  3. Rohingyas are a Muslim ethnic minority group predominantly living in the Rakhine State of Myanmar. They have gained significant international attention due to their persecution and displacement, leading to a humanitarian crisis and refugee influx into neighboring countries, particularly Bangladesh.
Q19Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainageRiver Systems and Drainage Patterns

Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

  1. A.

    Cauvery and Tungabhadra

  2. B.

    Godavari and Krishna

    Correct
  3. C.

    Mahanadi and sone

  4. D.

    Narmada and Tapti

Explanation

The linking of rivers aims to address water scarcity issues, facilitate irrigation, and manage floods more effectively. In the given options, the linking of Godavari and Krishna rivers was undertaken. This project involves diverting surplus water from the Godavari basin to the Krishna basin through interlinking canals, which helps in augmenting water resources in water-deficient areas and enhances agricultural productivity. Therefore, the correct option is (b) Godavari and Krishna.

Q20EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following states has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’?

  1. A.

    Arunachal Pradesh

  2. B.

    Himachal Pradesh

  3. C.

    Karnataka

  4. D.

    Maharashtra

    Correct

Explanation

Maharashtra became the first state in India to declare a particular butterfly as the 'State Butterfly'. The state government declared the Blue Mormon (Papilio polymnestor) as the State Butterfly of Maharashtra in 2015. This decision was taken to raise awareness about the conservation of butterflies and their habitats, as well as to promote eco-tourism.

Q21Economic Geography (India)Industry & TransportTransport Networks (Rail, Road, Water, Air, Pipelines)

Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long navigational channel?

  1. A.

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. B.

    Chhattisgarh

  3. C.

    Karnataka

  4. D.

    Rajasthan

    Correct

Explanation

The correct option is (d) Rajasthan. Rajasthan has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port connected to the sea by a long navigational channel. This initiative aims to enhance connectivity and facilitate trade through waterways, providing an efficient means of transportation for goods.

Q22Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainagePhysiographic Divisions of India

Consider the following pairs:

Famous PlaceRegion
1. BodhgayaBaghelkhand
2. KhajurahoBundelkhand
3. ShirdiVidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik)Malwa
5. TirupatiRayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1, 2, and 4

  2. B.

    2, 3, 4, and 5

  3. C.

    2 and 5 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 3, 4, and 5

Explanation

Religious Places Pair 1: Bodh Gaya in Bihar and Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh are correctly matched. Pair 2: Khajuraho Temples in Madhya Pradesh and Nashik in Maharashtra are incorrectly matched. Pair 3: Shirdi in Maharashtra and Bodh Gaya in Bihar are incorrectly matched. Pair 4: Pushkar in Rajasthan and Nashik in Maharashtra are incorrectly matched. Pair 5: Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh is correctly matched.

Q23Geography of IndiaPhysiography, Climate & DrainageRiver Systems and Drainage Patterns

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

  1. Dibang
  2. Kameng
  3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct

Explanation

The Brahmaputra River is one of the major rivers in Asia, flowing through China, India, and Bangladesh. Its tributaries contribute to its flow and form an essential part of its hydrological system.

  1. Dibang: This river is indeed a tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in the northeastern Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh. It joins the Brahmaputra downstream in Assam.
  2. Kameng: Also known as the Kameng River, it is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in the Himalayas of Arunachal Pradesh. It merges with the Brahmaputra in Assam.
  3. Lohit: The Lohit River is another significant tributary of the Brahmaputra, originating in Tibet and flowing through Arunachal Pradesh before joining the Brahmaputra in Assam. Correct Option: (d) 1, 2, and 3 - All the rivers mentioned (Dibang, Kameng, and Lohit) are tributaries of the Brahmaputra River.
Q24Economic Geography (India)Mineral & Energy ResourcesConventional & Renewable Energy Resources

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

  1. Cambay Basin
  2. Cauvery Basin
  3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Resource/Map Shale Gas potential in India is identified in six basins by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

Q25EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesNational Environmental Authorities

Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?

  1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
  2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at national level.
  3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis

Select the correct answer using code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

The National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA) is a key institution established for the management and conservation of the Ganga river basin in India. Here's a brief explanation of the key features mentioned in the question:

  1. River basin as the unit of planning and management: This feature implies that the planning and management activities related to the Ganga river are organized and implemented based on the entire river basin as a unit. It recognizes the interconnectedness of various tributaries, ecosystems, and stakeholders within the basin.
  2. Spearheading river conservation efforts at the national level: NGRBA plays a crucial role in leading and coordinating efforts aimed at conserving the Ganga river at the national level. This involves formulating policies, implementing projects, and monitoring activities related to Ganga conservation across multiple states and jurisdictions.
  3. Rotation of Chief Ministers as the Chairman of NGRBA: One of the unique aspects of NGRBA is the rotational chairmanship held by the Chief Ministers of states through which the Ganga river flows. This ensures a collaborative and inclusive approach to river basin management, allowing different states to actively participate in decision-making processes.
Q26EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

What is/are unique about ‘kharai camel’, a breed found in India?

  1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater.
  2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
  3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

  1. The Kharai camel is indeed capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater. This unique ability allows it to traverse coastal regions and access grazing areas.
  2. It survives by grazing on mangroves, which are salt-tolerant trees found in coastal areas. This adaptation to feed on mangroves contributes to its survival in its coastal habitat.
  3. However, the statement that it lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated is incorrect. Kharai camels are domesticated animals kept by local communities along the coast of Gujarat and Rajasthan in India. They are raised for their milk, meat, and as pack animals.
Q27EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct specics of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 meters and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

  1. A.

    Andaman Islands

  2. B.

    Anaimalai Forests

    Correct
  3. C.

    Maikala Hills

  4. D.

    Tropical rain forests of northeast

Explanation

The correct option is (b) Anaimalai Forests. The new and distinct species of banana plant with orange-colored fruit pulp has been discovered in the Anaimalai Forests of India. The Anaimalai (or Anamalai) Hills are located in the Western Ghats range of Tamil Nadu and Kerala states. This discovery highlights the rich biodiversity of the region and the ongoing efforts of scientists to explore and document plant species in various ecosystems.

