UPSC CSE Prelims 2021 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Significant features of historical places

• Pair 1: Incorrect. Burzahom boasted a developed bone tool industry, alongside pits and coarse pottery. However, rock-cut shrines were not part of this site.
• Pair 2: Correct. Chandraketugarh, situated in West Bengal's Ganges delta, was renowned for its terracotta art. Its location along the Vidyadhari river facilitated trade.
• Pair 3: Correct. Ganeshwar, located in northeastern Rajasthan, yielded numerous copper artifacts, indicating its role as a center for copper working.

Historical Timeline of Post-Gupta Period: Post-Gupta era saw the rise of regional powers due to Hun invasions, weakening Gupta dominance. Independent kingdoms like Maukharis, Yashodharman of Malwa, and the Thanesar's Pushyabhuti emerged. The Gupta empire contracted, and regional dynasties ruled north India.

Ancient Indian Literature The Correct answer is Option (b): Bhavabhuti was the court poet of King Yashovarman of Kannauj in the 8th century CE. His written plays include Mahavircharitra, Uttamcharitra, and Malatimadhava. Bhavabhuti was an 8th-century scholar of India noted for his plays and poetry, written in Sanskrit. His plays are considered the equal of the works of Kalidasa. Bhavabhuti was born in Padmapura, Vidarbha, in Gondia district, on the Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh border. He is described as an ‘Udumbara Brahmin’. Dayananidhi Paramahansa is known to be his guru. He composed his historical plays at ‘Kalpi’, a place on the banks of the river Yamuna. Hastimalla was a Kannada poet and playwright during the Hoysalas reign. Kshemeshvara was an 11th-century Sanskrit poet from Kashmir in India. He is known for his poetic works and for his contributions to the development of Sanskrit poetry. One of the important works attributed to him is the Dasavatar Charita. Playwrights write scripts for plays to be enacted on a stage.

1. Mitakshara was indeed the civil law system followed by upper castes, while Dayabhaga was primarily followed by lower castes in ancient India.
2. In the Mitakshara system, sons have a right to the property during the lifetime of the father through ancestral property, whereas in the Dayabhaga system, sons inherit the property only after the death of the father.
3. The third statement is incorrect. Both the Mitakshara and Dayabhaga systems deal with property matters related to both male and female members of a family. Therefore, options 1 and 2 are correct.

Location of historical place and its significant/unique feature

• Option (a): Correct. Dholavira, a major urban settlement, boasted an impressive water management system, crucial for its prosperity.
• Options (b), (c), (d): Incorrect. These options provide details about other historical sites but don't address the question's focus.

Mughal Administration The hierarchical order was Pargana > Sarkar > Suba. Sarkars, each led by a chief Shiqdar, were divisions within Subas. Parganas, smaller units within Sarkars, were managed by two Karkuns, one Fotahdar, one Shiqdar, and one Amin or Munsif. Akbar adopted administrative principles from Sher Shah to enhance organization and taxation.

Political History of Medieval India Statement 1 is incorrect: The kingdom of Arcot ruled the eastern part of present-day Tamil Nadu, not the majority of it. Statement 2 is correct: The Wodeyar dynasty declared independence for Mysore following the fall of Vijayanagar in 1565. Statement 3 is incorrect: Ali Muhammad Khan established Rohilakhand following Nadir Shah’s invasion, not due to the breakdown of authority.

Foreign Invaders/Foreign Travellers Statement 1 is correct: Changez Khan arrived in India during the reign of Iltutmish while pursuing the fugitive Khwarezm prince. Statement 2 is incorrect: Taimur invaded India during Nasurud-din Muhammad Shah’s reign, not Muhammad bin Tughlaq's. Statement 3 is incorrect: Vasco da Gama came to India after the reign of Devaraya II.

Foreign Traveler/Vijaynagar Empire According to Fernao Nuniz: "The king of Vijaynagar also has women who wrestle, do accounting, and others who are astrologers and soothsayers."

