UPSC CSE Prelims 2019 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Administrative aspect of Gupta Age The correct answer is Option (a): During the Gupta period, forced labor (vishti) became a source of income for the state and was also seen as a form of taxation on the subjects. Vishti was forced labor in lieu of taxes; hence, no weekly wages were entitled. Anyone from the family could be sent as a forced laborer, not particularly the eldest son of the family.

Location of Harappan site

• Option (c): Correct. Sohgaura's discovery of Ashokan inscriptions highlights its historical significance.
• Options (a), (b), (d): Incorrect. These options provide details about other Harappan sites but don't address the question's focus.

Ashoka and Sites of His Inscriptions: Kanaganahalli in Gulbarga, Karnataka, features a sculpture depicting King Ashoka along with his queen and attendants. It highlights his mention as "Ranyo Ashoka" (King Ashoka). The site, near Sannati, reveals a significant Buddhist presence with remains of stupas, sculptures, and artifacts.

Mughal Revenue System Zamindars collected revenue and maintained law and order locally. Jagirdars, appointed by the king, had no inheritance rights over land but enjoyed revenue privileges. Additional info: Zamindars managed local judicial and policing tasks. Jagirs could be transferred and seized.

Art and Culture during the Mughals Tansen, given the title by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior, became a court musician under Raja Ram Chandra of Bandavagarh. Acknowledging Tansen's talent, Akbar appointed him one of the Navaratnas and bestowed upon him the name "Mian." Tansen composed various dhrupads, including those dedicated to Rama, Parvati, Shiva, and Ganesha.

Art and Culture during the Mughals Emperor Jahangir's reign saw a shift from illustrated manuscripts to albums and individual portraits in Mughal painting. The Mughal school of painting flourished with increased charm and elegance during Jahangir's rule. Animal fable books like Ayar-i-Danish and Anwar-i-sunavli were produced with illustrations during this period.

Medieval Terminology or keyword/Medieval Administration Statement 1 is correct: In the land revenue system of the Delhi Sultanate, the central government appointed amil to collect revenues in each subdivision called shiq. Statement 2 is incorrect: The Iqta system was introduced in the Delhi Sultanate by Iltutmish, not an ancient indigenous institution. Statement 3 is incorrect: The office of Mir Bakshi was established under the Mughal empire, not the Delhi Sultanate.

Bhakti and Sufi Movement Statement 1: Incorrect. Saint Nimbarka lived around the 11th century and believed in total devotion to Krishna and Rama. Statement 2: Incorrect. Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi lived from 1564-1624 AD and was a scholar of Naqsyabandi silsilah, while Kabir lived from 1440-1510 AD and followed Nirguna bhakti.

Columbian Exchange Tobacco, cocoa, and rubber were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced to the ‘Old World’ by European explorers in the late medieval or early modern era. The Columbian Exchange:

• Named after Christopher Columbus, it involved the widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, diseases, and ideas between the Americas, West Africa, and the Old World during the 15th and 16th centuries.
• This exchange, spurred by European colonization and trade following Columbus’s 1492 voyage, also introduced invasive species and communicable diseases to the regions involved.
• Notable transfers included coffee, wheat, cotton, barley, rice, sugarcane, and sugar beet from the Old World to the New World, and avocado, cashew, cocoa bean, potato, maize, and rubber from the New World to the Old World.

Administrative Reforms before 1857 CHARACTERISTICS OF THE CHARTER ACT OF 1813:

• Company’s Indian territories fell under British Government sovereignty.
• Local government gained authority to impose taxes and punish tax evaders.
• It abolished the East India Company's trading monopoly in India.
• Extended the Company's rule for another 20 years but ended its trade monopoly, except for tea, opium, and China trade.
• Missionary travel to India was permitted. PITT’S INDIA ACT OF 1784:
• Extended British Government control over Company affairs and Indian administration.
• Marked the first official use of "British possessions in India" for Company holdings.
• Brought Company activities and Indian administration fully under British Government control. Statements:

1. Correct: The Charter Act of 1813 abolished the East India Company's trade monopoly, except for tea, opium, and China trade.
2. Correct: The Act placed Company territories in India under British Government sovereignty.
3. Incorrect: The British Parliament controlled India's revenue through the Pitt’s India Act of 1784.

