UPSC CSE Prelims 2018 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Foreign Travelers Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, a renowned 17th-century French gem trader and traveller, made six expeditions to Persia and India, covering 60,000 leagues. He gained fame for discovering or acquiring the Tavernier Blue diamond during his travels.

The correct option is (d) Cotton, silk, saltpetre, and opium. During the middle of the 18th century, the English East India Company primarily exported commodities like cotton, silk, saltpetre, and opium from Bengal. These goods were in high demand in Europe and other parts of Asia, making them lucrative for trade.

The correct option is: (a) B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, and K.C. George. The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) was indeed established in 1948, and its founders were B. Krishna Pillai, E.M.S. Namboodiripad, and K.C. George. The HMS played a significant role in advocating for the rights of workers in India, particularly in the context of labor laws and industrial relations.

The Subsidiary Alliance, enforced by Wellesley from 1798 to 1805, aimed to establish British dominance over Indian States, ensuring their military and political subservience to the British East India Company. Indian states allied with the British maintained British troops at their frontiers and paid for their upkeep. They were required to host British officials at their courts and couldn't employ Europeans or contact enemies without British permission. Maintenance costs were high, leading rulers to cede territory if unable to pay. Almost all Indian states, including Awadh, entered into subsidiary alliances, obligating them to accept British dominance. This was part of Lord Wellesley's policy to control princely states, although securing a fixed income for the company was not the primary objective.

Tribal Movement Both measures resulted from the Santhal Uprising: Santhal Uprising:

• Santhals lived in the Damani-Koh area, translating 'hool' as uprising in Santhali.
• Rajmahal Hills Santhals were resentful of oppression by revenue officials, police, moneylenders, and landlords, called "outsiders" or diku.
• In 1854, led by Sido and Kanhu, Santhals rebelled, ending Company control and declaring independence.
• Extensive military action ensued until 1856. Sido died in 1855, and Kanhu was arrested in 1866.
• Santhal Parganas district was created to pacify them, separating it for their governance.
• Laws prohibited Santhals from transferring land to non-Santhals, safeguarding tribal lands from outsiders.

Commercialization of Indian Agriculture British rule in 19th-century India led to the commercialization of agriculture by introducing cash crops such as opium and indigo. Colonial rule negatively impacted Indian industries and handicrafts, while the surge in imported finished goods threatened indigenous factories. Economically, British rule spurred the growth of commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds, tobacco, and sugarcane, supplying raw materials for British industries. Urban population growth remained stagnant during 19th-century British India.

Colonial Trade The East India Company, initially established in Britain for trade with the East Indies in Southeast Asia, primarily engaged in commerce with the Indian subcontinent and China. Key traded goods included cotton, silk, tea, opium, and saltpetre (potassium nitrate).

Administrative Reforms post 1857 According to the Government of India Act of 1935, the Governor-General had the authority to authorize either the Federal or Provincial Legislature to enact laws regarding any residual matters. The Act divided powers between the Centre and provinces into three lists: Federal List (59 items for Centre), Provincial List (54 items for provinces), and Concurrent List (36 items for both). Residual powers were not vested in either legislature but the Governor-General could authorize either to legislate on residual matters. Dyarchy in provinces was abolished and replaced with provincial autonomy, while dyarchy remained at the Centre. Bicameralism was introduced in six out of eleven provinces. The Act expanded communal representation to include depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labor. The Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858, was abolished.

Important Personalities Lala Lajpat Rai:

• Popularly known as Punjab Kesari. A member of the Lal Bal Pal trio.
• The INC’s president at the 1920 Calcutta Special Session.
• In 1921, he founded Servants of the People Society, a non-profit welfare organisation, in Lahore.
• Lajpat Rai travelled to the US in 1917.
• Led a non-violent march in protest to the Simon Commission. Brutally assaulted by the police and later succumbed to his injuries.
• Along with founding Arya Gazette as its editor, authored several works.

Literary Work during Indian National Movement Option (a) is incorrect: The Arya samaj was founded by the Dayananda Saraswati on 7 April 1875. Option (b) is correct: Neel Darpan is a Bengali play, written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. Option (c) is incorrect: Anandamath the famous Bengali novel written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in 1882. Option (d) is incorrect: Satyendranath Tagore was selected for Indian Civil Service in June 1863. He was the first Indian to succeed in the ICS Exam in 1863.

