UPSC CSE Prelims 2017 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Significant features and lifestyle aspect of Aryans viz-a-viz Indus Valley Civilization

• Statement 1: Correct. The Vedic-Aryans had defensive armor, unlike the Indus Valley people.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. The metals used by the Vedic-Aryans differed from those favored by the Indus Valley people.
• Statement 3: Correct. The horse was likely unknown to the Indus Valley inhabitants, contrasting with Vedic-Aryan references to horses.

Kakatiya Kingdom Option (a) is incorrect: Kakinada Deep Water Port was commissioned by the Government of AP in November 1997. Option (b) is correct: Motupalli was the chief port of the Kakatiyas and visited by the Venetian traveler, Marco Polo. Option (c) is incorrect: Machilipatnam was the main port of the Golconda Kingdom. Option (d) is incorrect: Nelluru (a port town) was part of the Kakatiya kingdom in the 13th century, changing hands between Kakatiya and Pandyas a few times until Prataprudra II defeated Pandyas. However, this seems less significant than Motupalli.

Permanent Settlement:

• Initiated by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
• Implemented in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa, Varanasi (United Provinces), and Northern Karnataka.
• Covered 19% of British India.
• New Zamindars appointed to collect revenue, remitting 10/11th to British. Ryotwari System:
• Instituted by Thomas Munro and Alexander Reed in 1820.
• Originated in Baramahal district of Tamil Nadu, expanded to Madras, parts of Bombay, East Bengal, Assam, and Kurg (Karnataka).
• Covered 51% of British India.
• Farmers (Ryots) granted land ownership and rights, directly paying revenue to the government. High taxes and strict collection. Mahalwari System:
• Introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822.
• Prevalent in United Provinces, Central Provinces, and Punjab.
• Covered 30% of British India.
• Revenue collected at village (mahal) level, community responsible for payment.

Labour Legislation - Trade Disputes Act, 1929: The Trade Disputes Act, 1929 was initially enacted as an experimental measure for five years. Its primary aim was to establish Courts of Inquiry and Boards of Conciliation to investigate and settle trade disputes. The Act prohibited unnoticed strikes or lockouts in public utility services. It also made illegal any strike or lockout intended to cause severe, widespread, or prolonged hardship to the community or compel the government to take specific actions. This encompassed strikes and lockouts not directly related to advancing a trade dispute within the concerned trade or industry. The Act underwent an amendment in 1932 and was later made permanent by the Trade Disputes (Extending) Act, 1934.

Labour Legislation/Movement Statement 1 correction: The initial Factory Act (1881) passed during Lord Ripon's tenure aimed to enhance factory workers' conditions. It applied to factories using mechanical power, employing a minimum of 100 workers. It banned child labor under age 7, limited ages 7-12 to a maximum of 9 work hours, and mandated proper fencing for dangerous machinery, but did not address trade unions. Statement 2: Narayan Meghaji Lokhande (1848–1897) pioneered India's trade union movement, notably improving textile mill workers' conditions in the 19th century. He also tackled caste and communal issues, earning him recognition as the movement's father. Lokhande's advocacy secured mill workers rights, including a weekly Sunday holiday, a half-hour afternoon break, a 6:30 am to sunset workday, and salaries by the 15th of each month.

Government of India Act (GoI) 1919, also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, introduced a dual governance system called 'dyarchy.' This system divided provincial subjects into two categories: transferred and reserved. Under dyarchy, the executive at the provincial level was governed by two individuals or parties. Introduction to Diarchy:

• GoI Act 1919 established diarchy in eight provinces: Assam, Bengal, Bihar and Orissa, Central Provinces, United Provinces, Bombay, Madras, and Punjab.
• Diarchy expanded provincial government authority.
• Governors served as chief executives in the provinces. Division of Subjects:
• Subjects divided into 'reserved' and 'transferred' lists.
• Reserved list included law and order, finance, land revenue, and irrigation, managed by governors through executive councils.
• Transferred subjects, like education, health, and local government, were overseen by ministers nominated from elected legislative council members.

Important Commission during British Butler Committee (1927):

• The Butler Committee, chaired by Sir Harcourt Butler in 1927, aimed to clarify the relationship between the British Raj in India and the rulers of Princely States.
• The committee included two other members: William Searle Holdsworth and Sidney Peel. Recommendations:
• The committee's 1929 report reaffirmed the "paramountcy" doctrine and provided guidelines for its fair application in financial matters between the Raj and the States.
• It emphasized that the relationship between the princely states and the British empire was dynamic and influenced by historical circumstances and policy.
• The preservation of British paramountcy was deemed crucial to safeguard the integrity of the princely states.
• Princely states should not be transferred to a new government in British India without their consent to ensure accountability to an Indian legislature.

Social Movement Organisations Pair 1 is correct: Raja Radhakanta Deb was the first President of the British Indian Association while Debendranath Tagore was its secretary. Pair 2 is incorrect: In 1884 Madras Mahajan Sabha was established by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu. Pair 3 is correct: Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan Bose founded the Indian Association of Calcutta in 1876.