Important Organizations Pair 1: On 30 September, 1932, Mahatma Gandhi founded the All India Anti Untouchability League to eliminate untouchability in society. Pair 2: Sahajanand Saraswati was the inaugural President of the All India Kisan Sabha. Pair 3: The self-Respect Movement, initiated by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in Tamil Nadu in 1925, aimed to dismantle the contemporary Hindu social order entirely and establish a new, rational society devoid of caste, religion, and deity.

Important Personalities/Organizations Pair 1: The All India Liberal Federation was established by Surendra Nath Banarjea, with notable leaders including Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri, and M. R. Jayakar; Tej Bahadur Sapru served as president of the Indian National Liberal Federation. Pair 2: K.C. Neogy served as a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, a member of the first Cabinet of independent India, and the chairman of the inaugural Finance Commission of India. Pair 3: P.C. Joshi played a pivotal role in the early communist movement in India, serving as the inaugural general secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935–47.

Statement 1: Gandhi helped abolish indentured labor in the British Empire and condemned it in INC meetings. Statement 2: Gandhi moved people to enlist in WWI to gain the empire's trust. Statement 3: INC was declared illegal for breaking the salt law, but the satyagrahis continued.

Swadeshi Movement Swadeshi and Boycott Movements:

• Protests surged against Bengal's partition, spreading nationwide.
• Boycott Resolution passed at Calcutta Town Hall on August 7, 1905.
• Partition enacted on October 16, 1905.
• New protest methods emerged: processions, meetings, import boycotts.
• Traditional festivals like Tilak’s Ganapati and Shivaji promoted Swadeshi. Statement 1: Emphasis on Self-Reliance (Atma Shakti):
• Focus on village honor, social, and economic revival.
• Establishment of Swadeshi enterprises: textile mills, banks.
• Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company founded by V.O. Chidambaram Pillai in Tuticorin. Statement 2: Swadeshi Program or National Education:
• Bengal National College led by Aurobindo Ghosh, inspired by Tagore’s Shantiniketan.
• National Council of Education (1906) organized vernacular medium education.
• Bengal Institute of Technology provided technical training. Cultural Impact:
• Tagore's "Amar Sonar Bangla," Bharati's "Swadesha Geetham." Corps of Volunteers or ‘Samitis’ fostered political consciousness among masses.

The word "Denisovan" refers to an early human species. Denisovans are an extinct hominin species closely related to Neanderthals. They are known from fossil remains discovered in the Denisova Cave in Siberia, Russia. Denisovans are significant in the study of human evolution as they interbred with modern humans and Neanderthals, leaving traces of their DNA in the genomes of present-day populations, particularly in Asia and Oceania. So, the correct option is : (b) an early human species

Ancient Indian Temple Architecture. Option (d) is correct. The Vijayanagara kingdom emphasized the construction of "Kalyana Mandapas" in its temple architecture.

• Vijayanagara Architecture began in 1336 AD with Harihara and Bukka establishing the empire.
• Prominent features included tall gateways (Raya Gopurams), carved-pillared Kalyana mandapams, Garbhagriha, and Amman shrines.
• Horses were prevalent in pillar engravings.
• "Kalyana Mandapas" were a notable aspect of temple construction.

Buddhism/Protest Religion Option (d) is correct: All three statements are features of Mahayana Buddhism, involving deification of the Buddha, the path of the Bodhisattva, and the use of images and rituals in worship.

• Mahayana Buddhism emerged during the Fourth Buddhist council held at Kashmir during Kanishka's reign.
• Worship of images of Buddha and Bodhisattvas was a distinctive feature.
• Bodhisattvas delayed their passing to heaven to help others attain Buddhahood.

1. Bandarpunch Glacier is correctly matched with Yamuna River.
2. Bara Shigri Glacier is not correctly matched with Chenab River.
3. Milan Glacier is correctly matched with Mandakini River.
4. Siachen Glacier is correctly matched with Nubra River.
5. Zemu Glacier is not correctly matched with Manas River. So, 1, 3, and 4 are correctly matched.

• Maharashtra (3) has the lowest percentage of forest cover among the given states.
• Chhattisgarh (2) has a higher percentage of forest cover compared to Maharashtra.
• Odisha (4) has a higher percentage of forest cover compared to Chhattisgarh.
• Madhya Pradesh (1) has the highest percentage of forest cover among the given states. Therefore, the correct ascending order is Maharashtra (3), Chhattisgarh (2), Odisha (4), and Madhya Pradesh (1).