Q28EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

  1. Ceiling fans
  2. Electric geysers
  3. Tubular fluorescent lmps

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) Star Label is a program in India that certifies appliances for their energy efficiency. The label helps consumers identify products that consume less energy and thus contribute to energy conservation. Ceiling fans, electric geysers, and tubular fluorescent lamps are commonly certified under the BEE Star Label program.

Q29EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsInternational Solar Alliance

Consider the following statements:

  1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
  2. The alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

  1. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was indeed launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP21) in 2015. This statement is correct.
  2. However, the alliance does not include all the member countries of the United Nations. It primarily consists of countries located between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, commonly known as the "sunshine countries." This statement is incorrect.
Q30EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsCOP & Paris Agreement

The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. A.

    Pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East

  2. B.

    Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change

    Correct
  3. C.

    Capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

  4. D.

    Plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals

Explanation

Climate Change/Global Warming Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDC):

  • INDCs outline countries' plans to combat climate change, reduce greenhouse gas emissions, and adapt to its impacts.
  • It forms the core of the Paris Agreement, aiming to contain global temperature rise.
Q31EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?

  1. A.

    It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify, and manage greenhouse gas emissions.

    Correct
  2. B.

    It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies

  3. C.

    It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022

  4. D.

    It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank

Explanation

Global Warming Option (a): 'Greenhouse Gas Protocol' aids in accounting greenhouse gas emissions for governments and businesses.

  • GHG Protocol creates standards, tools, and online training for measuring and managing GHG emissions.
Q32EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsConvention on Biodiversity

The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

  1. To provide modern technology, training in modern farming methods and financial support to local communities of identified GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their agricultural productivity.
  2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly traditional farm practices and their associated landscapes, agricultural biodiversity and knowledge systems of the local communities.
  3. To provide Geographical Indication status to all the varieties of agricultural produce in such identifies GIAHS.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 3 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Major Environmental Organizations

  • Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS) safeguard agricultural heritage.
  • GIAHS aims to preserve social, cultural, economic, and environmental benefits.
  • Incorrect: No provision exists for GI recognition of traditional agricultural systems.
Q33EnvironmentBiodiversityWestern Ghats Conservation

‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to

  1. A.

    constitutional reforms

  2. B.

    Ganga Action Plan

  3. C.

    linking of rivers

  4. D.

    protection of Western Ghats

    Correct

Explanation

Disaster Management Option (d) is correct: The 'Gadgil Committee Report' and 'Kasturirangan Committee Report' relate to the protection of Western Ghats. GADGIL COMMITTEE REPORT, 2011:

  • The Western Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP), led by Prof. Madhav Gadgil, was set up by the Ministry of Environment & Forests in 2010.
  • Objective: It aimed to demarcate ecologically sensitive areas in the Western Ghats and recommend measures for their management. KASTURIRANGAN COMMITTEE REPORT, 2013:
  • The Kasturirangan committee was formed to review the WGEEP report.
Q34EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Which of the following best describes the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

  1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the ‘green accounting’
  2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
  3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Conservation/Environmental Pollution Green India Mission:

  • The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) launched eight missions, and GIM is one of them.
  • GIM, introduced in February 2014, aims to maintain, restore, and improve India’s dwindling forest cover and combat climate change through adaptation and mitigation strategies. Objectives of the Mission:
  • Protect, restore, and enhance India’s forest cover.
  • Respond to climate change through adaptation and mitigation measures.
  • Increase forest-based livelihood incomes.
  • Enhance annual Carbon sequestration by 50 to 60 million tonnes by 2020. Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect: Both statements are irrelevant to the Green India Mission. Statement 3 is correct: The mission intends to increase forest/tree cover, improve/enhance ecosystem services, and increase the forest-based livelihood income of about 3 million households.
Q35EnvironmentPollutionAir Pollution & Control

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of the Air Quality Index?

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1, 2, and 3 only

  2. B.

    2, 3, and 4 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1, 4, and 5 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, 3, 4, and 5

Explanation

Air Pollution Option (b) is the correct answer: CO2, CO, and SO2 are considered in calculating the Air Quality Index (AQI).

  • The AQI is a statistic used to inform the public about the current or expected air quality.
  • A growing proportion of the population may experience worsening health impacts as AQI rises.
  • Different countries have their own air quality indices based on national standards.
  • The AQI is frequently used to describe ground-level ozone levels.
  • The five contaminants that endanger human health are Ground-level Ozone or O3, Particulate Matter (PM), Carbon Monoxide or CO, Sulphur Dioxide or SO2, and Nitrogen Dioxide or NO2. All except Carbon dioxide are considered while calculating the AQI.
Q36EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
  2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Red Sanders: Endangered, endemic to Eastern Ghats.

Q37EnvironmentBiodiversitySpecies in News

In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the ‘Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

  1. A.

    Sand deserts of northwest India

  2. B.

    Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

  3. C.

    Salt marshes of western Gujarat

  4. D.

    Western Ghats

    Correct

Explanation

Great Indian Hornbill: Found in Western Ghats, Nilgiris, and across Asia.

Q38EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsCOP & Paris Agreement

With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
  2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2 degrees C or even 1.5 degrees C above pre-industrial levels.
  3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.
  1. A.

    1 and 3 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Summits and Conventions: The Paris Summit COP21 aims to limit global warming and requires countries to submit voluntary Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).

Q39EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsUN Environmental Reports

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
  2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goals: The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) form a blueprint for global sustainable development adopted by the UN General Assembly in 2015.

Q40EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

What is/are the importance/ importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

  1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive international partnerships.
  2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat facilitates the allocation of major portions of financial resources to these regions.
  3. It is committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) is an international treaty that addresses the issue of desertification and land degradation. The importance of the UNCCD lies in its multifaceted approach to combatting desertification and promoting sustainable land management practices.