Last phase of Indian Freedom Struggle/RIN Movement Second Round Table Conference (1931):

• Held in London as a result of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.
• Gandhi represented the INC, and other participants included representatives from the Muslim League, depressed classes, and women.
• Discussions included the Communal Award and failed to meet Indian demands. Quit India Movement/August Revolution (1942):
• Launched after the failure of Cripps’s Mission, demanding British withdrawal and non-violent Non-Cooperation against Japanese invasion.
• The movement was marked by mass protests and the adoption of the mantra "Do or Die" by Gandhiji. Royal Indian Naval Mutiny (1946):
• Started due to poor conditions among ratings and racial discrimination.
• The mutiny led to violence in Bombay and subsequent trials for the mutineers.
• The event prompted the sending of the Cabinet Mission to India.

Indian Folk or Local Dances 1: Correct - Manipuri Sankirtana involves ritual singing, drumming, and dancing, recognized by UNESCO. 2: Incorrect - Along with cymbals, drums are used in performances, typically involving two drummers and ten singer-dancers. 3: Correct - Lord Krishna's life and deeds are the central theme of Manipuri Sankirtana, practiced mainly by the Vaishnavite community.

• Manipuri Sankirtana celebrates special religious occasions and phases in Vaishnava people's lives, fostering community unity and strengthening bonds.

Rock-cut Paintings Option (a): Bodhisattva Padmapani painting in Ajanta cave no. 1, 5th century AD.

• Other Bodhisattva paintings: Vajrapani and Manjusri.
• Bodhisattva holds a lotus in tribhanga pose.

Ancient Indian Temple Architecture.

• Arasavalli Sun Temple, Andhra Pradesh: Built in the 7th century, attributed to a Kalinga king.
• Amarkantak, Madhya Pradesh: Source of the Narmada river, site of Narmadeswar Amranath temple.
• Omkareshwar, Madhya Pradesh: One of the 12 Jyotirlingas, dedicated to Lord Shiva.
• List of famous Sun temples across India, including Dakshinaarka temple at Gaya, Brahmana Dev Temple at Unao, Sun Temple at Surya Pahar, Suryanar Temple near Kumbakonam, Suryanarayana Swamy temple at Arasavalli, and the Sun Temple at Modhera, Gujarat, and Konark, Orissa.

Sarvastivadin:

• Belief: Eternal existence of dharma factors.
• View on Phenomena: Empirical phenomena as illusory.
• Critique: Sautrantika for violating Buddhist idea of impermanence.
• Sautrantika: Relies on sutras, believes in extreme momentariness.

Cultural Traditions:

• Chalia Sahib: Sindhi festival involving fasting.
• Nanda Devi Jat: Celebrated in Nanda Devi temples.
• Wari-Warkari: Annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur, Maharashtra.

World Map Mediterranean Sea is bordered by 22 countries including Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Monaco, Montenegro, Morocco, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia, and Turkey.

Great Nicobar, the largest island in the Nicobar Islands, is situated south of the Nicobar Islands, closest to Sumatra, with a distance of 1,192 km. It is also 2,398 km from Borneo, 1,817 km from Java, and 1,437 km from Sri Lanka.

When travelling by road from Kohima to Kottayam, one needs to cross Kohima (Nagaland), Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, and then either Tamil Nadu or Karnataka before reaching Kottayam in Kerala, totaling seven states.

The Himalayas extend across 12 Indian states: Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura, Assam (Dima Hasao and Karbi Anglong districts), and Darjeeling and Kalimpong in West Bengal. The Western Ghats span Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. Pulicat Lake lies between Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.

Indian Ocean Dipole Statement 1: Incorrect - The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) contrasts sea surface temperatures between the eastern and western Indian Ocean. Statement 2: Correct - Negative IOD correlates with La Niña, positive IOD with El Niño.

Basic Trivia About Chandipur Sea Beach:

• Sea recedes up to five kilometers daily
• Recession and return during ebb and high tide, called the ‘hide-and-seek’ beach
• Houses the DRDO Integrated Research Range for missile testing

Himalayan River/Drainage Statement 1: Incorrect, Teesta flows south from Sikkim to West Bengal Statement 2: Correct, River Rangeet is a tributary of Teesta Statement 3: Incorrect, Teesta originally flowed south to join the Padma River but changed course eastward

The proposal to translocate lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to another site arose due to conservation efforts aimed at ensuring the long-term survival of the Asiatic lion population. This initiative seeks to establish a second population of Asiatic lions in a different location to mitigate the risks associated with having the entire population confined to a single habitat, thus enhancing their overall conservation status. The correct option is (b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary. Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary, located in Madhya Pradesh, was selected as the potential site for the translocation of Asiatic lions. The sanctuary has been identified as a suitable habitat for reintroducing the lions due to its ecological resemblance to Gir National Park in Gujarat, the current habitat of the Asiatic lions.

The terms 'Event Horizon', 'Singularity', 'String Theory', and 'Standard Model' are associated with the field of observational cosmology and theoretical physics.