Pandharpur (Maharashtra), Tiruchirappalli (Tamil Nadu), and Hampi (Karnataka) are famous places, each with its historical significance.

1. Pandharpur is situated on the banks of the Chandrabhaga river, also known as the Bhima river. It is a famous pilgrimage site in Maharashtra.
2. Tiruchirappalli (commonly known as Trichy) is located on the banks of the Kaveri (Cauvery) river in Tamil Nadu.
3. Hampi, the UNESCO World Heritage Site, is situated on the banks of the Tungabhadra river, not the Malaprabha river. So, only pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched.

Adriatic Sea (Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Montenegro, Bosnia, Albania), Black Sea (Turkey, Bulgaria, Ukraine, Russia, Georgia, Romania), and Caspian Sea (Turkmenistan, Azerbaijan, Russia, Iran, Kazakhstan) are significant water bodies in Europe and Asia.

Minor Minerals in India Statement 1 is correct: Sand is classified as a 'minor mineral' under prevailing law. Statement 2 is incorrect: Minerals declared minor by the Central Government are categorized as such. Statement 3 is correct: State Governments can make rules for regulating minor mineral concessions.

Dew Formation:

• Dew does not form on cloudy nights due to the clouds reflecting back Earth's radiation.
• Dew forms when air temperature reaches the dew point, where air becomes saturated with water vapor.

Major Crops Correct statement:

• Rice cultivation area in India was highest among all crops in 2013-14, slightly decreasing in 2015-16. Incorrect statements:
• Jowar cultivation area is less than oilseeds, not more.
• Cotton cultivation area is higher than sugar, not lower.
• Sugarcane cultivation area has not steadily decreased.

Current Affairs Aliyar, Isapur, and Kangsabati are associated with water reservoirs. About Water Reservoirs:

• Aliyar reservoir in Tamil Nadu
• Isapur Dam in Maharashtra
• Kangsabati Reservoir Project provides water to Midnapur, Bankura, and Hooghly districts

Motion of Earth

• Option (a) is correct: Polar areas receive less direct sunlight, leading to shorter days and longer nights, opposite to equatorial regions.
• The Summer Solstice on 21st June marks the longest day in the Northern Hemisphere due to direct sunlight on the Tropic of Cancer.

The correct option is: (b) 2 and 3 only. Explanation:

1. The recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 2018, does grant forest dwellers the right to fell bamboo grown on non-forest areas. However, bamboos grown in forest land, remain to be classified.
2. According to the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act 2006, bamboo is indeed categorized as a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, does allow ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

1. The statement 1 is correct. Under the Ramsar Convention, signed by India in 1982, the government is obligated to protect and conserve designated wetlands, but it does not mandate the protection of all wetlands in India.
2. The statement 2 is correct. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were indeed framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The statement 3 is incorrect. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 primarily focus on the conservation and management of designated wetlands and do not explicitly encompass the drainage areas or catchment regions of these wetlands. Therefore, option (a) 1 and 2 only is the correct choice.

Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversfolia) is gaining attention in our country due to its potential as a sustainable source of textile fiber. The fiber obtained from the stem of Himalayan nettle is known for its strength, durability, and eco-friendliness. It is used in the production of various textile products such as clothing, bags, and accessories. This eco-friendly alternative to synthetic fibers contributes to sustainable fashion practices and promotes environmental conservation.

Geoengineering: Geoengineering methods aim to reduce global warming. Two prominent approaches include increasing stratospheric sulphate aerosols and thinning cirrus clouds. These methods intend to lower global warming and precipitation rates to pre-industrial levels.

Climate Change and Agriculture: Agriculture's share of total greenhouse gas emissions has declined to 14% in 2016. Livestock and nitrogenous fertilizer use are primary emission sources. Air pollution, exacerbated by stubble burning, affects India, notably during winters. The IPCC's Sixth Assessment Report warns of inevitable 1.5°C warming.

Mitigating Vehicular Emissions:

1. Statement 1 is incorrect because while H-CNG does reduce carbon monoxide emissions, its main advantage lies in reducing emissions of carbon dioxide and other pollutants.
2. Statement 2 is correct. H-CNG as fuel indeed reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions, contributing to cleaner air and reduced environmental impact.
3. Statement 3 is correct. Hydrogen can be blended with CNG in proportions up to one-fifth by volume, providing flexibility in fuel composition and potentially enhancing its environmental benefits.
4. Statement 4 is incorrect. While the use of H-CNG may have some cost benefits in terms of reduced emissions and potentially increased fuel efficiency, it does not necessarily make the fuel less expensive than CNG. Additionally, factors such as infrastructure costs and availability of hydrogen can also affect the overall cost. Hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) reduces CO emissions by up to 70% and offers fuel savings of up to 5%. While it's a step toward a hydrogen economy, it doesn't eliminate CO emissions entirely. It's suitable for heavy-duty vehicles with minimal engine modifications.