Administrative Reforms post 1857 Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919:

• Demarcated and separated central and provincial subjects, reducing central control over provinces
• Introduced dyarchy by dividing provincial subjects into transferred and reserved parts
• Established bicameralism and direct elections
• Mandated 3 out of 6 members in the Viceroy’s Executive Council to be Indian
• Recommended limited voting rights for women based on property, tax, or education
• Extended communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans
• Established a public service commission
• Separated provincial budgets from the Central budget Government of India Act, 1935:
• Divided powers between Centre and provinces into three lists: Federal List (for Centre), Provincial List (for provinces), and Concurrent List (for both)
• Abolished dyarchy in provinces, introducing provincial autonomy, while retaining dyarchy at the Centre
• Implemented bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces
• Extended communal representation to depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women, and labor (workers)
• Abolished the Council of India established by the Government of India Act of 1858 Statement 1: Incorrect. The Montague-Chelmsford Act, 1919 recommended limited voting rights for women based on property, tax, or education, not granting voting rights to all women above the age of 21. Statement 2: Correct. The Government of India Act, 1935 reserved seats for women in the legislature and extended communal representation by providing a separate electorate to women.

Major Events/Places of Indian Freedom Struggle Option (a): Incorrect. The Indian tricolor was designed by Pingali Venkayya, who presented it to Mahatma Gandhi in 1921. Option (b): Incorrect. The 'Kurnool Circular' was drafted by Kala Venkat Rao during the Quit India Movement. Option (c): Correct. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English. Option (d): Incorrect. The Theosophical Society was founded by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott in New York in 1875, with headquarters later established in Adyar, near Madras (now Chennai) in India.

Important Personalities/Phases of Mahatma Gandhi The Quit India Movement, launched to compel British withdrawal from India following the Cripps Mission's failure, featured Gandhi's iconic proclamation of "do or die" at the historic August meeting in Bombay's Gowalia Tank. Gandhi's subsequent arrest on August 9, 1942, was followed by a 21-day fast in February 1943 to protest against government actions. During his imprisonment in Yerwada Jail, Poona, Gandhi penned "Songs of Prison," translating hymns from the Upanishads and poems by Indian saint poets into English.

"In 1849, Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (1820-1891) became the secretary of Bethune School/College. Initially founded as the Hindu Female School, it was later renamed Bethune School in 1856. Subsequently, in the same year, the government assumed control of the institution."

The English East India Company had a factory in Broach (now Bharuch) in Gujarat during the seventeenth century. However, Chicacole (now Srikakulam) and Trichinopoly (now Tiruchirappalli) were not among the locations of the Company's factories during this period. Establishment of Factories by English East India Company:

• West Coast: Factories were established at Agra, Ahmadabad, Baroda, and Broach by 1619, under the control of the president and council of the Surat factory established in 1612.
• South-eastern Coast: Factories were set up at Masulipatam in 1611 and Armagaon near Pulicat in 1626.
• Eastern India: Factories were established at Hariharpur and Balasore (now Odisha) in 1633, at Hugli in 1651, followed by factories at Patna, Dacca, and Kasimbazar in Bengal and Bihar, respectively.

Quit India Movement: Option (a) is correct: Quit India Resolution ratified at Gowalia Tank on 8th August 1942. Mantra of “Do or Die” adopted by Gandhiji. Option (b) is incorrect: More Indians added to Viceroy’s executive council by the Government of India Act 1919. Option (c) is incorrect: Congress Ministries resigned in protest in 1939 due to India being declared belligerent in WW-II. Option (d) is incorrect: Cripps Mission failure led to the Quit India Movement, not related to 8 August 1942.

INA Trials/Red Fort Trial: INA officers' trials held at Red Fort between November 1945 and May 1946. Open trials aimed to sway public opinion against INA. Senior INA officers, including Major General Shah Nawaz Khan, Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, and Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, were sentenced to death in 1945. Nehru, along with Bhulabhai Desai and Tej Bahadur Sapru, joined INA officers’ legal defense team.

1. American golfer Tiger Woods was indeed the first winner of the Laureus World Sports Award when it was instituted in the year 2000. This statement is correct.
2. The statement that the award was received mostly by 'Formula One' players is incorrect. While 'Formula One' players may have won the award on some occasions, it is not predominantly associated with them. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Roger Federer has indeed received the Laureus World Sports Award multiple times, making him one of the most decorated recipients of the award. This statement is correct. Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, the correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only.