Reforms in Education during the British Time Wood’s Dispatch (1854):

• Magna Carta of English Education in India.
• Government to take up responsibility for Education of masses.
• Hierarchy of Educational Institutions
• Emphasis on Female, Vocational Education, and teachers’ training.
• Secular Education in Government Institutions.
• Grants-in-aid to encourage private education.
• Recommended English as Medium of Instruction in higher studies and vernaculars in school level.
• Universities with affiliations in presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras. Statement 1 and 2 are correct: Grants-in-aid to encourage private education and affiliating universities in presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay, and Madras were recommended in Wood’s Despatch. Statement 3 is incorrect: Wood's Dispatch recommended English as Medium of Instruction in higher studies and vernaculars in school level.

Reforms in Education during the British Time Statement 1 is correct: Charter Act of 1813 permitted Christian missionaries to propagate English and preach their religion. Statement 2 is correct: Lord Macaulay, as president of General Committee of Public Instruction, stressed the implementation of English language as medium of instruction. Statement 3 is correct: One faction of Anglicists favored English language as the medium, while the other favored Indian languages (vernaculars). Charter Act of 1813:

• Supported educated Indians and promoted knowledge of contemporary sciences.
• Required yearly approval of one lakh rupees for educational purposes.
• Gave Christian missionaries right to spread English language and practice religion. General Committee on Public Instruction (1823):
• Established in 1823 to allocate one lakh rupees for educational purposes.
• Could not decide medium of instruction due to lack of majority.
• Had five supporters of English language (Anglicists) and five supporters of oriental languages (Classicists).
• Macaulay's minute of February 2, 1835, emphasized English language as ideal for instruction.

Reforms in Education during the British Time Statement 1 is incorrect: Sanskrit College was established by Jonathan Duncan in Benaras in 1791 for study of Hindu law and philosophy. Statement 2 is correct: Calcutta Madrasah was established by Warren Hastings in 1781 for study of Muslim law and related subjects. Statement 3 is incorrect: Fort William College was set up by Lord Richard Wellesley in 1800 for training civil servants of Company in languages and customs of Indians (closed in 1802).

Home Rule League Movement

• The Home Rule League Movement (1916) aimed for self-rule through political discussion and education.
• Leaders included Motilal Nehru, Lala Lajpat Rai, Jawaharlal Nehru, and others.
• Anglo-Indians, Muslims, and non-Brahmins from the south were not fully supportive.

Phase of Mahatma Gandhi Champaran Satyagraha (1917):

• Gandhi's initial satyagraha, Champaran Satyagraha, protested British-forced indigo cultivation by Bihar farmers.
• Tenants, bound to grow indigo on 3/20th part of land (Tinkathia System), faced exploitative rents and fees.
• Rajkumar Shukla invited Gandhi to Champaran, where he initiated a probe despite legal threats.
• Despite charges, Gandhi persisted, leading to withdrawal of the case by Bihar's Lieutenant Governor.
• The protest marked the onset of Gandhian era, solidifying his role in India's resistance to British rule.
• Associated leaders: Rajendra Prasad, Mazhar-ul-Haq, Mahadeo Desai, Narhari Parekh, J.B. Kripalani, etc.

The correct option is (a) 1 only. Explanation:

1. Puthukkuli shawls - Heritage of Tamil Nadu: Puthukkuli shawls are indeed a heritage of Tamil Nadu. They are traditional handwoven shawls made in the Puthukkuli village of Tamil Nadu, known for their intricate designs and craftsmanship.
2. Sujni embroidery - Maharashtra: Sujni embroidery is not from Maharashtra. It is a traditional form of embroidery practiced in the state of Bihar, particularly in the regions of Mithila and Bhojpur.
3. Uppada Jamdani saris - Karnataka: Uppada Jamdani saris are not from Karnataka. They originate from the town of Uppada in the state of Andhra Pradesh. They are known for their unique weaving technique and are considered a part of Andhra Pradesh's heritage. Reference:

• Puthukuli Shawls: "Puthukuli Shawls", Tamil Nadu Handicrafts Development Corporation Limited ()
• Sujni Embroidery: "Sujni - The Quilted Embroidery of Bihar", India Crafts ()
• Uppada Jamdani Sarees: "Uppada Sarees", Ministry of Textiles, Government of India ()

Indian Painting Schools Option (d): Bani Thani painting is from Kishangarh school.

• Painted by Nihal Chand.
• Bani Thani was a singer and poetess in Raja Samant Singh's court (1748-1764).
• Often compared to the beauty of Mona Lisa.

Cultural Tradition of India Tyagaraja, born in Thanjavur in 1767, is revered for his profound devotion to Lord Rama expressed through soulful music. He composed thousands of devotional songs primarily praising Lord Rama. 1: Incorrect - Tyagaraja's songs predominantly focused on Lord Rama, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu. 2: Correct - Tyagaraja introduced innovative structural variations in musical lines during performances. 3: Incorrect - Annamacharya lived in the 15th century, while Tyagaraja lived in the 18th century. 4: Correct - Annamacharya, a 15th-century Hindu saint, composed Sankeertanas glorifying Lord Venkateswara.