Pesticides in Agriculture Carbofuran, Methyl Parathion, Phorate, and Triazophos are used as pesticides. Pesticides target various pests, including insects, fungi, and weeds. Anupam Verma Committee Report influenced the proposal to ban 27 pesticides, including carcinogenic, endocrine disruptor, and eco-toxic types.

Waste Management Option (d) is the correct answer: Pyrolysis and Plasma Gasification are associated with Waste-to-energy technologies.

• Pyrolysis decomposes organic matter chemically using heat.
• Organic material is heated in the absence of air, breaking down into gases (syngas).
• Gasification involves partial combustion of organic matter in the presence of limited oxygen, producing producer gas.
• Gases produced by pyrolysis mainly include carbon monoxide, hydrogen, hydrocarbons, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.
• Waste-to-energy systems convert municipal solid waste into synthesis gas (syngas) for power generation.

Water Pollution Option (a) is the correct answer: Microbeads are harmful to marine ecosystems.

• Microbeads are tiny plastic particles used in personal care products, toothpaste, and biomedical research.
• They cause water pollution and environmental hazards for aquatic animals.
• The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) classifies microbeads as "unsafe" for use in cosmetic products.
• NGT directed the Centre to test cosmetic products containing microbeads due to their harmful impact on aquatic life and the environment.

Methane Emission - Methane Hydrate:

• Methane molecules are enclosed in a cage of water molecules to form methane hydrate, a crystalline solid.
• Methane hydrate, frozen in water ice, is trapped in seafloor sediments in large quantities.
• Global warming can trigger methane release from these deposits.
• Sediment below Arctic permafrost has conditions suitable for methane hydrate formation.
• Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere, oxidizing into water and carbon dioxide within a decade or so.

Air Pollution Option (d) is the correct answer: Stubble burning emits all given gases.

• Burning stubble releases harmful pollutants like smoke, particles, and greenhouse gases (CO2, N2O, O3, CH4).
• Effects include pollution, reduced soil fertility, heat penetration, and environmental damage.
• All mentioned gases result from crop/biomass residue burning.

Asiatic lions: Endangered, found only in Gir National Park.

Asian Elephants: Indian subspecies, matriarchal herds, long gestation period.

Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-chinned minivet, White-throated redstart are Birds.

Valley of Flowers National Park Option (d) correct: Established in 1982 in Uttarakhand, renowned for alpine flowers and diverse fauna.

Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve Option (a) correct: Established in 2001, spanning Kerala and Tamil Nadu, added to UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves in 2016.

E-Waste Management Option (c) is the correct answer: Laws to manage e-waste have been in place in India since 2011 under The e-Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, amended in 2016 as E-waste (Management) Rules, 2016 recognizing producers’ liability for recycling and reducing e-waste in the country.

Environmental Policies and Initiatives Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (Campa Act), 2016:

• Objective: To provide an appropriate institutional mechanism to utilize afforestation funds.
• Sets up the Central and State Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management & Planning Authorities (CAMPA).
• Creates a State Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of every state and a National Compensatory Afforestation Fund under the Public Account of India.
• National Fund receives 10% & State Fund gets 90% of funds collected. Statement 1 is correct: As per the Act, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) is set up at both central and state levels for expeditious and transparent utilization of funds released for forest land diverted for non-forest purposes.

Major Environmental Laws ENVIRONMENT (PROTECTION) ACT, 1986:

• Objective: To protect, improve the environment & reduce pollution.
• Enacted aftermath of Bhopal Gas Tragedy (1984).
• Empowers the Government of India for coordination of action by the state, planning and execution of nationwide programmes, authorizing the central government to control & reduce pollution from all sources, laying down environmental quality standards, placing restrictions on the location of industries, etc. Statement 1 is incorrect: Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 doesn’t contain any provision related to public participation.