1. The finalists for the ICC World Test Championship were not decided solely based on the number of matches won. The championship standings were determined by a points system, where teams earned points for each match played, with additional points available for series wins and draws. The top two teams in the standings qualified for the final.
2. New Zealand was ranked ahead of England not because it won more matches, but because it accumulated more points in the championship standings. The number of matches won was just one factor in the points calculation, which also considered series wins, draws, and other criteria. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. Therefore, neither statement 1 nor statement 2 is correct, hence option (d) is the correct choice.

1. The official motto for the 32nd Summer Olympics is indeed 'A New World'.
2. Sport Climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball were all included as new sports in the Olympics. So, both statements are correct.

"Songs from Prison" refers to a collection of religious lyrics translated into English by Mahatma Gandhi during his imprisonment in Yerwada Central Jail in Pune, India. Gandhi translated these songs from various languages, including Gujarati, Hindi, and Marathi, as a means of spiritual reflection and expression during his confinement. This work reflects Gandhi's deep spiritual convictions and his commitment to nonviolent resistance. While all the options listed have played significant roles in Indian history, it was Gandhi who translated these religious lyrics during his time in prison.

All three statements are correct:

1. St. Francis Xavier was indeed one of the founding members of the Jesuit Order, also known as the Society of Jesus, established by St. Ignatius of Loyola in the 16th century.
2. St. Francis Xavier died in Goa, India, in 1552. The Basilica of Bom Jesus in Old Goa is dedicated to him, and his body is enshrined there. It is a renowned pilgrimage site visited by devotees from around the world.
3. The Feast of St. Francis Xavier is celebrated annually in Goa, typically on December 3rd. This feast commemorates the death anniversary of St. Francis Xavier and is marked with religious ceremonies and festivities.

Ancient Indian Temple Architecture. Statement 1: Correct - The Chausath Yogini temple is in Morena district, Madhya Pradesh. An inscription from 1323 CE credits its construction to King Devapala. Statement 2: Incorrect - The circular temple sits atop a small hill but isn't the sole circular temple in India. Statement 3: Incorrect - Originally, 64 yoginis were placed in subsidiary shrines around the central Maha Shakti shrine, later replaced by Shiva lingas. Statement 4: Correct - The temple's circular design has led to the notion that the Indian parliament's design was inspired by it.

Tribal Culture Option (d) is correct: Halbi, Ho, and Kui are the tribal languages. Halbi is an Eastern Indo-Aryan language, Kui is a South-Eastern Dravidian language spoken by the Kandhas and Ho language is spoken by tribal communities of Odisha, Jharkhand, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, West Bengal, and Assam.

• Halbi, Ho, and Kui are languages spoken by tribes of India.
• Halbi is spoken in the states of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. It belongs to the group of Indo Aryan tribal languages.
• Ho and Kui are important Dravidian languages along with Kolami, Konda, Koya, Gondi, Kudukh, Parji.

Ancient Architecture/Sculpture/Ajanta Cave Option (a): Ajanta, nestled in Sahyadri hills by the Waghora river gorge, remains a renowned Buddhist site. Option (b): Sanchi, west of Betwa river, houses the ancient Sanchi Stupa, designated a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Option (c): Pandu-Lena cave shrines, also called Nasik Caves, lie near Gomai river, north of Shahada, Maharashtra. Option (d): Amaravati stupa stands in the Krishna river gorge, being Andhra Pradesh's largest, with a diameter of about 50 meters and a height of around 27 meters.

Among the four rivers mentioned, namely Chenab, Jhelum, Ravi, and Sutlej, the Jhelum is the one that joins the Indus directly. The other three rivers, namely Chenab, Ravi, and Sutlej, eventually merge into the Chenab River before it joins the Indus. Therefore, the correct option is (b) Jhelum.

Type of Soil Option (b) is correct: Black cotton soils result from weathering of fissure volcanic rock.

Trade Winds and Westerlies:

• Trade winds originate from subtropical high-pressure regions, move toward equatorial low-pressure belt.
• Westerlies blow from subtropical high-pressure belts toward sub-polar low-pressure belts.