1. Event Horizon: It is the boundary surrounding a black hole beyond which no light or information can escape due to the immense gravitational pull. It represents the point of no return for anything falling into a black hole.
2. Singularity: It refers to the infinitely dense and small point within a black hole where the laws of physics as we know them break down. It is a point of infinite curvature of spacetime.
3. String Theory: It is a theoretical framework in physics that attempts to reconcile quantum mechanics and general relativity. It posits that the fundamental building blocks of the universe are not point-like particles but rather one-dimensional 'strings' vibrating at different frequencies.
4. Standard Model: It is a theory in particle physics that describes the fundamental forces and particles that make up the universe. It encompasses electromagnetic, weak, and strong nuclear forces, as well as the particles known as quarks, leptons, and gauge bosons. Reference:

• Event Horizon: Hawking, S. W. (1973). "Black holes in general relativity". Communications in Mathematical Physics.
• Singularity: Penrose, R. (1965). "Gravitational Collapse: The Role of General Relativity". Rivista del Nuovo Cimento.
• String Theory: Greene, B. (1999). "The Elegant Universe: Superstrings, Hidden Dimensions, and the Quest for the Ultimate Theory". Vintage Books.
• Standard Model: Griffiths, D. J. (2008). "Introduction to Elementary Particles". John Wiley & Sons.

The most likely consequence of implementing the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) is option (a) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for online payments. Explanation: UPI facilitates instant fund transfers between two bank accounts on a mobile platform, using a unique identification number known as the Virtual Payment Address (VPA). It enables seamless transactions directly from one's bank account without the need for mobile wallets or third-party payment apps. With UPI, users can make payments and receive funds directly through their bank accounts, eliminating the need to preload money into mobile wallets. This simplifies the payment process and reduces dependency on mobile wallet services for online transactions. Reference: RBI (Reserve Bank of India). (n.d.). Unified Payments Interface (UPI). Retrieved from

Global warming mitigation/Carbon sequestration Option (d): All are potential sites for carbon sequestration.

• Carbon sequestration captures and stores CO2 from air, industries, or power stations to mitigate global warming.
• Terrestrial, Geologic, and Ocean Carbon Sequestration are types of CO2 sequestration methods.

Global Climate Finance Architecture

• Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) promotes climate dialogue and cooperation.
• It supports developing countries in climate action.
• Correct: GCCA aligns with the Paris Agreement and Sustainable Development Goals.

Global Climate Finance Architecture

• Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) reduces short-lived climate pollutants.
• Correct: CCAC addresses black carbon, methane, and other pollutants.

Conservation Agencies/Schemes/Initiatives

• TRAFFIC monitors wildlife trade globally.
• It collaborates with WWF and IUCN.
• Incorrect: TRAFFIC is not an NGO but a wildlife trade monitoring network.

Biotic Interaction Pollination:

• Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of a pistil.
• Types of Pollination: Autogamy, Geitonogamy, Xenogamy.
• Statement 1: Correct. Bees, butterflies, and other biotic agents play a vital role in pollination.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. There's no credible source or research supporting this extreme statement.
• Statement 3: Correct. Predators of butterflies include wasps, ants, birds, etc., and a decline in their population can disrupt the food chain.

Agriculture and Environment

• Statement 1: Correct. Conservation Tillage includes zero tillage for soil moisture conservation.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. Gypsum aids in dissolving salt clay pans, but the statement's correctness is disputed.
• Statement 3: Correct. Crop residues act as mulches, reducing evaporation and soil crusting.

Water Pollution Option (c) is the correct answer: Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems is based on the Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) criterion.

• Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures the amount of organic waste polluting water.
• BOD indicates the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria to decompose organic wastes in water.
• Higher BOD values indicate low dissolved oxygen content in water.
• BOD is not reliable for assessing water pollution as it only includes biodegradable elements.

Eco-Engineering Benefits of Bioremediation:

• Minimizes ecosystem damage using natural methods.
• Bioremediation frequently occurs underground to remove toxins from soil and groundwater.
• It causes less disruption to communities compared to other cleanup techniques.
• Simple changes or additions to the environment optimize conditions for microbes, accelerating bioremediation.
• Produces few harmful byproducts as contaminants are converted into water and harmless gases.
• Less expensive than most cleanup techniques. Statement 1 is correct: Bioremediation uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances. Statement 2 is incorrect: Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation. Heavy metals like cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed by microorganisms. Statement 3 is correct: Genetic engineering can create organisms designed for bioremediation. For example, Alcanivorax bacteria with oil-eating abilities can be used to clean oil spills effectively.

Eco-Engineering Biofuels:

• Biofuels are hydrocarbon fuels produced from organic matter in a short time frame.
• They can be solid, liquid, or gaseous: Solid (wood, dried plant material, manure), Liquid (bioethanol, biodiesel), Gaseous (biogas). Statement 1 is incorrect: Algaculture can be initiated in various environments, including land unsuitable for agriculture or saline water. Statement 2 is correct: Producing algae for biofuels requires significant capital investments, posing a barrier in developing countries with weak investment climates. Statement 3 is correct: Using land for algal biofuel reduces food availability, impacting both food and fuel costs, an ecological and economic concern.