Cultural tradition of India Pair 1 is correct: Chapchar Kut is a spring festival of Mizo people in Mizoram, celebrated in March after completing jhum cultivation. Pair 2 is correct: Khongjom Parba is a traditional musical art of Manipur involving ballad singing accompanied by dholak or drum. Pair 3 is incorrect: Thang-Ta is an ancient Manipuri Martial Art dance developed from the war environment, created by the Meitei, and played an important role in the geopolitical environment of medieval times.

Sthanakvasi:

• Origin: 1653 AD by merchant Lavaji.
• Belief: Rejects idol worship for soul purification and Nirvana.
• Canonical Texts: Acknowledges 32 Svetambara Jain Agamas.

Maitreya:

• Role: Future Buddha, Bodhisattva.
• Belief: To attain enlightenment, teach pure dharma.
• Aliases: Ajit Bodhisattva, Avalokiteshvara.

Medieval Architecture/Islamic Architecture Statement 1: Buland Darwaza, commemorating Akbar's Gujarat victory, stands at Fatehpur Sikri, constructed with red sandstone and adorned with white and black marble. Statement 2: Bada Imambara, erected by Asaf-ud-doula in 1784 at Lucknow, showcases interlocking brickwork, unlike Rumi Darwaza, also in Lucknow, built by Nawab Asaf-ud-doula with bricks coated in lime.

The correct option is (d) Yemen and South Sudan. In both Yemen and South Sudan, millions of people have faced severe famine, acute malnutrition, and starvation due to ongoing wars and ethnic conflicts. In Yemen, a devastating civil war has been raging since 2015, exacerbated by external interventions, leading to widespread hunger and suffering. Similarly, South Sudan has been plagued by civil war and ethnic violence, leading to food insecurity and starvation among its population.

The Aral Sea, once the world's fourth-largest salt lake, has drastically shrunk due to water diversion for agriculture since the 1960s, losing nearly 75% of its original size and depth.

Indian cities' longitudes are Delhi (77.216721°E), Bangalore (77.59450°E), Nagpur (79.0888°E), and Pune (73.8474°E).

Catalonia is in Spain, bordering France and Andorra; Mindanao is in the Philippines; Oromia is a regional state in Ethiopia.

Aleppo (Syria), Kirkuk (Iraq), Mosul (Iraq), and Mazar-i-sharif (Afghanistan) are prominent cities.

Coral Reef Distribution Coral reefs, formed by coral polyps, thrive in tropical waters. They are vital ecosystems with high biodiversity. Examples: Indonesian/Philippines archipelago, Great Barrier Reef, Red Sea, and Caribbean.

Mines and Mineral/Mineral Rules Incorrect statements:

• The role of the central government in mineral concessions auctions is to prescribe terms and conditions, not conduct the auctions.
• Bihar, Rajasthan, and Karnataka have significant gold ore reserves, not just Bihar.
• Hematite and magnetite are important iron ores, found in various states, not just Andhra Pradesh.

Important Lakes of India About Kodaikanal Lake:

• Manmade lake in Tamil Nadu, built in 1863
• Star-shaped, located in Kodaikanal town, surrounded by Palani Hills

Physiography of India Statement 1: Correct, Barren Island Volcano is active and part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands Statement 2: Incorrect, Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea Statement 3: Incorrect, Last eruptions linked to 2018 earthquakes in Sulawesi, Indonesia

Explanation: Statement 1: The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is indeed incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006. This Act recognizes and provides for the rights of forest-dwelling communities, including the protection of critical wildlife habitats. Statement 2: Baigas, a tribal community in India, have indeed been granted Habitat Rights for the first time. This initiative aims to recognize and protect the traditional habitat of indigenous communities like the Baigas. Statement 3: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change does not officially decide and declare Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups. Habitat Rights are primarily recognized and granted under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, and their implementation is overseen by the respective state governments.

Major Environmental Organizations and their mechanism

• Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) coordinates UN efforts for a green economy.
• PAGE includes UN Environment, UNDP, ILO, UNIDO, and UNITAR.
• Correct: PAGE aligns with Sustainable Development Goals.

Major Environmental Organizations

• Climate Neutral Now encourages climate neutrality by reducing and offsetting emissions.
• Correct: The initiative supports the Paris Agreement and SDGs.

Agriculture and Environment Carbon Fertilization:

• It enriches greenhouse atmospheres with carbon dioxide to enhance plant growth.
• It increases photosynthesis rates, water use efficiency, and plant growth, contributing to higher food production and carbon sequestration.