Solid Waste Management Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016:

• Promote compost use, conversion of waste into energy, and revision of parameters for landfills location and capacity.
• Replaced the Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules, 2000, applicable beyond municipal areas.
• Emphasizes waste segregation at source, manufacturer responsibility for packaging and sanitary waste disposal, and user fees for collection, processing, and disposal from the bulk generator.
• Advises processing, treatment, and disposal of biodegradable waste through composting or bio-methanation within the premises and residual waste disposal by waste collectors or agencies directed by the local authority.

Genetics/DNA

• Incorrect: Combining DNA fragments from different species does not create functional chromosomes.
• Correct: Lab-created functioning DNA fragments exist; the first synthetic DNA molecule was announced in 2007 by Japanese researchers.
• Correct: Animal DNA can reproduce outside living cells using Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) technology.
• Correct: Petri dishes in labs induce cell division in isolated plant and animal cells; plant cells, being totipotent, can develop into mature plants through mitosis in sterile conditions.

Genetics/Biotechnology

• Correct: RNA interference (RNAi) offers a natural mechanism for gene silencing, with potential applications in various fields.
• Correct: RNAi shows promise in inhibiting tumor growth by targeting cancer-related genes.
• Incorrect: RNAi cannot be utilized for hormone replacement therapies.
• Correct: "Virus-induced gene silencing" experiments demonstrate the suppression of targeted genes in infected plants, offering resistance to viral pathogens in crops.

Multi-Drug Resistance Antibiotic misuse and overuse contribute to rising antimicrobial resistance (AMR), particularly in low- and middle-income countries (LMICs). Improper antibiotic use, especially fixed-dose combinations (FDCs) and in livestock farming, increases the spread of multidrug-resistant (MDR) bacteria, exacerbating treatment challenges and prolonging infections. Genetic predisposition is not a significant factor in antibiotic resistance.

Gene editing

• CRISPR-Cas9, a gene editing tool, utilizes the Cas9 enzyme and single-guide RNA (sgRNA) to cut and bind DNA, respectively.
• CRISPR Cas9 technology allows precise alteration of DNA in various genomes, offering potential for rapid genome editing.

Vaccines and drugs

• Hepatitis B vaccine is crucial for prevention as there is no Hepatitis C cure.
• HIV, Hepatitis B, and C can spread through various bodily fluids and contact with infected individuals.
• Hepatitis B and C, more widespread than HIV, pose significant health risks and lack curative treatment.

Communication Technology Voice over LTE (VoLTE) allows voice calls over LTE networks, ensuring simultaneous data and voice usage. It utilizes Internet Protocol Multimedia Subsystem (IMS) specifications for smooth service operation. VoLTE enables access to 4G data during calls, enhancing user experience.

Digital Technologies Virtual Reality (VR) immerses users in artificially constructed environments through headsets, while Augmented Reality (AR) overlays digital content onto the real world. AR enhances physical surroundings with digital elements, like Pokemon Go, while VR creates entirely immersive virtual environments. AR can be experienced through smartphones or specialized headsets like Google Glass. VR provides a complete sensory experience, transporting users to virtual realms.

Digital signatures provide a secure method of verifying the sender's identity and ensuring the integrity of electronic messages or documents. They are portable, impossible to forge, and prevent the sender from denying the message later if it can be verified that the original signed message arrived. Certificates serve as evidence of a person's identity for specific purposes, similar to how a driver's license identifies someone legally permitted to drive. Digital certificates are distinct from digital signatures; the former is a computer-based record identifying the certifying authority, while the latter is an electronic technique for authenticating documents.

Wearables are electronic devices worn on the body that track real-time information, such as activity levels, sleep data, and fitness metrics. They incorporate motion sensors to capture daily activities and sync with laptops or mobile devices. Fitness trackers, smartwatches, and medical wearables are common examples, equipped with location and position-tracking sensors. Hearables, worn on the ear, include hearing aids that enhance sound for individuals with hearing loss.

Remote sensing technology, including multispectral imaging and normalized difference vegetation index (NDVI), assesses chlorophyll content and tracks the world's food supply using satellite photography. Near-infrared radiation identifies healthy vegetation in agriculture, while radiometers and photometers collect radiation data for atmospheric analysis. Land surface temperature (LST) measurements aid in hydrology and meteorology studies.

India's laws do not allow for patenting of plants, including seeds. However, there have been legal disputes over patent claims on genetically modified crops.