  1. The UNCCD aims to promote effective action through innovative national programs and supportive international partnerships. This is crucial as desertification is a complex issue that requires collaboration at both national and international levels to implement effective strategies and initiatives.
  2. The statement that the UNCCD has a special focus on South Asia and North Africa regions and facilitates financial resources to these regions is incorrect. The UNCCD is a global treaty that addresses desertification and land degradation issues in all regions of the world, not just specific regions.
  3. The UNCCD is committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification. This is important because local communities are directly affected by desertification and play a key role in implementing sustainable land management practices.
Q41EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsCOP & Paris Agreement

Consider the following pairs:

Terms sometimes seen in the newsTheir origin
1. Annex-I CountriesCartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions ReductionsNagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development MechanismsKyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Major Conventions Classification of Parties and their commitments under Kyoto Protocol: Options 1 and 2 are incorrect: Terms in these options are associated with the Kyoto Protocol. Option 3 is correct: Clean Development Mechanism is associated with the Kyoto Protocol.

Q42EnvironmentEnvironmental Legislation & BodiesInternational Environmental Organisations

With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF, and World Economic Forum.
  2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
  3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate, and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Major Environmental Conventions/ Environmental Policies and Initiatives The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB):

  • Launched by Germany and the European Commission in 2007.
  • Study led by Pavan Sukhdev.
  • Global effort to raise awareness of the economic advantages of biodiversity.
  • Objective: To raise attention to the rising costs associated with biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to bring together experts in science, economics, and policy to facilitate actionable solutions. Statement 1 is incorrect: It is an international initiative, launched by Germany and the European Commission. Statement 2 is correct: It is an international initiative to draw attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity. Statement 3 is correct: Its objective is to highlight the growing cost of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation and to draw together expertise from the fields of science, economics, and policy to enable practical actions.
Q43EnvironmentClimate Change & MitigationClimate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Proper design and effective implementation of UN REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to:

  1. protection of biodiversity
  2. resilience of forest ecosystems
  3. poverty reduction
  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Environmental Conventions/ Environmental Policies and Initiatives The UN-REDD Programme has identified the following three topics for supporting national REDD+ governance structures:

  • Country-led multi-stakeholder governance assessments that contribute to the development and implementation of national REDD+ strategies (for tackling forest degradation and biodiversity loss) and nationally owned monitoring frameworks.
  • Social standards, including poverty and gender.
  • Land and/or carbon tenure and the role of REDD+ within national land use strategies. UN REDD+:
  • Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties of the UNFCCC.
  • Sets a financial value for the carbon contained in forests to provide incentives for developing countries to cut emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths.
  • Developing countries will be compensated for activities based on results.
  • REDD+ includes conservation, sustainable management of forests, and enhancement of forest carbon stocks, going beyond deforestation and forest degradation.
Q44EnvironmentInternational Environmental EffortsUN Environmental Reports

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

  1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
  2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goals Rio Declaration on Environment and Development:

  • The Rio Declaration consisted of 27 principles intended to guide countries in future sustainable development, signed by over 175 countries. Agenda 21:
  • Non-binding action plan sourced from Rio Earth Summit, 1992.
  • Objective: to achieve Global sustainable development.
  • Since 2015, Sustainable Development Goals are included in the Agenda 2030. Statement 1 is correct: Agenda 21 is a non-binding, voluntarily implemented action plan of the United Nations with regard to sustainable development. Statement 2 is incorrect: It is a product of the Earth Summit (UN Conference on Environment and Development) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992.
Q45BiologyGenetics & BiotechnologyBasics of Genetics & DNA

In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term 'transcriptome', sometimes seen in the news, refers to:

  1. A.

    A range of enzymes used in genome editing

  2. B.

    The full range of mRNA molecules expressed by an organism

    Correct
  3. C.

    The description of the mechanism of gene expression

  4. D.

    A mechanism of genetic mutations taking place in cells

Explanation

Bioinformatics : Transcriptome A transcriptome comprises all messenger RNA (mRNA) molecules expressed by an organism.

  • Describes mRNA transcripts in a specific cell or tissue type.
  • Unlike the stable genome, the transcriptome actively changes based on factors like development stage and environmental conditions.
Q46BiologyMicroorganismsBacteria, Viruses & Fungi – Structure & Classification

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Virus can infect

  1. Bacteria
  2. Fungi
  3. Plants
  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Microorganisms

  • Viruses infect various life forms and can reproduce only within host cells.
  • Different categories of viruses target animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria, affecting diverse hosts.
Q47ChemistryFood Chemistry & AdulterationComposition of Common Foods

With reference to pre-packaged items in India, is it mandatory for the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labeling) Regulations, 2011?

  1. List of ingredients including additives
  2. Nutrition information
  3. Recommendation, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions
  4. Vegetarian/nonvegetarian
  1. A.

    1, 2 and 3

  2. B.

    2, 3 and 4

  3. C.

    1, 2 and 4

    Correct
  4. D.

    1 and 4 only

Explanation

Food Safety Regulations According to the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging Regulations, 2011) and Labelling (2016) in India, the mandatory information to be included on the main label of pre-packaged items are:

  1. List of ingredients including additives: This helps consumers know what ingredients are present in the product, including any additives used.
  2. Nutrition information: This provides consumers with essential nutritional details such as calories, fat content, protein content, carbohydrates, vitamins, and minerals.
  3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions: This is crucial for consumers with allergies or dietary restrictions to make informed choices and avoid potential health risks.
  4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian: This indicates whether the product contains ingredients of animal origin, which is important for consumers following specific dietary preferences or restrictions. Based on the provided options, the correct answer is (c) 1, 2, and 4.
Q48PhysicsElectromagnetic Waves & SpectrumApplications of EM Waves (Radar, Microwave, X-Ray)

With reference to ‘LiFi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
  2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

LiFi:

  • Visible Light Communications system
  • Transmits wireless internet at very high speeds using LED light bulb pulses
  • Data travels within emitted pulses
  • Transmission rates exceed 100 Gbps
  • Developed by Harald Haas in 2011
  • Uses modulation of light intensity for data transfer
Q49PhysicsNuclear & Modern PhysicsNuclear Energy & Nuclear Power in India

India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India?