Agriculture and Environment

• Statement 1: Incorrect. Soil water holding capacity is determined by texture and organic matter.
• Statement 2: Incorrect. Sulphur is cycled between soil, plants, and the atmosphere.
• Statement 3: Correct. Salinization, caused by irrigation, is a major issue, affecting soil fertility.

Agriculture and Environment Conservation Agriculture (CA):

• A farming system promoting minimum soil disturbance, permanent soil cover, and plant species diversification.
• Enhances biodiversity and natural biological processes, increasing water and nutrient use efficiency and sustaining crop production. FAO's Principles of Conservation of Agriculture:

1. Minimum mechanical soil disturbance: Low disturbance no-tillage and direct seeding.
2. Permanent soil organic cover: Soil cover categories of 30-60%, >60-90%, and >90%.
3. Species diversification: Crop rotation/association involving at least 3 different crop species.

Sand Mining (Environmental Issues) Consequences of Heavy Sand Mining:

• Pollution of groundwater and lowering of the water table.
• Saline-water intrusion from the nearby sea.
• Increased suspended particles in water, impacting aquatic ecosystems and water users.
• Drop in groundwater table, leaving drinking water wells dry. Sand Mining:
• Sand is extracted from various sources, including open pits, inland dunes, oceans, riverbeds, and beaches.
• Sand mining alters rivers, damages biodiversity, alters sediment budget, worsens water quality, exacerbates water scarcity, threatens coastal communities, and damages public and private property.

Prosopis Juliflora: Invasive species in India.

Pakke Tiger Reserve Option (a) correct: Also known as Pakhui Tiger Reserve, in Arunachal Pradesh, part of Eastern Himalayas Biodiversity Hotspot.

World Biome/Adaptation Option (d) is correct: Desert plants adapt with hard and waxy leaves, tiny leaves, and thorns. Desert Biome:

• Warm and mid-latitude deserts have drought-resistant plants.
• Plants include cacti, thorny bushes, wiry grasses, and dwarf acacias.
• Majority of desert shrubs have lengthy, widely distributed roots.
• Plants have needle-shaped, waxy, or leathery foliage to reduce water loss.
• Grasses and herbs have tough, thick skins on seeds for protection.

Environmental Laws NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL (NGT) ACT, 2010:

• Objective: For effective & expeditious disposal of environmental cases and to reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts.
• Establishes NGT, which has jurisdiction over all civil disputes addressing important environmental issues.
• Provides for Enforcement of legal environmental rights, relief & compensation for damages caused. CENTRAL POLLUTION CONTROL BOARD (CPCB):
• Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act of 1974 authorised the establishment of the CPCB as a statutory body.
• It is entrusted with the powers & functions under the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, 1981, working under the Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEF&CC). Statement 1 is incorrect: Both the NGT and CPCB were established by an Act – NGT Act, 2010 and Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, respectively.

Sustainable Agriculture Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA):

• Inclusive, voluntary, and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA).
• Vision: to improve food security, nutrition, and resilience in the face of climate change.
• Aims to catalyze and help create transformational partnerships to encourage actions reflecting an integrated approach to the three pillars of CSA. Statement 1 is incorrect: The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010.

Plant diseases

• Plant diseases disrupt normal functioning and can spread through various means such as wind, water, and animals.
• Pathogens causing plant diseases can be indirectly transmitted through birds, wind, and soil, affecting agricultural activities.

The Global Positioning System (GPS) consists of satellites transmitting navigational signals, ground stations, and control centers. With 31 satellites orbiting the Earth, GPS provides precise positioning, velocity, and time information globally and in any weather condition. Originally a civil-military program started in 1973, GPS has become vital for global synchronised time, telecommunications, banking, and various other applications.

The Internet of Things (IoT) connects devices to the Internet, facilitating data exchange and interaction. Virtual private networks (VPNs) encrypt connections for secure data transmission, commonly used for remote work. Internet Protocol (IP) addresses and routes data packets between networks, while the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) enables efficient data routing across the Internet, exploring available paths and selecting the best route.

3D printing, or additive manufacturing, creates three-dimensional objects layer-by-layer from computer-designed models, with applications in various industries including automotive, medical, and electronics.

Statement 1 is correct. India indeed ranks among the top countries in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units. Statement 2 is incorrect. Solar power tariffs in India are not solely determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India (SECI); they are determined through competitive bidding processes conducted by agencies like SECI and state discoms. So, the correct option is (a) 1 only. Reference:

1. "India becomes world's third-largest solar power market" - Source: The Economic Times, August 24, 2018.
2. "Solar tariffs: Govt plans to set up 14-MW solar power units in 300 villages" - Source: The Financial Express, February 9, 2018.