India recently signed the 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with Russia. This agreement aims to enhance cooperation between the two countries in various areas related to nuclear energy, including nuclear power generation, research, and technology development. The correct option is : (b) Russia

The correct option is (c) The European Union. Explanation: The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data protection and privacy law adopted by the European Union (EU) in April 2016. It is designed to strengthen and unify data protection for all individuals within the EU and regulate the export of personal data outside the EU. The GDPR became enforceable on May 25, 2018, replacing the outdated Data Protection Directive. It imposes strict requirements on how organizations handle personal data, including consent, transparency, data minimization, and data subject rights. Compliance with GDPR is mandatory for companies processing personal data of individuals within the EU, regardless of the company's location.

Space Science/Gravitational Waves
Explanation: Scientists observed the merger of giant black holes billions of light years away using gravitational wave detectors like LIGO (Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory). This observation marked the first direct detection of gravitational waves, ripples in spacetime predicted by Albert Einstein's theory of general relativity. It opened up a new era of astronomy where we can observe the universe through gravitational waves, offering a unique way to study black holes, neutron stars, and other extreme phenomena. Reference: Abbott, B. P., et al. (LIGO Scientific Collaboration and Virgo Collaboration). (2016). Observation of Gravitational Waves from a Binary Black Hole Merger. Physical Review Letters, 116(6), 061102.

1. The Maternity Benefit(Amendment) Act, 2017 entitles pregnant women to receive three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave. This ensures that expecting mothers have adequate time to prepare for childbirth and to care for their newborns after delivery.
2. Enterprises with two or more children are not entitled to avail the benefits of the Maternity Benefit Act. This provision encourages smaller families and population control measures. Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

1. The first statement is incorrect. The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is not the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India. It was established in 2006, but there were several other regulatory bodies established before it.
2. The second statement is correct. One of the main tasks of PNGRB is indeed to ensure competitive markets for gas by regulating the transportation and marketing of natural gas.
3. The third statement is incorrect. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB do not go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity. Instead, they are heard by the Appellate Tribunals for Petroleum and Natural Gas. Therefore, option (b) 2 and 3 only is the correct choice.

The first statement is correct. Implementing rules for fixed-term employment can indeed make it easier for firms/companies to lay off workers because fixed-term contracts typically have predetermined end dates, providing employers with greater flexibility in adjusting their workforce as per business needs. The second statement is incorrect. Notice of termination of employment is still necessary even in the case of temporary workmen, as per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018. Therefore, the correct option is : (c) Both 1 and 2

The correct option is: (b) 2, 3 and 4 only Explanation:

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) does not have a specific protocol against the smuggling of migrants by land, sea, and air. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. The UNCAC is indeed the first-ever legally binding global anticorruption instrument, making statement 2 correct.
3. The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) does include a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly, so statement 3 is correct.
4. The United Nations Office of Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC, which makes statement 4 correct.

The correct option is (c) 1, 2, and 4. Explanation:

1. PVTGs do indeed reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is indeed one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. However, the statement about there being 95 officially notified PVTGs in the country so far is incorrect. The number of officially notified PVTGs is not specified, but it is fewer than 95.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are indeed included in the list of PVTGs.

Statement 1 is incorrect. There is no 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India, and there is no provision placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. Statement 2 is correct. The Supreme Court of India did indeed strike down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India, as it was found to be violative of the independence of the judiciary. The 99th Amendment sought to establish the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) to appoint judges to the higher judiciary. However, the Supreme Court declared it unconstitutional, stating that it compromised the independence of the judiciary by giving politicians and the executive a significant say in judicial appointments.

Legislative Powers of Governor

1. Correct: Governors address the state legislature at specific sessions.
2. Incorrect: State legislatures follow their own rules, not Lok Sabha's.

Centre’s Control Over State Legislation Various committees have recommended changes to Governor appointments.

Key Words in the Preamble "Opportunity to develop oneself fully" encapsulates liberty, ensuring individuals can realize their potential. Additional Information:

• "Protection against the tyranny of political rulers" pertains more to fundamental rights.
• "Absence of restraint" is only a partial definition of liberty.
• Liberty is subject to constitutional limitations.