  1. A.

    It can use thorium in place of uranium for power generation

  2. B.

    It attains a global role in satellite-navigation

  3. C.

    It can drastically improve the efficiency of its fission reactors in power generation

  4. D.

    It can build fusion reactors for power generation.

    Correct

Explanation

The International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor (ITER) aims to replicate the fusion processes of the Sun to produce clean energy on Earth.

Q50Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyDigital governance

'Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to

  1. A.

    Waste management technology

  2. B.

    Wireless communication technology

    Correct
  3. C.

    Solar power production technology

  4. D.

    Water conservation technology

Explanation

Project Loon is a venture developed by Alphabet Inc. (formerly Google X) aimed at providing internet access to rural and remote areas using high-altitude balloons placed in the stratosphere. These balloons act as floating cell towers, transmitting internet signals to ground stations and then to users' devices. The initiative focuses on enhancing wireless communication technology to bridge the digital divide and connect underserved communities to the internet. Given the explanation, the correct option is: (b) Wireless communication technology

Q51PhysicsEnergy Resources & TechnologyNon-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)

‘Net metering; is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the

  1. A.

    Production and use of solar energy by the household/consumers

    Correct
  2. B.

    Use of piped natural gas in the kitchens of households

  3. C.

    Installation of CNG kits in motorcars

  4. D.

    Installation of water meters in urban households

Explanation

Net metering is a billing mechanism that allows homeowners or businesses generating their own electricity from renewable energy sources, such as solar panels, to feed excess electricity back into the grid. The utility company then credits the customer for the electricity they provide to the grid, effectively "spinning" the meter backwards. This encourages the production and use of solar energy by households and consumers, thereby promoting renewable energy generation and reducing dependence on traditional fossil fuels. So, the correct option is: (a) Production and use of solar energy by the household/consumers

Q52Applied Science & TechnologyDefence TechnologyDefence & Missile Technology

Which of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently?

  1. A.

    Amphibious warfare ship

  2. B.

    Nuclear-powerd submarine

  3. C.

    Torpedo launch and recovery vessel

    Correct
  4. D.

    Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Explanation

INS Astradharini, which was in the news recently, is best described as a Torpedo launch and recovery vessel. This vessel is specifically designed for the launch and recovery of torpedoes, which are underwater weapons used by submarines and surface ships. It plays a crucial role in naval operations by enhancing the capability of submarines and surface vessels to engage enemy targets effectively underwater. Therefore, the correct option is (c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel.

Q53PhysicsApplied & Everyday PhysicsTransport-related Physics

What is ‘Greased Lighting-10 (GL-10)’ recently in the news?

  1. A.

    Electric plane tested by NASA

    Correct
  2. B.

    Solar-powerd designed by Japan two-seater aircraft

  3. C.

    Space observatory launched by China

  4. D.

    Reusable rocket designed by ISRO

Explanation

"Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)" is an experimental unmanned aerial vehicle (UAV) developed by NASA. It falls under the category of an electric plane. GL-10 is a 10-engine tilt-wing aircraft designed to demonstrate the feasibility of distributed electric propulsion for vertical takeoff and landing (VTOL) capabilities, as well as efficient forward flight. It has undergone testing as part of NASA's efforts to explore new technologies for aviation, including potential applications for future urban air mobility and unmanned aerial systems.

Q54EconomyAgricultural PolicyAgriculture Schemes

With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Securitythrough Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and postharvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with cluster approach.
  2. Poor, small, marginal and tribunal farmers have larger stake in this scheme.
  3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro irrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 2 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

  1. The statement is correct. The 'Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion' aims to promote millet cultivation by demonstrating improved production and post-harvest technologies, as well as value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach. This approach helps in showcasing the benefits of millet cultivation to farmers.
  2. The statement is correct. The initiative particularly targets poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers, recognizing their significant role in the scheme. By involving these farmers, the initiative aims to enhance their livelihoods and contribute to their nutritional security.
  3. The statement is correct. One of the objectives of the initiative is to incentivize farmers engaged in commercial crops to transition to millet cultivation. This is achieved by providing them with free kits containing critical inputs such as nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment. By offering such support, the initiative encourages farmers to adopt millet cultivation, thereby promoting diversity in agriculture and improving overall food security.
Q55Current AffairsInternational NewsGlobal Organisations, Summits & Alliances

‘Doctors without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is

  1. A.

    A divison of World Health Organization

  2. B.

    A non-governmental international organization

    Correct
  3. C.

    An inter-governmental agency sponsored by Europeon Union

  4. D.

    A specialized agency of the United Nations

Explanation

Doctors Without Borders (Médecins Sans Frontières, MSF) is a well-known international humanitarian organization that provides medical assistance to people affected by conflict, epidemics, disasters, or exclusion from healthcare. Founded in France in 1971, MSF operates independently of any political, religious, or military agendas, and its primary focus is on delivering impartial medical care to those in need, regardless of their race, religion, or political affiliation. Given its independent and non-governmental nature, the correct option is: (b) A non-governmental international organization

Q56Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyE-Governance Initiatives

Regarding ‘DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a digital locker system offered by the government under Digital India Programme
  2. It allows you to access your edocuments irrespective of your physical location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct:

  1. DigiLocker is indeed a digital locker system provided by the Government of India under the Digital India Programme. It aims to provide a secure and convenient way for citizens to store and access their digital documents online.
  2. DigiLocker allows users to access their e-documents from anywhere, regardless of their physical location. This means that users can easily retrieve and share their digital documents without the need for physical copies.
Q57Applied Science & TechnologySpace TechnologyISRO Missions & Programmes

With reference to ‘Astrosat,’ the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Other than USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
  2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

Explanation

AstroSat is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory, studying celestial sources in X-ray, optical, and UV bands. It covers Ultraviolet (Near and Far), limited optical, and X-ray regime (0.3 keV to 100keV). It allows simultaneous observation of multiple celestial objects at multiple wavelengths, a unique feature. With its launch, India joined the club of nations with their own space observatories, including the US, Japan, Russia, and Europe. Statement 1 correction: ASTROSAT is India’s first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory aiding in understanding the universe. Statement 2 correction: AstroSat, with a lift-off mass of 1515 kg, was launched on September 28, 2015, into a 650 km orbit inclined at 6 degrees to the equator by PSLV-C30 from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.