The correct pair is: Blockchain technology - Digital/Cryptocurrency Explanation:

1. Bellell experiment: This term is not commonly associated with artificial intelligence. It appears to be a fabricated term or a misspelling. There is no credible reference or information available on the "Bellell experiment" in the context of AI.
2. Blockchain technology: This term is correctly matched with digital/cryptocurrency. Blockchain technology is the underlying technology behind cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin. It's widely discussed in the context of digital transactions, decentralized finance, and cybersecurity.
3. CRISPR-Cas9: This gene-editing technology is not associated with particle physics. It is primarily linked to biotechnology and genetic engineering, particularly in fields like medicine and agriculture. Reference:

• For the correct pairing of Blockchain technology with Digital/Cryptocurrency, you can refer to various sources such as academic papers, industry reports, and reputable news outlets covering developments in cryptocurrency and blockchain technology. For example, "Blockchain Technology Overview" by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST) provides detailed information on the topic.

The correct option is (b) 1 only. Explanation:

1. IRNSS, also known as NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), The constellation consists of 7 satellites. Three of the seven satellites are located in geostationary orbit (GEO) approximately 36,000 km (22,000 mi) above Earth's surface. The remaining four satellites are in inclined geosynchronous orbit (GSO). consists of seven satellites.
2. IRNSS covers the entire Indian region, extending approximately 1,500 km beyond its borders, which statement 2 incorrect.
3. The statement about India having its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019 is incorrect. As of my last update, India had plans to expand its regional navigation system to a global one by launching additional satellites, but it wasn't expected to achieve full global coverage by the middle of 2019. Reference:

• Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) website provides detailed information about the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS) or NavIC: ISRO NavIC

The correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only. Explanation:

1. The Earth's magnetic field has indeed reversed numerous times throughout its history, approximately every few hundred thousand years to several million years. This phenomenon is known as geomagnetic reversal.
2. When the Earth was formed around 4.6 billion years ago, it was initially devoid of oxygen and rich in carbon dioxide. The statement claiming 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide is incorrect.
3. Living organisms, through processes like photosynthesis, significantly modified the early atmosphere of the Earth, leading to the accumulation of oxygen and reduction in carbon dioxide levels.

The terms "WannaCry," "Petya," and "EternalBlue" are indeed related to cyber attacks. These were prominent cyber attacks that occurred in 2017, particularly WannaCry and Petya, which exploited vulnerabilities in computer systems to spread malware and encrypt data, demanding ransom payments for decryption. EternalBlue was the name of the exploit that facilitated the rapid spread of these attacks. These incidents garnered significant media attention due to their widespread impact on businesses and organizations worldwide. The correct option is : (c) Cyber attacks Reference:

• The WannaCry ransomware attack:
• Petya ransomware attack: )
• EternalBlue exploit:

Terminal High Altitude Area Defense (THAAD) is an American anti-missile system designed to intercept and destroy short, medium, and intermediate-range ballistic missiles during their terminal phase of flight. It uses hit-to-kill technology to intercept and destroy incoming missiles. THAAD has been prominently featured in the news due to its deployment in various regions, particularly in response to escalating missile threats, such as those posed by North Korea. The correct option is: (c) An American anti-missile system

The aim of the "Digital India" plan of the Government of India includes:

1. Connecting many villages to the Internet and providing Wi-Fi in schools, public places, and major tourist centers.
2. Establishing a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations to build their large data centers within India's national geographical boundaries. The correct answer is (c) 2 and 3 only. Explanation:

• Option 1 is incorrect because the aim of Digital India is not specifically focused on forming India's own Internet companies like China did.
• Option 2 is correct as it aligns with one of the aims of Digital India, which is to encourage multinational corporations to establish data centers within India.
• Option 3 is also correct as it highlights another aim of Digital India, which is to connect villages to the Internet and provide Wi-Fi access in schools, public places, and tourist centers. Reference: Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology, Government of India. (n.d.). Digital India. Retrieved from

Ratifying the Additional Protocol with the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) in the Indian context implies that civilian nuclear reactors come under IAEA safeguards. This means that the IAEA would have the authority to inspect and monitor these facilities to ensure compliance with international nuclear non-proliferation standards. Option (a) is the correct choice. Reference: "India ratifies Additional Protocol with IAEA" (2018). The Hindu. [

Statement 1 is correct. The BHIM (Bharat Interface for Money) app indeed allows users to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account, making it convenient for peer-to-peer transactions. Statement 2 is incorrect. The BHIM app typically employs two-factor authentication, requiring the user's mobile number and a UPI PIN for transactions. However, a chip-pin debit card typically utilizes four-factor authentication, including the card itself, the chip, the PIN, and sometimes biometric authentication. So, the correct option is (a) 1 only. Reference:

• NPCI (National Payments Corporation of India) provides information on the BHIM app's functionality and features, including its ability to facilitate transfers to UPI-enabled bank accounts. ()
• For chip-pin debit card authentication, standard banking practices include multiple factors such as the card itself, the chip, the PIN, and potentially biometric authentication, as outlined by various banking institutions.