Important and Major Constitutional Amendments Statement 1 is incorrect: The 44th amendment of the Indian Constitution was significant as it removed partially the distortions that were introduced into the Constitution by 42nd Amendment, but it had no proposal of an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. The 39th Amendment of the Constitution of India, enacted on 10 August 1975, placed the election of the President, the Vice President, the Prime Minister, and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha beyond the scrutiny of the Indian courts. It was passed during the Emergency of 1975–1977. Statement 2 is correct: The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act would have established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC). But, in 2015, a five-judge Constitution Bench of SC by 4:1 majority upheld the collegium system and struck down the NJAC as unconstitutional. In this regard, Justice Khehar stated that the proposed NJAC violated the judiciary’s independence because the expectation from the judiciary is to protect the rights of the citizens of this country, and that this expectation can only be ensured by maintaining absolute isolation and independence from the other organs of government.

Final Interpreter and Guardian of the Constitution Statement 1: The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 reduced the power of High Courts in judicial review and restricted their ability to assess the constitutional validity of central laws. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1978 reinstated the original authority of the High Courts. Additionally, High Courts are now recognized as the principal civil courts of original jurisdiction in each state and union territory, granting them the jurisdiction to declare any central law constitutionally invalid. Statement 2: The Constitution of India grants extensive jurisdiction and powers to the Supreme Court. As the final interpreter and guardian of the Constitution, the Supreme Court ensures the protection of fundamental rights. The Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) established the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution, allowing the Supreme Court to nullify any constitutional amendment that contradicts this basic structure.

Right to Privacy The Article of the Indian Constitution that safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice is Article 21. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty, which has been interpreted by the courts to include the right to privacy, dignity, and autonomy. The Supreme Court of India has held that the right to marry a person of one's choice is an integral part of the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21. Therefore, the correct option is : (b) Article 21

Option (d) is correct: Social capital, popularized by Robert Putnam, refers to networks, shared norms, values, and understandings that facilitate cooperation within or among groups. It includes trust, mutual understanding, shared values, and behavior. Examples of incorrect options include literacy rate and physical capital.

Qualification and Disqualification of Parliament Statement 1: Correct. Several offices are exempted from disqualification. Statement 2: Correct. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959, and subsequent amendments expanded exemptions. Statement 3: Incorrect. 'Office of profit' is not formally defined but can disqualify legislators from holding certain positions.

Parliamentary Committees Parliamentary committees investigate issues beyond direct legislative scope. They're either permanent or ad hoc, focusing on financial accountability and regulatory oversight.

Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution Fifth Schedule:

• Deals with administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.
• Governors can make regulations for peace and good government after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council.
• Regulations may restrict land transfer and regulate moneylending business.

Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution Ninth Schedule: The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the Prime ministership of Jawaharlal Nehru. The Ninth Schedule was added by the First Amendment Act of 1951 to protect certain laws from judicial review on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. This was done to shield land reform laws and other socioeconomic legislations from being struck down by courts. It was intended to give the government more flexibility in enacting laws for social welfare without the fear of judicial interference. So, the correct option is: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

Removal of Judges

1. Incorrect: Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, outlines the removal process.
2. Incorrect: The Constitution defines grounds for impeachment.
3. Correct: Judges' impeachment process follows the Judges Enquiry Act.
4. Correct: Impeachment motion needs special majority for passing.

Jurisdiction and Powers of Supreme Court Article 142 enables SC to ensure complete justice. Additional Information:

• ECI administers elections.
• Article 360 allows financial emergency.
• Article 196 permits state legislature laws.

Currency Crisis/BoP Currency crises impact exchange rates and foreign exchange reserves, influenced by trade and remittances.

External Debt Commercial borrowings and currency denominations dominate India's external debt composition.

Purchasing Power PPP compares currency values based on a basket of goods, influencing international trade and investment.

Coal Sector:

• Nationalization occurred in two phases: coking coal mines in 1971-72, non-coking coal mines in 1973.
• Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 enabled auctioning and allotment of coal mines.
• India, with the 5th largest coal reserves globally, imports coal to meet 25% of its demand.

Economic Planning:

• Second Five Year Plan prioritized industrialization.
• Fourth Plan aimed for growth with stability and self-reliance.
• Fifth Plan focused on poverty eradication, financial sector integrated later.

Government Policies (FCI):

• FCI's role in food distribution and pricing.
• CACP recommendations influence MSP.

Agricultural Commodity Trading (Imports):

• Imports' impact on rice, pulses, fruits, and spices.

Land Reforms:

• Aims and outcomes of land reforms in India.
• Impact of commercialization on cash crop cultivation.

Agricultural Commodity Trading:

• India's rice export dominance since 2011.