Gharial populations concentrated in tributaries of Ganges River.

Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Option (a) correct: Located where Western and Eastern Ghats converge, home to significant tiger population.

Technology in wildlife protection Option (b) is correct: M-STrIPES is Monitoring system for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status. M-STrIPES:

• Launched in 2010 by NTCA and WII across Indian tiger reserves.
• Software-based system for wildlife protection.
• Components: Field-based methods for monitoring, law enforcement, and patrolling; GIS application for reporting and analysis.
• Forest guards use GPS to track movements and record observations.

Environmental Laws Schedule I covers endangered species that need rigorous protection, enjoying the same level of protection as the Bengal tiger. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972:

• Passed to safeguard various plant and animal species.
• Covers the entirety of India except for the State of Jammu & Kashmir.
• Prior to this legislation, India had only five designated national parks, now there are 101 National Parks in India.

Environmental Laws Option (d) is the correct answer: All are Scheduled I species.

Application of Biotechnology Practical Use of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT): SCNT finds practical application in reproductive cloning of farm animals with exceptional qualities, like high milk production. Procedure of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT):

• Transfer of a somatic (body) cell’s nucleus to an enucleated egg's cytoplasm is done using SCNT.
• SCNT-derived blastocysts, used in reproductive cloning, are implanted into a surrogate mother's uterus, developing into a fetus and carried to term.
• Dolly, the first mammal cloned via SCNT, was a sheep born in 1996.
• Potential use of SCNT includes resurrecting extinct animals, such as using frozen woolly mammoth cells as nuclear donors for enucleated elephant eggs.

Genome Sequencing Genome sequencing involves determining the sequence of DNA bases (A, C, G, T) in an organism's DNA.

• Identifying genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in crop plants.
• Aids genetic engineering and accelerates the creation of new crop plant varieties.
• Includes studying host-pathogen interactions in agricultural systems, like genes related to insecticide resistance in Bactrocera dorsalis.

Harmful chemicals

• Lipsticks and cosmetics often contain lead, posing health risks.
• Some food additives like brominated vegetable oil are banned due to health concerns.
• Monosodium glutamate (MSG), found in Chinese fast food, can stimulate neurons, affecting health.

OLEDs (organic light-emitting diodes) can be fabricated on flexible substrates, leading to applications like roll-up displays and transparent screens.

Both statements are correct. Explanation:

1. The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) indeed plays a crucial role in promoting financial inclusion in the country. It has introduced various initiatives and services aimed at extending banking and financial services to the unbanked and underbanked population segments, thus fostering financial inclusion. Reference: NPCI official website:
2. NPCI has indeed launched RuPay, a domestic payment scheme that facilitates electronic payments within India. RuPay cards are issued by various banks and are widely used for transactions across various platforms, contributing to the growth of digital payments in the country. Reference: NPCI official website - RuPay section:

The correct option is (b) 2 only. Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect. Smart India Hackathon 2017 was not aimed at developing every city into Smart Cities; instead, it focused on promoting innovation and digital solutions to address various challenges faced by the country. Statement 2 is correct. Smart India Hackathon 2017 was indeed an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations. It provided a platform for students to work on problem statements proposed by various government departments and organizations, with the aim of finding innovative solutions to these challenges. Statement 3 is incorrect. While the promotion of digital transactions might have been a part of the broader digitalization efforts in India, it was not the primary focus of Smart India Hackathon 2017. Reference: Smart India Hackathon 2017:

The Nuclear Security Summits were not held under the aegis of the United Nations but were initiated by individual countries, primarily the United States. The summits aimed to enhance nuclear security through voluntary commitments by participating countries. They were not organized under the auspices of the UN. The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) is an independent group of arms-control and nonproliferation experts. It is not an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA). The IPFM provides research and analysis on fissile materials, nuclear disarmament, and nonproliferation issues but operates independently of the IAEA.

Statement 1: In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is indeed transmitted by the same mosquito species, Aedes aegypti, that also transmits dengue fever. This mosquito species is known for transmitting several viruses, including Zika, dengue, chikungunya, and yellow fever. Statement 2: Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible. The virus can be transmitted through sexual contact, including vaginal, anal, and oral sex. This mode of transmission has been documented in various cases and poses a risk, particularly for pregnant women, as Zika virus infection during pregnancy can lead to severe birth defects, including microcephaly, in newborns.

The purpose of the 'evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA)' project is to detect gravitational waves. Gravitational waves are ripples in the fabric of spacetime caused by the acceleration of massive objects, such as black holes or neutron stars. The eLISA project aims to observe these gravitational waves by using a space-based detector consisting of multiple spacecraft in a triangular formation, which will precisely measure the distance between them using lasers.