The correct option is (c) Both 1 and 2. Explanation:

1. The statement "It can be integrated into any electronic device" is correct because the open APIs of Aadhaar allow developers to integrate Aadhaar authentication into various electronic devices and platforms, facilitating identity verification processes.
2. The statement "Online authentication using iris is possible" is also correct. Aadhaar's open APIs enable biometric authentication, including iris scanning, for online verification purposes. Reference: This information is based on the official documentation and announcements by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), the governing body responsible for Aadhaar. You can find more details about Aadhaar's open APIs and biometric authentication capabilities on the UIDAI's official website or in government publications related to Aadhaar.

Space Science: All three statements are predictions of Albert Einstein's General Theory of Relativity.

1. Light is affected by gravity: This is a key prediction of General Relativity. It suggests that light traveling near massive objects, such as stars or black holes, will be bent due to the curvature of spacetime caused by the mass of those objects. This phenomenon is known as gravitational lensing.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding: General Relativity predicts that the fabric of spacetime itself can expand or contract, leading to the expansion of the universe. This prediction is supported by various observational evidence, including the redshift of distant galaxies and the cosmic microwave background radiation.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time: General Relativity proposes that matter and energy cause spacetime to curve around them, creating what we perceive as gravity. This idea is encapsulated in Einstein's field equations, which describe how matter and energy influence the curvature of spacetime. So, the correct option is (d) 1, 2, and 3.

Space Technology
ISRO's satellite-launch vehicles include PSLV for Earth resource monitoring and GSLV for communication satellites. GSLV Mk II and Mk III are India's largest launch vehicles, with GSLV Mk III featuring cryogenic technology. PSLV, India's first liquid-fueled launch vehicle, is renowned for its reliability.

The correct chronological sequence of the events mentioned is:(b) 3-2-1-4 Explanation:

1. Air India was nationalized and became the national carrier in 1953. This was a significant event in the history of Indian aviation.
2. The Imperial Bank of India was renamed as the State Bank of India in 1955, marking a milestone in the restructuring of India's banking system.
3. The first democratically elected communist party government was formed in Kerala in 1957, marking a historic moment in Indian politics.
4. Goa became a part of independent India in 1961 after the military action, ending Portuguese colonial rule.

The term "two-state solution" refers to a proposed resolution to the Israeli-Palestinian conflict, advocating for the establishment of two separate states for Israelis and Palestinians, living side by side in peace and security. This solution typically involves the creation of an independent Palestinian state alongside Israel, based on the borders prior to the 1967 Six-Day War, with mutually agreed upon land swaps. The correct option is (b) Israel.

The correct option is (b) 2 only Explanation: statement 1 is not correct: In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Right to Education (RTE) Act actually defers to the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) for setting minimum qualifications for teachers, not the individual State Council of Teacher Education.
2. Statement 2 is correct: The Right to Education Act (RTE) ensures qualified teachers for elementary education (including primary classes). States often achieve this through Teacher Eligibility Tests (TET) conducted following guidelines set by the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE).
3. Statement 3 is incorrect:
   • Over 90% of teacher education institutions in India are private.
   • State governments manage a smaller percentage, though the exact figure isn't readily available.

The "Rule of Law Index" is released by the World Justice Project (WJP). This index provides a comprehensive assessment of the rule of law based on factors such as constraints on government powers, absence of corruption, open government, fundamental rights, order and security, regulatory enforcement, civil justice, and criminal justice. The WJP is an independent, multidisciplinary organization working to advance the rule of law worldwide. Reference: World Justice Project. (n.d.). Rule of Law Index. Retrieved from

The correct option is (a) 1 only. Explanation:

1. Aadhaar card is not a proof of citizenship or domicile. It is an identity card issued by the Government of India based on biometric and demographic data of residents, primarily for the purpose of availing various government subsidies and services.
2. Aadhaar numbers can be deactivated or omitted by the issuing authority under certain circumstances such as duplication, fake identity, or other irregularities. Reference: UIDAI (Unique Identification Authority of India), the governing body for Aadhaar, clarifies that Aadhaar is not a proof of citizenship: UIDAI website

Speaker & Deputy Speaker of Assembly

1. Correct: Speaker vacates office under specific conditions.
2. Incorrect: Speaker vacates office before the Assembly's first post-dissolution meeting.