Q58Applied Science & TechnologySpace TechnologyISRO Missions & Programmes

Consider the following statements: The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

  1. Is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission
  2. Made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA
  3. Made India the only country to be successful in making its spacecraft orbit the Mars in its very first attempt

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM), launched on November 5, 2013, entered Martian orbit on September 24, 2014. It surpassed its designed mission life of six months, completing 1000 Earth days in its orbit, corresponding to 973.24 Mars Sols and 388 orbits. It is India’s first interplanetary mission, and ISRO became the fourth space agency to reach Mars, after the Soviet space Programme, NASA, and the European Space Agency. MOM's cost-effectiveness paved the way for affordable space access. Statement 1 correction: The Mangalyaan, also known as the Mars Orbiter Mission, was launched by ISRO. Statement 2 correction: It is India’s first interplanetary mission, and ISRO has joined elite space agencies reaching Mars. Statement 3 correction: It is the first Asian nation and the first nation in the world to reach Mars orbit in its first attempt.

Q59Indian PolityLocal GovernmentPanchayati Raj (73rd Amendment)

Consider the following statements:

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Basics of Panchayati Raj System Statement 1: Part IX of the Constitution deals with the Panchayati Raj System. The minimum age for Panchayat members is 21. Statement 2: Reconstituted Panchayats serve the remaining period after premature dissolution.

Q60Indian PolityJudiciaryAlternate Dispute Resolution, Tribunals & Judicial Activism

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
  2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Judicial Power of Panchayat Statement 1: Gram Nyayalayas Act outlines establishment, jurisdiction, and process in civil and criminal proceedings. Statement 2: Courts aim to settle disputes via conciliation, utilizing appointed conciliators.

Q61Indian PolityUnion ExecutivePresident, Vice-President & Governor

Consider the following statements:

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

    Correct

Explanation

State Executives

  1. The Chief Secretary in a State is not appointed by the Governor of that State. Instead, the Chief Secretary is appointed by the Chief Minister of the State.
  2. The Chief Secretary in a State does not have a fixed tenure. The tenure of the Chief Secretary is subject to the discretion of the appointing authority, which is typically the Chief Minister.
Q62Indian PolityCentre-State Relations & FederalismUnion-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the:

  1. A.

    Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

  2. B.

    Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership

  3. C.

    Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership

  4. D.

    Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its members present and voting

    Correct

Explanation

Legislative Power of Parliament Parliament has the authority to legislate on Union and Concurrent List matters, can override State List issues during emergencies or international treaty obligations, and holds various other powers.

Q63Indian PolityLegislatureParliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
  2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Legislative Procedure of Parliament Statement 1: Incorrect. Bills don't lapse on prorogation. Statement 2: Correct. Bills pending in Rajya Sabha don't lapse on Lok Sabha dissolution. Additional Information: Lapsing Bills:

  • Lok Sabha pending bills.
  • Lok Sabha-passed bills pending in Rajya Sabha. Non-lapsing Bills:
  • Disagreed bills for joint sittings.
  • Bills pending in Rajya Sabha.
  • Bills awaiting president's assent or reconsideration.
Q64EconomyExternal SectorForeign Exchange Management

Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news?

  1. A.

    It is the ratio of value of imports to the Gross Domestic Product of a country

  2. B.

    It is the total value of imports of a country in a year

  3. C.

    It is the ratio between the value of exports and that of imports between two countries

  4. D.

    It is the number of months of imports that could be paid for by a country’s international reserves

    Correct

Explanation

BoP Import cover is vital for currency stability, showing how many months a country's reserves can cover imports. It's measured by the national bank's reserves or foreign exchange stocks in months.

Q65EconomyAgricultural PolicyAgricultural Trade & WTO

In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms ‘amber box, blue box, and green box’ in the news?

  1. A.

    WTO affairs

    Correct
  2. B.

    SAARC affairs

  3. C.

    UNFCCC affairs

  4. D.

    India-EU negotiations on FTA

Explanation

WTO:

  • WTO categorizes agricultural subsidies into Green, Amber, and Blue Boxes.
  • Green Box subsidies avoid trade distortion, while Amber and Blue Boxes include trade-distorting subsidies.
Q66International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

  1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of its work.
  2. The World Bank participates as an observer in IMFC’s meetings.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Financial Committees/Organizations Statement 1: The International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system. While lacking formal decision-making authority, it plays a crucial role in providing strategic direction to the IMF's work and policies. Statement 2: Various international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC’s meetings.

Q67Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking?

  1. A.

    Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)

  2. B.

    World Economic Forum

  3. C.

    World Bank

    Correct
  4. D.

    World Trade Organization (WTO)

Explanation

World Bank Reports

  • The Ease of Doing Business Index, published by the World Bank, aggregates various parameters defining business ease in a country. It computes the distance to frontier ratings of economies based on regulatory best practices, comparing them on indicators like construction permits, registration, financing, and tax payment mechanisms.
  • Other World Bank reports include the Remittance Report, Universal Health Coverage Index, Service Trade Restriction Index, Ease of Living Index, Global Economic Prospect (GEP) Report, World Development Report, and Human Capital Index.
Q68EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingSchemes

Which one of the following is the purpose of ‘UDAY’, a scheme of the Government?