Correct option: (d) 1, 2 and 3 In India, the legal mandate for reporting cyber security incidents applies to "Service providers," "Data centres," and "Body corporate." Explanation: The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, along with its amendments, imposes certain obligations on entities to ensure cybersecurity and protect sensitive data. Section 70B of the IT Act, inserted by the IT (Amendment) Act, 2008, outlines the requirements for the reporting of cybersecurity incidents. According to this section, any "service provider," "data centre," or "body corporate" is legally obligated to report any cybersecurity incidents to the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) as mandated by the Indian government. Reference: IT (Amendment) Act, 2008, Section 70B; Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In)

Statement 1: Incorrect. A property transaction can still be treated as a benami transaction even if the owner is unaware of it. The key criterion for determining a benami transaction is whether the property is held for the benefit of another person, regardless of the owner's awareness. Statement 2: Correct. The PBPT Act indeed provides for the confiscation of properties held benami by the Government as a punitive measure to deter such transactions and discourage the holding of properties in the name of others. Statement 3: Incorrect. The Act does establish authorities for investigating benami transactions, such as Initiating Officer, Approving Authority, and Administrator, it also has an appellate mechanism for challenging their decisions in the form of Adjudicating Authority and Appelate Tribunal. Reference: The Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act), Sections 24-27, provides the legal framework for the confiscation of benami properties and outlines the authorities responsible for investigations. However, it does not explicitly mention an appellate mechanism.

Basics of Fundamental Duties Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental Duties are enumerated in Part IV-A and consist of single Article 51A with 11 sub-articles. These duties should guide the legislative and executive actions of elected or non-elected institutions and organisations of the citizens including the municipal bodies. But no legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. These duties are thus non-enforceable and non-justiciable in nature. Statement 2 is incorrect: The fundamental Duties are not correlative of the legal duties. Parliament may provide legislation for the imposition of penalty or punishment for non-observance or infringement of duties.

Judicial Review

• Judicial review ensures laws don't violate constitutional provisions.
• Articles 13, 32, and 226 are core judicial review elements.
• Courts declare statutes or executive actions unconstitutional.

Objective of Local Governance Option (b): PRIs aim to promote grassroots democracy, development, socio-economic progress, and justice.

State Emergency/President’s Rule Statement 1: The proclamation of President's Rule, also known as 'State Emergency' or 'Constitutional Emergency,' can be declared by the President under Article 356 of the Constitution when satisfied that the state government cannot function according to constitutional provisions. However, the dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not always a consequence of this proclamation. Statement 2: When President's Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers led by the chief minister. Statement 3: There is no provision for the dissolution of local bodies during the proclamation of President's Rule.

Key Words in the Preamble Liberty:

• Borrowed from the French revolution, liberty in the Indian Constitution ensures freedom from restraint and provides opportunities for individual development.
• The preamble guarantees citizens liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship. Justice:
• Justice encompasses social, economical, and political dimensions:
  • Social Justice: Equal treatment without social discrimination.
  • Economic Justice: Fair treatment regardless of economic factors.
  • Political Justice: Equal access to political office and rights for all citizens.

Significance of the Preamble The Preamble:

• Embodies the foundational values of the Constitution, reflecting the vision of the Constituent Assembly and the aspirations of the founding fathers.
• Considered key to understanding the Constitution's makers' intentions. Incorrect Options:
• Fundamental Rights were inspired by the US Constitution.
• DPSP resemble the Instrument of Instructions from the GoI Act 1935.
• Fundamental Duties were influenced by the USSR.

Amendments to Constitution

• The 42nd Amendment Act (1976) expanded DPSP by adding provisions like securing children's development, equal justice, worker participation, and environmental protection.

Features of the Directive Principles

• DPSP provides guidance for governmental actions toward societal welfare, unlike Fundamental Rights, which limit state authority.

Basic Idea of Democracy: Democracy hinges on the people's desire, approval, and participation. The creation and operations of a democratic government are determined by the will of the people. Thus, voter decision-making plays a pivotal role, necessitating intelligence and character.

Right against Exploitation

• Article 23 includes selling humans, immoral trafficking, and slavery.
• Abolition of Untouchability falls under Right to Equality, not Right against Exploitation.
• Cultural and Educational Rights don't come under Rights Against Exploitation.
• Article 24 prohibits child labor; the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights Act, 2005, supports child rights.

Correlation between Rights and Duties

• Rights and duties coexist in a constitutional democracy.
• Citizens' rights depend on others fulfilling their duties.
• Example: The right to life implies protection provided by others.

Right to Equality

• Equality is maintained by ending formal inequalities and privileges.
• Absence of restraint or competition doesn't guarantee equality.
• Absence of ideology alone doesn't ensure equality.

Sub-Theme: Rights of Citizen

• Rights are claimed against the state; they're not privileges.
• The philosophy of rights aims to prevent exploitation by the state.
• Only military and academic distinctions have titular privileges.

Qualification of Lok Sabha Nominees must be Indian citizens, aged at least 25, and registered electors in a parliamentary constituency.

People’s Representative/Speaker and Deputy Speaker Statement 1: Incorrect. FPTP allows winning with a simple majority. Statement 2: Incorrect. Speaker and Deputy Speaker are elected by the house.