Hot, Wet Equatorial Climate:

• Found 5°-10° north and south of the equator.
• Heavy, year-round precipitation.
• Vegetation characterized by tall trees with a thick canopy, including tropical hardwoods.

Sugarcane:

• Requires 1800 to 2200 mm, heavy water-intensive crop.
• Major oilseeds require around 672.4 mm.
• Millets can grow in dry regions without irrigation, pearl millets need around 350 mm.
• Pulses like red gram require around 200-450 mm of water.

Option (a): Chenab joins the Satluj in Panchnad, Pakistan, after receiving the waters of the Jhelum and Ravi rivers. Option (b): Jhelum joins the Chenab near Jhang in Pakistan. Option (c): Ravi debouches into the Chenab near Sarai Sidhu, a little above Rangpur in Pakistani Punjab. Option (d): Satluj receives the collective drainage of the Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum rivers. It joins the Indus a few kilometers above Mithankot.

Saline lakes of Rajasthan include Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol, and Khatu.

Statement 1: Brahmani river comes into existence by the confluence of the Koel and the Shankh rivers near Rourkela. Statement 2: Nagavali River originates in Kalahandi District, in the Eastern Ghats. Statement 3: Subarnarekha originates from the Ranchi Plateau in Jharkhand forming the boundary between West Bengal and Odisha in its lower course. Statement 4: It is an east-flowing river originating in the Kalahandi district of Odisha, Eastern Ghat, flowing along the Odisha-Andhra Pradesh boundary and joining the Bay of Bengal at Kalingapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.

Both statements are correct. Hyderabad was indeed recognized as the 2020 Tree City of the World by the United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation. This recognition came as a result of Hyderabad's commitment to grow and maintain urban forests. However, Statement 2 does not provide an explanation for Statement 1; instead, it further elaborates on the reason for Hyderabad's selection. Therefore, the correct option is (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

Biodiversity/Everyday Science Option (c) is correct: Lemongrass is used in preparing a natural mosquito repellent.

• Lemongrass, widely distributed in tropical regions, is known for its effectiveness as a mosquito repellent due to citronella content.
• A 2011 study found lemongrass oil effectively repelled mosquitoes from a range of species.

Savannah Biome:

• A grassland biome with vast open grassland and few trees.
• Statement 1: Incorrect. Savannah biome animals rely on herds and speed for survival, not herd numbers.
• Statement 2: Correct. Savannahs are prone to grass and brush fires during dry seasons.
• Statement 3: Correct. Many savannah animals are grazing herbivores that migrate.
• Statement 4: Correct. Savannahs have distinct wet and dry seasons.
• Statement 5: Incorrect. Soil properties influence vegetation but don’t check its formation.

Sustainable Agriculture Permaculture:

• Permaculture is an integrated design system modelled on nature, promoting multi-cropping and integrated farming systems.
• Unlike chemical farming, which is more suitable for monoculture cropping, permaculture relies on organic fertilizers and does not alter the natural environment or increase soil salinity.
• Chemical farming, based on intense inputs like chemical fertilizers, is not suitable for semi-arid regions, while permaculture can work in arid climates and involves well-designed systems that imitate natural systems.
• Mulching is an important component of permaculture systems for promoting efficiency.

Agriculture and Environment Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA):

• CSA assists in managing agricultural systems to adapt to climate change, aiming to increase productivity sustainably, adapt to climate change, and reduce greenhouse gas emissions.
• The Climate-Smart Village project in India is under the CGIAR Research Program on Climate Change, Agriculture, and Food Security (CCAFS), carried out by CGIAR.
• ICRISAT, a CGIAR Research Center, conducts agricultural research for development in Asia and sub-Saharan Africa.

Industrial Pollution - Copper Smelting:

• Copper smelting extracts pure elemental copper from copper concentrate using heat and a chemical reducing agent.
• Facilities conducting smelting emit air pollutants like hydrogen fluoride, sulfur dioxide, oxides of nitrogen, and heavy metals such as lead, arsenic, chromium, and zinc.
• Some smelting processes produce solid waste called slag, containing contaminants like arsenic, cadmium, lead, or mercury, which can leach into groundwater.