Poverty

• Poverty is severe lack in well-being, including low incomes and inability to acquire basic necessities.
• Poverty lines differ among states due to price variations.
• In 2011–12, the national poverty line was Rs. 816 per capita per month in rural areas and Rs. 1,000 in urban areas.
• Poverty line is determined by income distribution and consumer spending patterns.

Government Policies/Financial Inclusion

• Option (b): Correct; Service Area Approach enhances rural credit distribution.

PSU Bank/Banking Appointment

• Option (a): Correct; Banks Board Bureau recommends heads for PSBs and assists in strategy and capital plans.

Banking Mechanism

• Bank Assets: Funds invested by banks to earn profits; include loans, investments, and cash reserves.

Foreign Investment

• P-Notes: Derivative instruments allowing overseas investors to buy Indian stocks without registration.

RBI Monetary Policy

• Option (d): Correct; Expansionary policy may lead to foreign capital flight, inflation, and rupee depreciation.

The World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index focuses on various aspects related to the ease of doing business in a country, such as starting a business, dealing with construction permits, getting electricity, registering property, getting credit, protecting minority investors, paying taxes, trading across borders, enforcing contracts, and resolving insolvency. "Maintenance of law order" is not typically considered a sub-index of this index, as it pertains more to law enforcement and public safety rather than specific business-related regulations and procedures.

The purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) signed by Indian banks and financial institutions is to facilitate the faster resolution of stressed assets, particularly those with loans of Rs. 50 crore or more that are under consortium lending. By signing the ICA, the lenders agree to work together in resolving stressed assets, thus expediting the resolution process and minimizing the impact of non-performing assets (NPAs) on the banking sector. The correct option is: (d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 crore or more which are under consortium lending.

Statement 1: "AIIB has more than 80 member nations," is correct. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) indeed has more than 80 member nations, making it a significant multilateral development bank in the region. Statement 2: "India is the largest shareholder in AIIB" is correct. India is indeed the largest shareholder in the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), giving it significant influence within the institution Statement 3: "AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia," is correct. AIIB primarily focuses on infrastructure development in Asia and does not have members from outside the continent. Therefore, the correct answer is option (d)

The correct option is: (b) 1 and 2 only Explanation:

1. The first statement mentions the Reserve Bank of India's recent directives regarding the 'Storage of Payment System Data', requiring payment system providers to store all data related to payment systems within India.
2. The second statement further clarifies that the data must be stored in systems located only within India.
3. However, the third statement about the ownership and operation of the systems by public sector enterprises is not accurate. The directives do not mandate that the systems must be owned and operated specifically by public sector enterprises. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 correctly summarize the directives, while statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, option (b) 1 and 2 only is the correct choice.

The correct option is (d) Following an expansionary monetary policy. Explanation: An expansionary monetary policy involves increasing the money supply, typically through measures like lowering interest rates or purchasing government securities. While this may stimulate economic growth and investment, it can also lead to depreciation of the currency as investors seek higher returns elsewhere due to lower interest rates. Therefore, following an expansionary monetary policy is not the most likely measure to stop the slide of the Indian rupee, as it could exacerbate depreciation pressures. Options (a), (b), and (c) are more likely measures to address currency depreciation:

• (a) Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports helps to improve the trade balance and reduce pressure on the currency.
• (b) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee-denominated Masala Bonds attracts foreign investment in rupee assets, which can help stabilize the currency.
• (c) Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing allows businesses to access foreign currency loans more easily, which can help meet foreign exchange obligations and stabilize the currency.

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is indeed set up under the purview of NITI Aayog, which is the premier policy think tank of the Government of India. AIM aims to promote a culture of innovation and entrepreneurship in the country by supporting startups, incubators, and research and development initiatives. It fosters innovation in various sectors through various programs and initiatives. Therefore, the correct option is: Among the options provided:

• Chalukya dynasty: Known for their contributions to temple architecture, including Kalyaana Mandapas, particularly in regions such as Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
• Chandela dynasty: Renowned for the exquisite temples of Khajuraho, which feature intricately carved sculptures but are not particularly associated with Kalyaana Mandapas.
• Rashtrakuta dynasty: Notable for their patronage of temple construction but not specifically recognized for Kalyaana Mandapas.
• Vijayanagara Empire: Famed for its architectural marvels in Hampi and other regions of South India, including Kalyaana Mandapas as integral parts of temple complexes. Given the significance of Kalyaana Mandapas in temple construction and the association with the Vijayanagara Empire, the correct option would be (d) Vijaynagara.