Devices of Parliamentary Proceedings Adjournment Motion highlights urgent public matters, Question Hour facilitates inquiries, and Supplementary Questions allow further interrogation.

Legislative Procedure of Parliament Private Member bills aren't introduced by ministers and reflect opposition views. Very few have passed since independence.

Universal Adult Franchise Constitutional Right:

• Every adult Indian citizen has the right to vote.
• Guaranteed by the Constitution and the Representation of People’s Act, 1951.
• Article 326 ensures voting rights for individuals above 18.
• Section 62 of the RoPA grants voting rights to every person on the electoral roll.

Forms of Government Parliamentary System:

• Also known as Cabinet Government.
• Based on collective responsibility between the executive and legislative.
• Features include nominal and real executives, majority party rule, collective responsibility, and dissolution of the lower House.

Forms of Government

• India adopts a federal system with a tilt towards unitary.
• Features include two governments, division of powers, written constitution, supremacy of constitution, and independent judiciary.
• States cannot secede from the union.

Forms of Government Parliamentary System:

• Also known as Cabinet Government.
• Features collective responsibility, majority party rule, and membership of ministers in the legislature.
• Prime Minister or Chief Minister leads the government.

Election Commission of India Statements 2 and 3: ECI's main function is scheduling elections and granting party recognition.

IP Related Issues:

• India's National Intellectual Property Rights Policy supports innovation and adheres to international agreements.
• The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion coordinates India's IPR implementation.

Economic Reform:

• Agriculture's GDP contribution declined post-reform.
• India became a major exporter in IT, auto parts, textiles, and engineering goods.
• Foreign investments surged with liberalization.
• Open economy policies boosted FDI and forex reserves.

Government Policies (NAM):

• NAM's role in creating a unified national market.
• Benefits of e-NAM for farmers, traders, and buyers.

Indirect Taxes/GST GST unifies India's tax system but doesn't directly impact CAD or ensure economic growth.

Inflation Targeting/Banking and NBFCs

• Statement 1: Correct; MPC sets policy interest rate to meet inflation targets.
• Statements 2 & 3: Incorrect; Membership composition of MPC differs from stated.

The aim of the Unnat Bharat Abhiyan programme is to connect institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. This initiative promotes collaboration between academic institutions and rural communities to identify and solve local development issues, fostering sustainable and inclusive growth. Correct Option: (b) Connecting institutions of higher education with local communities to address development challenges through appropriate technologies. Reference: Ministry of Education, Government of India. (n.d.). Unnat Bharat Abhiyan.

The purpose of the 'Vidyanjali Yojana' is to increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. It aims to involve volunteers, including retired teachers, professionals, and community members, to contribute their time and expertise to support the learning activities in government schools. The correct option is : (b) 2 only Reference: Ministry of Human Resource Development, Government of India. (2016). Vidyanjali - (School Volunteer Programme). Retrieved from

The development of Chabahar Port by India holds strategic significance primarily due to option (c): India will not depend on Pakistan for access to Afghanistan and Central Asia. Explanation: Chabahar Port, located in Iran, provides India with a crucial alternative route to access Afghanistan and Central Asia, bypassing Pakistan. This circumvents the need for relying solely on Pakistan's goodwill and cooperation for trade and connectivity with these regions. It enhances India's geopolitical presence and economic interests in the region, facilitating trade and investment opportunities while reducing dependence on vulnerable routes controlled by Pakistan. Additionally, Chabahar Port serves as a key component of India's broader strategy to counterbalance China's growing influence in the Indian Ocean region through initiatives like the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC). Reference: Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India. "India-Iran-Afghanistan Trilateral Agreement on Chabahar Port." Accessed on January 10, 2022. [

The "Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)" is a term commonly associated with negotiations between India and the European Union (EU). The BTIA aims to enhance trade and investment relations between India and the EU by addressing various issues related to market access, tariffs, intellectual property rights, and regulatory barriers. Reference:

• "India-EU Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)." Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India. [

1. India has indeed ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO, which aims to expedite the movement, release, and clearance of goods across borders.
2. The TFA is indeed a part of the WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013, which was adopted at the WTO Ministerial Conference held in Bali, Indonesia.
3. However, the TFA did not come into force in January 2016. It officially came into force on February 22, 2017, after the required two-thirds of WTO members ratified the agreement.