Air Pollution/Emissions - Furnace oil:

• Furnace oil, a residual product of crude-oil distillation, is used as fuel in various combustion equipment.
• Emissions of oxides of sulphur result from the sulphur content of furnace oil.
• Applications include marine engines, slow-speed engines, power generation, drying tea leaves, thermic fluid heaters, and hot air generators.

Industrial Pollution - Magnetite particles:

• Magnetite particles, highly magnetic mineral forms of iron, are found in air pollution.
• Sources include vehicle brake systems, petrol and diesel engine exhaust, and power plants.
• Exposure to airborne magnetite is associated with health problems.
• Microwave stoves and telephone lines are not proven sources of magnetite particles.

Air Pollution/Carbon Emission

• The carbon footprint of building operations is assessed through the 'Common Carbon Metric.'
• Developed by the United Nations Environment Program's Sustainable Buildings & Climate Initiative (UNEP-SBCI), it measures energy use and reports GHG emissions from building operations.
• It aims to support GHG emissions reductions through accurate measurement of energy efficiency improvements.

Carbon Sink - Blue Carbon:

• Carbon captured by the world's ocean and coastal ecosystems.
• Coastal ecosystems like mangroves, seagrasses, and tidal marshes store half of the "blue" carbon beneath the ocean floor.
• These areas absorb and store carbon at a faster rate than forests, lasting for millions of years.
• The Blue Carbon Initiative aims to develop mechanisms for conserving coastal Blue Carbon ecosystems, engaging local, national, and international organizations, and promoting scientific research for climate mitigation.

Palm Oil: Native to Africa, used in cosmetics, biodiesel.

Moringa: Fast-growing, native to Indian subcontinent. Tamarind: Indigenous to tropical Africa, biodiesel derived from its seeds.

Mycoplasma: Smallest known bacteria, lack cell walls, pleomorphic.

Sunflower: Cultivated worldwide for its edible oil and seeds. Yam: Starchy tuberous root consumed in many cultures.

Biodiversity/Ecosystem Option (c) is correct: Lichen and Moss can survive on a surface without soil. Bryophytes:

• Bryophytes have a small stem and simple leaves, without true roots.
• They typically grow in moist places like Liverworts and mosses.
• Mosses, non-vascular plants, thrive in moist and shady areas using rhizoids for anchoring. Statement 1: Incorrect - Ferns inhabit moist, shady forests, crevices, acid wetlands, and tropical trees. Statement 2: Correct - Lichens are found on various surfaces, including rocks, trees, and buildings. Statement 3: Correct - Mosses, non-vascular plants, anchor using rhizoids and thrive in moist, shady areas. Statement 4: Incorrect - Mushrooms are fungi that grow above ground or on soil.

Food chain Option (b) is correct: Cyanobacteria and Diatoms are primary producers in oceanic food chains. Copepods:

• Copepods, widely dispersed crustaceans, are primary consumers in marine food chains.
• They play a significant ecological role by feeding numerous fish species. Cyanobacteria:
• Cyanobacteria, or blue-green algae, are microscopic organisms found in various water types.
• They use sunlight to produce their own food. Diatoms:
• Diatoms, photosynthesizing algae, are primary producers found in almost all aquatic environments.
• They have a siliceous skeleton and are crucial in oceanic food chains. Foraminifera:
• Foraminifera, unicellular organisms with pseudopodia, are found in all marine environments.
• They feed mainly on bacteria, diatoms, and nanoplankton. Statement 1: Incorrect - Copepods are primary consumers, not producers. Statement 2: Correct - Cyanobacteria use sunlight to produce their own food. Statement 3: Correct - Diatoms are primary producers in oceanic food chains. Statement 4: Incorrect - Foraminifera feed on bacteria, diatoms, and nanoplankton in various marine habitats.

Food Chain Option (c) is correct: Earthworms, Millipedes, and Woodlice are Detritivores. Detritivores:

• Detritivores obtain nutrients by consuming decomposing plant and animal parts.
• They contribute to decomposition and nutrient cycles in ecosystems.
• Detritivores can live in various environments, including marine ecosystems. Statement 1: Incorrect - Free-living copepods are primary consumers, not detritivores. Statement 2: Correct - Detritivores play a crucial role in decomposition and nutrient cycles. Statement 3: Correct - Detritivores inhabit various environments and feed on decomposing matter.