  1. A.

    Providing technical and financial assistance to startup entrepreneurs in the field of renewable sources of energy

  2. B.

    Providing electricity to every household in the countries by 2018

  3. C.

    Replacing the coal-based power plants with natural gas, nuclear, solar, wind and tidal power plants over a period of time

  4. D.

    Providing for financial turnaround and revival of power distribution companies

    Correct

Explanation

Government Policies - UDAY Scheme: UDAY (Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana) is a scheme launched by the Government of India aimed at improving the financial health of power distribution companies (DISCOMs) in India. The primary purpose of UDAY is to provide financial assistance and support to struggling DISCOMs by reducing their debt burden, improving operational efficiencies, and promoting sustainable practices in the power sector. Through financial turnaround and revival measures, UDAY aims to ensure the long-term viability and efficiency of power distribution companies, ultimately leading to a more reliable and affordable electricity supply for consumers.

Q69EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingSchemes

What is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘District Mineral Foundations’ in India?

  1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts
  2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations
  3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licenses for mineral exploration

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Government Policies - District Mineral Foundations (DMFs):

  • DMFs benefit persons and areas affected by mining-related operations.
  • DMFs operate under state government jurisdiction, funded by miners.
  • Objective: Address issues related to mining-affected areas as prescribed by state governments.
Q70Agriculture ScienceAgriculture SciencePrecision Agriculture

Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practicing drip irrigation?

  1. Reduction in weed
  2. Reduction in soil salinity
  3. Reduction in-soil erosion

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    None of the above is an advantage of practising drip irrigation

Explanation

Sustainable Agriculture (Drip Irrigation):

  • Drip irrigation benefits and drawbacks.
Q71EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyMoney Supply

With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
  2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
  3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2, and 3

Explanation

Cryptocurrency

  • Incorrect: Bitcoin is digital currency not tied to banks or governments, allows anonymous transactions.
  • Correct: Bitcoin popularity due to anonymous transactions, appealing to various groups.
  • Correct: Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send or receive Bitcoins.
Q72EconomyFinancial MarketsSecurities & Bonds

What is/are the purpose/purposes of the Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’?

  1. To bring the idle gold lying with Indian households into the economy.
  2. To promote FDI in the gold and jewellery sector.
  3. To reduce India’s dependence on gold imports.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Government Policies

  • Correct: Gold Monetization and Sovereign Gold Bond schemes aim to reduce gold imports and mobilize idle gold.
  • Incorrect: Only Scheduled Commercial Banks can implement the schemes; not intended to promote FDI in gold sector.
Q73EconomyBankingBanking Reforms

The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

  1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
  2. Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
  3. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    2 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Banking Licenses

  • Statement 1: Correct; Eligible promoters for payment banks include mobile companies, supermarkets, etc.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect; Payment banks can't lend or issue credit.
  • Statement 3: Correct; RBI prohibits lending by Payment Banks.
Q74EconomyBankingBanking Reforms

The term ‘Core Banking Solution’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

  1. It is a network of a bank’s branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on its network regardless of where they open their accounts.
  2. It is an effort to increase RBI’s control over commercial banks through computerization.
  3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non-performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Banking Functions: Core Banking Solution (CBS) Core Banking Solutions (CBS) refer to a networking system that allows customers to operate their bank accounts from any branch of the bank, regardless of where they opened their accounts. It integrates various branches of a bank into a single centralized system, enabling seamless transactions and access to banking services from any branch within the network.

  • Statement 1: Correct; CBS allows banking from any location.
  • Statements 2 & 3: Incorrect; RBI's role with CBS doesn't involve control or NPA management.
Q75EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

What is/are the purpose/purposes of the ‘Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

  1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
  2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Banking Mechanisms/Functions

  • Objectives of MCLR: Improve policy rate transmission, transparency, loan availability, and competitiveness.
Q76Current AffairsIndex, Rankings & ReportsEconomic & Development Indices (GDP, HDI, MPI)

Which of the following is/are the indicator/indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

  1. Undernourishment
  2. Child stunting
  3. Child mortality Select the correct answer using the code given below.
  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct
  4. D.

    1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Global Hunger Index (GHI) report, computed by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), uses several indicators to assess hunger and malnutrition worldwide. These indicators include:

  1. Undernourishment: This indicator measures the proportion of the population that is undernourished, indicating the prevalence of inadequate food consumption.
  2. Child stunting: Child stunting refers to the condition where children are too short for their age, typically as a result of chronic malnutrition during the early years of life.
  3. Child mortality: Child mortality, specifically mortality rates of children under the age of five, is also considered as an indicator of hunger and malnutrition. High child mortality rates can be indicative of poor health and nutrition conditions.
Q77EconomyFinancial MarketsSecurities & Bonds

With reference to ‘IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

  1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
  2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Select the statements correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

  1. The International Finance Corporation (IFC) is indeed an arm of the World Bank Group, specializing in providing financial support to the private sector in developing countries. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  2. 'IFC Masala Bonds' are indeed rupee-denominated bonds issued by the International Finance Corporation (IFC) in the international market. These bonds are aimed at attracting foreign investment into India while providing a source of debt financing for both the public and private sectors. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.
Q78International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR?

  1. A.

    Rouble

  2. B.

    Rand

  3. C.

    Indian Rupee

  4. D.

    Renminbi

    Correct

Explanation

The currency proposed to be added to the basket of IMF's Special Drawing Rights (SDR) in 2016 was the Renminbi, also known as the Chinese Yuan. This move aimed to recognize the growing importance and internationalization of the Chinese currency in global trade and finance.

Q79Schemes & Social JusticeEntrepreneurship & LivelihoodMarginalised Entrepreneur Schemes

‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to

  1. A.

    rehabilitate the homeless and destitute persons and provide them with suitable sources of livelihood

  2. B.

    release the sex workers from their practice and provide them with alternative sources of livelihood

  3. C.

    eradicate the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitate the manual scavengers

    Correct
  4. D.

    release the bonded labourers from their bondage and rehabilitate them

Explanation

The Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan is a national campaign aimed at eradicating the practice of manual scavenging and rehabilitating manual scavengers. Manual scavenging refers to the manual cleaning, carrying, disposing, or handling of human excreta from dry latrines and sewers. It is a dehumanizing and hazardous practice that predominantly affects the marginalized sections of society, particularly Dalits.