The correct option is (b) 3 only. Explanation: 1. The Soil Health Card Scheme does not aim at expanding the cultivable area under irrigation. Its primary focus is on assessing and improving soil health rather than increasing irrigated land. 2. While the scheme provides valuable information about soil quality to farmers, it is not directly related to enabling banks to assess loan quantum based on soil quality. The scheme's main purpose is to empower farmers with knowledge about their soil's health to make informed decisions about fertilization and crop selection. 3. Checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands is one of the primary objectives of the Soil Health Card Scheme. By providing farmers with information about their soil's nutrient levels, the scheme helps prevent excessive fertilizer application, thus promoting sustainable agriculture practices. Reference: Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, Government of India. (n.d.). Soil Health Card Scheme. Retrieved from

The correct option is (c) Both 1 and 2. Explanation: 1. The first statement is correct. The inaugural Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) was indeed held in India in 2015, and it was chaired by the Indian Navy. 2. The second statement is also correct. IONS is indeed a voluntary initiative aimed at enhancing maritime cooperation among the navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. Reference: Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS) is an initiative aimed at enhancing maritime cooperation among the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region. The inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy. The primary objective of IONS is to provide a forum for navies of the Indian Ocean Region to exchange information, discuss common maritime issues, and promote regional maritime security cooperation. Source: Indian Navy Official Website -

The term 'Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)' refers to a scheme introduced by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) aimed at addressing the issue of stressed assets in the banking sector, particularly for large corporate borrowers facing genuine financial difficulties. Under this scheme, banks can restructure the financial liabilities of such corporate entities by bifurcating their debt into sustainable and unsustainable portions, thereby providing them with a more sustainable financial structure to help them overcome their financial challenges and revive their operations. The correct option is : (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. Reference: RBI Circular on Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) -

Both statements are incorrect. Explanation: 1. National Career Service (NCS) is not an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training. Instead, it is an initiative of the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. 2. The purpose of National Career Service is not specifically focused on improving employment opportunities for uneducated youth. Instead, it aims to provide a wide range of career-related services to all job seekers, including career counseling, job matching, skill development, and vocational training. Reference: Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India:

The National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF) is a framework that organizes qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills, and aptitude. Explanation:

1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire certification for competency not only through formal learning but also through informal and non-formal learning. NSQF recognizes the importance of various learning pathways, including formal education, vocational training, and on-the-job experience, in acquiring skills and competencies.
2. One of the key objectives of NSQF is to facilitate mobility between vocational education and general education. By aligning qualifications across different sectors and levels, NSQF aims to enable learners to transition seamlessly between vocational and general education pathways, thereby enhancing their employability and career prospects.

The correct option is (b) 1 and 3 only. Explanation: 1. UN-Habitat has indeed been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. This aligns with its mission to support urban development efforts worldwide. 2. However, UN-Habitat's partners are not limited to governments or local urban authorities only. It collaborates with a wide range of stakeholders, including governments, local authorities, civil society organizations, academia, and the private sector, to achieve its goals of sustainable urbanization. 3. UN-Habitat does contribute to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation. This is in line with the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), particularly Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation) and Goal 11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities). Reference: United Nations Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat). (n.d.). About Us. Retrieved from United Nations General Assembly. (2016). New Urban Agenda. Retrieved from

The Global Infrastructure Facility (GIF) is a partnership between governments, multilateral development banks, and other public and private sector entities. It aims to support the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure projects, particularly through Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs), to mobilize private sector and institutional investor capital for infrastructure development. Among the given options: (a) This option refers to an ASEAN initiative and is not related to the Global Infrastructure Facility. (b) This option accurately describes the purpose and function of the Global Infrastructure Facility, emphasizing its role in facilitating infrastructure PPPs. (c) This option mentions collaboration among major banks and the OECD but does not specifically address the purpose of the Global Infrastructure Facility. (d) This option describes a UNCTAD-funded initiative but does not match the function of the Global Infrastructure Facility. Therefore, the correct option is: (b) World Bank collaboration that facilitates the preparation and structuring of complex infrastructure Public-Private Partnerships (PPPs) to enable mobilization of private sector and institutional investor capital. Reference: The World Bank. "Global Infrastructure Facility." [

Explanation: 1. National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is indeed associated with NITI Aayog. However, it is not an organ of NITI Aayog but rather an investment vehicle set up by the Government of India to fund commercially viable greenfield, brownfield, and stalled infrastructure projects. Reference: Official Website of NIIF 2. NIIF does not have a corpus of Rs. 4,00,000 crore at present. The actual corpus of NIIF may vary, but it is structured as a fund of funds with contributions from various sources including the Government of India, international investors, and domestic institutional investors. Reference: National Infrastructure and Investment Fund - Wikipedia

The purpose of setting up Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India is to cater to the financial needs of underserved and unserved sections of the population, particularly in rural and remote areas. These banks aim to provide credit and other financial services to small businesses, micro and small industries, small and marginal farmers, micro and small enterprises (MSEs), and other individuals who have limited access to formal banking channels.

1. To supply credit to small business units: Small Finance Banks focus on extending credit facilities to small business units, including micro, small, and medium enterprises (MSMEs). By providing financial support to these businesses, SFBs contribute to their growth and development.
2. To supply credit to small and marginal farmers: Small Finance Banks aim to address the financial needs of small and marginal farmers by offering them credit facilities for agricultural activities, purchasing inputs, machinery, and other farming-related expenses.
3. To encourage young entrepreneurs to set up businesses particularly in rural areas: SFBs play a crucial role in promoting entrepreneurship among the youth, especially in rural areas, by providing them with access to financial resources, guidance, and support. By encouraging entrepreneurship, SFBs contribute to job creation, economic development, and poverty alleviation in rural communities.