Biogeochemical Cycles Option (c) is correct: Phosphate ions and other minerals gradually leak out of rocks due to weathering. Phosphorus Cycle:

• Phosphorus lacks an atmospheric component and is essential for biological systems.
• Phosphate ions leach out of rocks through weathering and rain, then distribute in soils and water.
• Plants uptake inorganic phosphate, which is later returned to the soil upon decay. Statement 1: Incorrect - Phosphate ions leak from rocks due to weathering, not from rivers. Statement 2: Correct - Phosphate ions are distributed in soils and water after leaching from rocks. Statement 3: Correct - Phosphate is essential for DNA and phospholipids in plants and animals.

Species Interaction Option (d) is correct: All species can establish symbiotic relationships with other organisms. Symbiotic Relationship:

• Symbiotic relationships involve two or more species benefiting from the association.
• Examples include coral and zooxanthellae, cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae, and mycorrhiza. Options 1, 2, and 3 are correct: They describe mutualistic symbiotic relationships between various organisms.

Water Conservation Water Resources:

• Earth's surface consists of 71% water and 29% land, with 97% of water in oceans and seas.
• Freshwater is mainly in glaciers, groundwater, ice caps, lakes, soil moisture, and rivers.

Genetics/Biotechnology/GM Crops:

• Bollgard I and Bollgard II are biotech crop technologies approved in India in 2002 and 2006 respectively.
• Bollgard cotton contains an insecticidal protein from a soil microorganism, offering built-in protection against pests.

Viral Diseases Adenoviruses are icosahedral viruses with double-stranded DNA genomes, causing a range of infections affecting various systems in the body. They are responsible for illnesses such as pink eye, diarrhea, coughs, sore throats, fever, and the common cold. HIV, classified as a retrovirus, uses RNA as its genetic material.

Vaccines and Drugs Recombinant vector vaccines, a significant emerging technology, use live replicating viruses modified to carry additional genes from pathogens. These vaccines expose the body to proteins produced by viruses or bacteria, helping elicit immunity against diseases.

Disease Transmission Mitochondrial replacement therapy swaps abnormal mitochondrial DNA for healthy donor DNA.

1. Correct: Performed pre or post-fertilization to prevent disease inheritance.
2. Correct: Mitochondria contain unique DNA inherited maternally.

Disease Transmission (d) Correct: ACE2 is the SARS-CoV-2 virus receptor, facilitating infection spread.

Basic and Everyday Science

• Larger holes in a pressure cooker lid increase steam release, leading to greater temperature reduction.
• The cooking temperature in a pressure cooker is directly proportional to the flame temperature.
• Surface pressure on the liquid inside the closed cooker can be increased by changing the weight placed on the cooker lid, raising the cooking temperature. Statement 1: Correct. Larger holes in the pressure cooker lid lead to increased steam release and greater temperature reduction. Statement 2: Correct. Cooking temperature in a pressure cooker is directly proportional to the flame temperature. Statement 3: Correct. Surface pressure on the liquid inside the closed cooker can be increased to raise the cooking temperature.

Basic and Everyday Science

• Artificial culture media, or growth medium, provides a setting for the development of various microorganisms, containing agarose and necessary nutrients for growth.
• The medium is sterilized to prevent contamination, ensuring it only contains desired microbes.
• Microbes like fungi and bacteria can be cultivated in artificial mediums. Statement 1: Correct. Artificial culture media are used to cultivate various microorganisms. Statement 2: Correct. Nutrient agar is commonly used for bacteria, while potato dextrose agar and Sabouraud dextrose agar are used for fungi. Statement 3: Incorrect. Viruses cannot be cultured in artificial media as they require living host cells for replication.