Q80International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW); consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
  2. It monitors chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
  3. It provides assistance and protection to states (Parties) weapons threats against chemical

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

  1. Statement 1 is incorrect. The Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW) is not an organization of the European Union. It is an independent international organization established by the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) in 1997. It operates independently of the European Union and has its headquarters in The Hague, Netherlands. While it may cooperate with various international bodies, such as NATO and WHO, it is not exclusively associated with the European Union.
  2. Statement 2 is correct. One of the primary functions of the OPCW is to monitor the chemical industry to prevent the emergence of new chemical weapons. It does this by verifying compliance with the Chemical Weapons Convention, which bans the production, stockpiling, and use of chemical weapons.
  3. Statement 3 is also correct. The OPCW provides assistance and protection to its member states (Parties) against threats posed by chemical weapons. This includes offering support for the destruction of existing chemical weapons stockpiles, providing training and resources for emergency response to chemical incidents, and helping countries develop national legislation and infrastructure to comply with the Chemical Weapons Convention.
Q81Schemes & Social JusticeEntrepreneurship & LivelihoodMarginalised Entrepreneur Schemes

With reference to ‘Stand Up India Scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and woman entrepreneurs.
  2. It provides for refinance through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

  1. The Stand Up India Scheme aims to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs by facilitating loans to start their own ventures. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The scheme provides for refinance support through the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI). This refinance support helps in providing financial assistance to eligible entrepreneurs under the scheme. Thus, statement 2 is also correct.
Q82BiologyBlood, Immunity & VaccinesVaccines & Immunisation Programmes

‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to

  1. A.

    Immunization of children and pregnant woman

    Correct
  2. B.

    Construction of smart cities across the country

  3. C.

    India’s own search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

  4. D.

    New Educational Policy

Explanation

Mission Indradhanush, launched by the Government of India, aims to immunize children and pregnant women against seven vaccine-preventable diseases. These diseases include diphtheria, whooping cough, tetanus, polio, tuberculosis, measles, and hepatitis B. The mission aims to achieve full immunization coverage by reaching the unreached and underserved areas, particularly in rural and remote regions, to ensure that no child or pregnant woman misses out on essential vaccinations.

Q83International RelationsRegional & Global GroupingsSAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region

With reference to the ‘Trans-Pecific Partnership’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
  2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

    Correct
  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

  1. The first statement is correct. The Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP) was indeed an agreement among several Pacific Rim countries, but notably, it excluded China and Russia.
  2. However, the second statement is incorrect. The TPP was not solely focused on maritime security; rather, it was primarily an economic agreement aimed at promoting trade and economic integration among its member countries. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct, and option (a) 1 only is the correct choice.
Q84EconomyMoney & Monetary PolicyRBI & Open Market Operations

What is/are the purpose of the ‘Marginal Cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

  1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
  2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

    Correct
  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Marginal Cost of funds based lending rate (MCLR) is a system introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to determine the minimum interest rate that a bank can lend at.

  1. The purpose of MCLR guidelines is indeed to improve transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances. This ensures that banks have a clear and standardized approach for setting interest rates, making the process more transparent for borrowers.
  2. Additionally, MCLR guidelines aim to ensure the availability of bank credit at interest rates that are fair to both borrowers and banks. By having a transparent and standardized method for setting interest rates, MCLR helps prevent arbitrary or unfair lending practices, thereby promoting fairness in lending.
Q85EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationTaxes (Direct & Indirect)

The term ‘Base Erosin and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of

  1. A.

    Mining operation by multinational companies in backward areas resource-rich but

  2. B.

    Curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies

    Correct
  3. C.

    Exploitation of genetic resources of a country by multinational companies

  4. D.

    Lack of consideration of environmental costs in the planning and implementation of developmental projects

Explanation

The term "Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)" refers to tax planning strategies used by multinational companies to artificially shift profits from high-tax jurisdictions to low-tax jurisdictions, thereby reducing their overall tax liability. This practice undermines the fairness and integrity of the tax system, as it allows companies to exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to avoid paying their fair share of taxes. Option (b) Curbing of the tax evasion by multinational companies is the correct choice. BEPS initiatives are aimed at curbing tax evasion and ensuring that multinational companies pay taxes in the jurisdictions where they generate their profits, thus preventing the erosion of tax bases and ensuring a more equitable distribution of tax burdens.

Q86EconomyIndustry & ManufacturingSpecial Economic Zones (SEZs) & Industrial Zones (NIMZs)

Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in

  1. A.

    Andhra Pradesh

  2. B.

    Gujarat

  3. C.

    Maharashtra

    Correct
  4. D.

    Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

India's first 'National Investment and Manufacturing Zone' (NIMZ) was proposed to be set up in Maharashtra. NIMZ is a designated area aimed at attracting domestic and foreign investment in manufacturing and industrial activities, with the goal of promoting economic growth, job creation, and industrial development. Maharashtra, being one of the leading industrial states in India, was chosen as the location for this initiative to leverage its infrastructure, resources, and strategic location for fostering industrial growth.

Q87Applied Science & TechnologyInformation & Communication TechnologyDigital Education (MOOCs)

‘SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at

  1. A.

    Promoting the Self Help Groups in rural areas

  2. B.

    Providing financial and technical assistance to entrepreneurs young start-up

  3. C.

    Promoting the education and health of adolescent girls

  4. D.

    Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

    Correct

Explanation

'SWAYAM', an initiative of the Government of India, aims at providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free. It stands for "Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds" and is an online platform offering various courses from school level to post-graduation. It allows learners to access high-quality educational resources and lectures from renowned educators and institutions across the country. The correct option is: (d) Providing affordable and quality education to the citizens for free

Q88International RelationsRegional & Global GroupingsSAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region

Consider the following statements:

  1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
  2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 only

    Correct
  3. C.