Election of President: India's President is elected indirectly by an Electoral College comprising elected members of Parliament and state legislatures. MPs and MLAs have varying vote values based on population criteria.

State Emergency/President’s Rule

• The proclamation of President's Rule, also known as 'State Emergency' or 'Constitutional Emergency,' can be declared under Article 356 of the Constitution.
• When President's Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister and parliament passes state bills and budgets.
• Grounds for the declaration of President's Rule include failure of the state government to function according to constitutional provisions, as per Article 356 or failure to comply with directives from the Centre under Article 365.
• The dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly is not necessarily a consequence of the proclamation.
• Fundamental Rights like those under Article 19 remain unaffected during President's Rule.
• During a national emergency declared for reasons of "war or external aggression," Fundamental Rights like those under Article 19 are suspended under Article 358.

Emoluments, Allowances and Privileges of Governor

1. Correct: Governors are protected from criminal proceedings.
2. Correct: Governors' emoluments cannot be diminished during their term.

Key Words in the Preamble Law and Liberty:

• Liberty is protected by law; absence of law means no liberty.
• Negative liberty focuses on non-interference, while positive liberty involves societal conditions enabling individuals to control their lives. Safeguards of Liberty:
• Declaration of rights, independent judiciary, decentralization of powers, separation of powers, and rule of law protect liberty.

Judicial Review

• The Ninth Schedule and Article 31-B protect laws from judicial scrutiny but are subject to judicial review if they violate the basic structure of the Constitution.

Rule of Law

• Rule of Law includes absence of arbitrary power and equality before law.
• Government officials are accountable to the people, not vice versa.

Right to Privacy

• Article 21 protects life and personal liberty; privacy can be restricted only by state action passing legislative tests.

Leader of Opposition Statement 1: Incorrect. CPI was the largest opposition party in the first general election. Statement 2: Correct. The official leader of the opposition gained statutory recognition in 1977. Statement 3: Incorrect. Parties need 10% of the Lok Sabha seats (55 seats) for opposition status.

Parliamentary Committees The Committee on Subordinate Legislation consists of 15 Lok Sabha members appointed by the Speaker, tasked with scrutinizing executive actions within delegated powers.

Money Bill Money Bills exclusively concern financial matters, are introduced in Lok Sabha, and cannot be amended by Rajya Sabha without Lok Sabha approval within 14 days.

IP Related Issues/WTO Geographical indications are protected under TRIPS, regulating international intellectual property rights.

Economic Growth:

• Increase in GNP doesn't always signify broad-based economic progress.
• Per capita GNP may not reflect improvements in non-monetary social indicators.
• Economic development encompasses enhancements in living standards, literacy rates, and healthcare access.
• Development should benefit a wider population beyond just per capita income measures.

Agricultural Commodity Trading:

• India's oilseed production and import dependence.
• Customs duties protect domestic crushing industry.

MSP:

• CACP's role in determining MSP.
• Expansion of MSP coverage to include more crops.

Human Capital

• Gross capital formation is the sum of additions to fixed assets and stock changes.
• Human capital comprises knowledge, skills, and competencies acquired during life, vital for producing goods and services.
• Tangible capital also contributes to gross capital formation.
• Intangible wealth includes skilled population and cultural assets.

Capital Formation

• Capital formation involves increasing a nation's capital stock by creating new capital goods.
• Capital Output Ratio (COR) measures the capital required to produce one unit of output.
• High COR may limit output increase despite capital formation.

Measures of NPA Resolution

• Statement 1: Correct; Capital Adequacy Ratio assesses a bank's capital against risk.
• Statement 2: Incorrect; CAR is set by regulators to prevent excessive leverage, not to stop commercial banks' profit.

Money as Legal Tender

• Legal Tender: Official payment medium recognized by law.

Debt Instrument

• Statements 1 & 2: Incorrect; RBI manages central and state government debts separately.
• Statement 3: Correct; Treasury bills are short-term debt instruments issued at a discount.

Government Policies

• Statement 1: Incorrect; Capital infusion in PSBs fluctuates, not steadily increases.
• Statement 2: Correct; Merging associate banks improves efficiency and risk management.

Opportunity Cost

• Opportunity cost is the benefit missed when choosing one alternative over another.
• It's not zero for public goods like street lights as funds could be spent elsewhere.

Explanation: Statement 1: Incorrect. The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is actually operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Rural Development. Statement 2: Correct. The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) does function as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP. Statement 3: Correct. Sikkim indeed became India’s first fully organic State, achieving this status in 2016.