The correct option is (c) Both 1 and 2. Explanation: 1. Quality Council of India (QCI) was indeed established jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry. It was set up in 1997 as a non-profit organization to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality standards. 2. The Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister of India, but the appointment is based on the recommendations made by the industry to the Government. Reference: Official website of Quality Council of India (QCI):

Explanation: 1. The first statement is correct. The first Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD) was indeed held in India in 2006. The theme of this conference was 'Emerging Urban Forms — Policy Responses and Governance Structure'. Reference: Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. (n.d.). APMCHUD. 2. The second statement is incorrect. While India has hosted APMCHUD conferences, it does not host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC, and ASEAN. Reference: Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development. (n.d.). APMCHUD History.

The "Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) Scheme" is a program aimed at certifying the skills acquired by individuals through non-formal or informal channels, such as work experience, self-learning, or traditional apprenticeships. It provides a pathway for these individuals to obtain formal recognition for their skills and competencies without undergoing full formal training programs. Among the given options, option (d) "Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme" aligns most closely with the concept of the Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme. This is because the National Skill Development Programme focuses on providing skill training to individuals, and the RPL Scheme would complement it by acknowledging and certifying the skills acquired by trainees through this program. By choosing option (d), you're indicating that the RPL Scheme is related to certifying the skills acquired under the National Skill Development Programme, which accurately reflects the purpose and implementation of the scheme. Reference:

• Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, Government of India. (n.d.). Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL). Retrieved from

The "Global Gender Gap Index" ranking to countries around the world is provided by the World Economic Forum. This index assesses gender-based disparities across various dimensions including economic participation, educational attainment, health outcomes, and political empowerment. Explanation: The Global Gender Gap Index, published annually by the World Economic Forum, benchmarks the gender gap between women and men in four key areas: Economic Participation and Opportunity, Educational Attainment, Health and Survival, and Political Empowerment. It provides valuable insights into the progress made towards gender equality and highlights areas that require attention and improvement. Therefore, the correct option is: (a) World Economic Forum Reference: World Economic Forum. (2022). The Global Gender Gap Report. Retrieved from:

The term 'Digital Single Market Strategy' refers to an initiative of the European Union (EU) aimed at creating a unified digital market across its member states. It involves measures to remove regulatory barriers and enable seamless online activities such as e-commerce, digital services, and data sharing. The strategy aims to foster innovation, competitiveness, and growth in the digital economy by ensuring that individuals and businesses can access and operate in the digital space under consistent rules and conditions. Reference: European Commission. (n.d.). Digital Single Market. Retrieved from

The correct option is (a) 1 only. Explanation: The statement "The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes" is correct. BIS certification is indeed mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes sold in India to ensure their quality and safety standards. The statement "AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO)" is incorrect. AGMARK is not issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO). AGMARK is a certification mark issued by the Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) in India to certify the quality of agricultural products.

The objectives of the 'National Nutrition Mission' aim to address various aspects of malnutrition and promote healthier dietary practices. Here's a breakdown of each objective: Creating awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers: This objective focuses on educating and informing pregnant women and lactating mothers about the importance of proper nutrition during pregnancy and breastfeeding to ensure the health and well-being of both the mother and the child. Reducing the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls, and women: Anaemia, caused by iron deficiency, is a significant health concern, particularly among young children, adolescent girls, and women. This objective aims to implement interventions to prevent and reduce anaemia by promoting iron-rich foods and supplementation programs. Promoting the consumption of millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice: This objective emphasizes the importance of diversifying diets and promoting the consumption of nutrient-rich foods like millets, coarse cereals, and unpolished rice, which are often more nutritious compared to refined grains like polished rice. Promoting the consumption of poultry eggs: Poultry eggs are a rich source of protein and essential nutrients, and promoting their consumption can contribute to improving the nutritional status, especially among vulnerable groups. Based on these objectives, the correct option would be: [Option] : (c) 1, 2, and 4 only

The term 'Domestic Content Requirement' refers to regulations or policies that require a certain percentage of goods or components used in a particular industry to be produced domestically rather than imported. This measure aims to promote domestic manufacturing, create jobs, and stimulate economic growth within the country. The correct option is (a) Developing solar power production in our country. Reference: "Domestic Content Requirements in Solar and Wind Energy Generation in India: History, Evolution, and Impact" by Biswajit Dhar and K. J. Joseph, available at: "India’s Domestic Content Requirement for Solar Power: History and Analysis of an Emerging Trade Issue" by Michael Renner and Shailendra Yashwant, available at:

The correct option is: (d) All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004 Explanation: The National Pension System (NPS) is a voluntary, defined contribution retirement savings scheme available to all citizens of India, including both private and public sector employees, as well as self-employed individuals and Non-Resident Indians (NRIs). However, as per the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) regulations, mandatory enrollment in the NPS is applicable to certain categories of employees, including all Central Government employees (including Armed Forces personnel) who joined the services on or after 1st April, 2004.

Tax Revenue/Fiscal Deficit Tax revenues and fiscal deficit management impact economic stability, with recent changes in tax rates and deficit levels.