    Both 1 and 2

  4. D.

    Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The New Development Bank (NDB) was not set up by APEC (Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation), but rather by the BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa) in 2014. However, statement 2 is correct as the headquarters of the New Development Bank is indeed located in Shanghai, China. Therefore, option (b) is the correct choice.

Q89International RelationsRegional & Global GroupingsSAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region

Which of the following in not a member of ‘Gulf Cooperation Council?

  1. A.

    Iran

    Correct
  2. B.

    Saudi Arebia

  3. C.

    Oman

  4. D.

    Kuwait

Explanation

The Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC) is a political and economic alliance of six Middle Eastern countries in the Arabian Peninsula. These countries are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates (UAE). Iran is not a member of the GCC. Therefore, the correct option is : (a) Iran

Q90International RelationsBilateral RelationsRelations with Major Powers (USA, Russia, UK, France) and Asian Nations

‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of

  1. A.

    African Union

  2. B.

    Brazil

  3. C.

    European Union

  4. D.

    China

    Correct

Explanation

The "Belt and Road Initiative" (BRI) is a development strategy proposed by China that focuses on connectivity and cooperation between Eurasian countries. It involves infrastructure development and investments in countries across Asia, Europe, and Africa. The initiative aims to enhance trade and economic cooperation, promote cultural exchange, and stimulate economic growth and development in the participating regions. Given this, the correct option is : (d) China

Q91Schemes & Social JusticeEntrepreneurship & LivelihoodMarginalised Entrepreneur Schemes

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA yojana is aimed at

  1. A.

    Bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

    Correct
  2. B.

    Providing loans to poor farmers for cultivating particular crops

  3. C.

    Providing pensions to old and destitute persons

  4. D.

    Funding the voluntary organizations involved in the promotion of skill development and employment generation

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana (PMMY) is aimed at bringing small entrepreneurs into the formal financial system by providing them access to institutional credit. It focuses on supporting micro-enterprises and facilitating their growth by offering financial assistance in the form of loans. This initiative aims to empower small business owners, particularly those from underprivileged backgrounds, by providing them with the necessary funds to establish or expand their businesses. The correct option is : (a) Bringing the small entrepreneurs into formal financial system

Q92International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

‘Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the

  1. A.

    European Central Bank

  2. B.

    International Monetary Fund

    Correct
  3. C.

    International Banks for Reconstruction and Development

  4. D.

    Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

Explanation

The 'Global Financial Stability Report' is an authoritative publication prepared by the International Monetary Fund (IMF). It assesses the global financial system, identifies potential vulnerabilities, and provides policy recommendations to enhance financial stability worldwide. The correct option is:

Q93EconomyPoverty & UnemploymentEmployment Schemes

Regarding ‘Atal Pension Yojana’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
  2. Only one member of a family can join scheme
  3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for the life after subscriber’s death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

  1. Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is indeed a minimum guaranteed pension scheme primarily aimed at providing pension benefits to workers in the unorganized sector. It encourages them to save for their retirement and ensures they have a regular income after they stop working.
  2. Multiple members of a family can join the Atal Pension Yojana individually. There is no restriction on the number of family members who can enroll in the scheme.
  3. Under the Atal Pension Yojana, the spouse of the subscriber is eligible to receive the same amount of pension after the subscriber's death. This ensures financial security for the spouse even after the subscriber's demise.
Q94International RelationsRegional & Global GroupingsSAARC, BRICS, QUAD & Indian Ocean Region

The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economics Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as

  1. A.

    G20

  2. B.

    ASEAN Bureau of Energy Efficiency

    Correct
  3. C.

    SCO

  4. D.

    SAARC

Explanation

The term "Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership" (RCEP) refers to a free trade agreement (FTA) between 15 countries in the Asia-Pacific region. These countries include the 10 member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) – Brunei, Cambodia, Indonesia, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, the Philippines, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam – along with five of ASEAN's FTA partners: Australia, China, Japan, New Zealand, and South Korea. RCEP aims to promote economic cooperation and integration among its member countries by reducing tariffs, facilitating trade in goods and services, and establishing common rules and standards for trade and investment. It is considered one of the largest trade agreements in the world by population and GDP. Given this context, the correct option is : (b) ASEAN Bureau of Energy Efficiency

Q95International RelationsInternational OrganisationsWTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions

'European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an

  1. A.

    Agency created by EU to deal with the impact of millions of refugees arriving from Middle East

  2. B.

    Agency of EU that provides financial assistance to euro zone countries

    Correct
  3. C.

    Agency of EU to deal with all bilateral and multilateral agreements on trade

  4. D.

    Agency of EU to deal with the conflicts among the member countries

Explanation

The European Stability Mechanism (ESM) is an agency of the European Union (EU) that provides financial assistance to eurozone countries in times of financial crisis. It was established in 2012 to safeguard the stability of the euro currency and ensure the financial stability of eurozone member states.

Q96EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationGovernment Budgeting – Revenue & Capital Accounts

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

  1. Reducing revenue expenditure
  2. Introducing new welfare schemes
  3. Rationalising subsidies
  4. Reducing import duty

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Budget Budget management involves controlling revenue and expenditure, with measures like subsidy rationalization and revenue enhancement.

Q97EconomyFiscal Policy & TaxationGovernment Budgeting – Revenue & Capital Accounts

Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

  1. Expenditure on acquisition of assets like roads, buildings, machinery, etc.
  2. Loans received from foreign governments
  3. Loans and advances granted to the States and Union Territories

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. A.

    1 only

  2. B.

    2 and 3 only

  3. C.

    1 and 3 only

  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

    Correct

Explanation

Budget Capital expenditure and receipts, including loans and advances, shape the government's financial planning.

Q98EconomyFinancial MarketsSEBI & Regulatory Bodies

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

  1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
  2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
  3. It monitors macroprudential supervision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. A.

    1 and 2 only

  2. B.

    3 only

  3. C.

    2 and 3 only

    Correct
  4. D.

    1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Banking and NBFCs Financial stability oversight is managed by the FSDC, chaired by the Finance Minister, focusing on macro-prudential supervision.

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