Under the GST (Goods and Services Tax) regime in India, certain items are exempted from taxation. Let's analyze the given items:

1. Cereal grains hulled: Generally, unprocessed grains are exempted from GST.
2. Chicken eggs cooked: Basic food items like eggs are typically exempted from GST.
3. Fish processed and canned: Processed fish products are usually subject to GST.
4. Newspapers containing advertising material: Newspapers are often exempted from GST. Based on this analysis, the correct option is (c) 1, 2, and 4 only.

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is indeed a flagship scheme, but it falls under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, not the Ministry of Labour and Employment. This addresses the first statement. The second statement is correct; PMKVY does impart training not only in technical skills but also in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial literacy, and digital literacy. Lastly, the third statement is also accurate as one of the primary aims of PMKVY is to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce with the National Skill Qualification Framework (NSQF). Therefore, the correct option is (c) 2 and 3 only.

The correct option is (c) 1 and 3. Explanation: 1. The first statement is incorrect. Under the National Food Security Act, 2013, both below poverty line (BPL) and above poverty line (APL) families are eligible to receive subsidized food grains. Thus, statement 1 is incorrect. 2. The second statement is correct. According to the National Food Security Act, 2013, the eldest woman in a household, aged 18 years or above, is considered the head of the household for the purpose of issuing a ration card. Therefore, statement 2 is correct. 3. The third statement is correct. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter, as per the provisions of the National Food Security Act, 2013. Therefore, statement 3 is correct. Reference: National Food Security Act, 2013 - Section 10, 16, and 18

• Section 10 specifies the entitlements of eligible households.
• Section 16 specifies the eligibility criteria for issuing ration cards.
• Section 18 specifies the entitlements of pregnant women and lactating mothers.

Statement 1 is correct. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 indeed replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, aiming to consolidate and update the laws related to food safety and standards in India. Statement 2 is incorrect. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) operates under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, not under the charge of the Director General of Health Services. It's an autonomous body established under the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006. So, the correct option is (a) 1 only. Reference:

1. Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006:

Statement 1 is correct. The FRBM Review Committee indeed recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general government, with 40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments. This recommendation was made to ensure fiscal discipline and sustainability. Statement 2 is incorrect. As of the latest data available, the Central Government's domestic liabilities were approximately 49% of GDP, while the State Governments' liabilities were around 21% of GDP. This contradicts the statement provided. Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution of India, under Article 293(3), states that a State government cannot raise any loan without the consent of the Central Government if there's still an outstanding part of a loan: Therefore, the correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only.

The correct option is (c) The charge to a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from his customers through the bank’s debit cards. The Merchant Discount Rate (MDR) is a fee charged by banks to merchants for accepting payments from customers through debit cards. It's typically a percentage of the transaction amount and covers the costs associated with processing the transaction, including interchange fees paid to card-issuing banks and network fees. This rate is often a point of contention between merchants, banks, and payment networks. Reference: Reserve Bank of India (2017). "Master Circular - Levy of charges on Electronic Payment Products." [Online]. Available:

The correct option is (b) 2 only. Explanation:

1. The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities was introduced by India as a separate provision in the Finance Act, not as a part of the Income Tax Act.
2. Non-resident entities offering advertisement services in India are not eligible to claim a tax credit in their home country under the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) for the equalization levy, as it is not considered an income tax. Reference: The equalization levy on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities was introduced as a separate provision in the Finance Act. The Finance Act can be referred to for the specific details of the equalization levy provision. Additionally, the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) generally cover income taxes, and the equalization levy is not considered an income tax, so non-resident entities cannot claim a tax credit for it under the DTAA.

The correct option is (a) 1 only. Explanation:

1. The statement "It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies" is correct. Becoming a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) allows a country to access advanced nuclear technologies, materials, and expertise for peaceful nuclear energy purposes. This facilitates the development of their nuclear energy program.
2. However, the statement "It automatically becomes a member of 'The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)'" is incorrect. Membership in the NSG does not automatically confer membership in the NPT. The NPT is a separate treaty aimed at preventing the spread of nuclear weapons, promoting disarmament, and fostering the peaceful use of nuclear energy. Membership in the NPT requires separate adherence and compliance with its provisions. Reference:

• "Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)." Arms Control Association, Updated August 2021,
• "Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)." United Nations Office for Disarmament Affairs,

The correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only. Explanation:

1. Correct : Rajasthan indeed had the highest percentage of agricultural households (around 78.4%) among its rural households, followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8%) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8%).
2. Incorrect : OBCs make up a significant portion, but not a majority, of agricultural households in India according to the NSSO 70th Round data.
3. Correct : In Kerala, a little over 60 percent of agricultural households reported to have received maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities: This statement is correct. As per the NSSO 70th Round report, a significant proportion of agricultural households in Kerala indeed reported receiving the maximum income from non-agricultural sources. Reference: Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India, NSS 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households," 2018.