Basics and Everyday Science

• Sodium lamps emit light in 360 degrees, while LEDs emit light in 180 degrees, which is more advantageous.
• High-pressure sodium (HPS) lights have a lifespan of about 24,000 hours and emit monochromatic light, unlike LEDs.
• Monochromatic light refers to light with a single wavelength, such as that emitted by sodium lamps. Statement 1: Correct. Sodium lamps emit light in 360 degrees, while LEDs emit light in 180 degrees. Statement 2: Incorrect. HPS lights have a lifespan of about 24,000 hours, not LEDs. Statement 3: Correct. Monochromatic light refers to light with a single wavelength, such as that emitted by sodium lamps.

Environmental Science/Everyday Science Bisphenol A (BPA)

• BPA is a chemical used primarily in the production of polycarbonate plastics found in various products, including shatterproof windows, water bottles, and epoxy resins.
• Polycarbonates are thermoplastic polymers known for their strength, toughness, and optical transparency.
• BPA is also used in epoxy resins coating metal food cans, bottle tops, and water supply pipes. It is a potential health concern due to its presence in consumer products.

Triclosan is added to various consumer products to reduce bacterial contamination. Some studies suggest it may affect thyroid hormones and contribute to antibiotic resistance.

Water, known as the "universal solvent," can dissolve more substances than any other liquid due to its polar arrangement of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

1. Mitochondrial replacement therapy (MRT) involves replacing defective mitochondria in the egg or embryo with healthy mitochondria from a donor. This can be done before or after in vitro fertilization (IVF) to prevent the transmission of mitochondrial diseases from parent to child.
2. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), which is responsible for coding mitochondrial proteins, is inherited exclusively from the mother. Therefore, mitochondrial diseases are passed down maternally, and a child inherits them entirely from the mother. Correct option: (c) Both 1 and 2

Space Technology
The correct option is (d) Speed of light is always the same. Explanation: Astronomical distances are vast, and traditional units like kilometers or miles become impractical. Light-years, which represent the distance light travels in a year, provide a more suitable scale. This is because the speed of light in a vacuum is constant, as per Einstein's theory of relativity. Therefore, using light-years allows for consistent and manageable measurements across astronomical scales. Reference: The Physics Classroom. (n.d.). Distance in Space. Retrieved from

Statement 1 is incorrect because coalbed methane is not necessarily pure methane gas; it can also contain other gases such as nitrogen and carbon dioxide. Additionally, shale gas is primarily composed of methane, with smaller amounts of other hydrocarbons such as ethane and propane, not just propane and butane. Statement 2 is also incorrect. Parole is not an absolute right, but rather a discretionary decision made by the authorities based on various factors such as the prisoner's behavior, risk to society, and likelihood of rehabilitation. Therefore, the correct option is : (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Judicial custody refers to the custody of an accused person by the judicial authorities, typically after they have been remanded by a magistrate or court. During judicial custody, the accused is held in jail or prison, not in a police station.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case may seek permission from the court to interrogate the suspect. However, it is not accurate to say that interrogation without the court's approval is prohibited. Correct option: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

1. Statement 1: The statement is correct. The "Right to the City" is indeed recognized as a human right, and the UN-Habitat does monitor the commitments made by countries regarding this right.
2. Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The "Right to the City" concept includes the right of every city dweller to reclaim public spaces and participate in city governance and decision-making processes.
3. Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. The "Right to the City" does not specifically entail the provision of public services or facilities to unauthorized colonies. It is more about ensuring equitable access to urban resources and opportunities for all city residents. Therefore, options (c) 1 and 2 are correct.

1. 21st February is indeed celebrated as International Mother Language Day, but it was declared by UNESCO, not UNICEF. This day commemorates the 1952 Bangladesh Language Movement.
2. The demand for Bangla to be one of the national languages was indeed raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan, which eventually led to the recognition of Bangla as one of the official languages of Pakistan.

Statement 1: This statement is not correct. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are not titles conferred under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India. Article 18(1) prohibits the state from conferring titles except military and academic distinctions. Statement 2: This statement is correct. Padma Awards were suspended only once in 1977 and were not awarded that year. Statement 3: This statement is not correct. There is no specific restriction on the number of Bharat Ratna Awards that can be conferred in a particular year. However, in practice, it is usually limited to one or two recipients per year. Therefore, the correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only, as statements 1 and 3 are not correct.

Acquisition of Citizenship Statement 1: Correct. The Indian Constitution allows for single citizenship, meaning individuals hold allegiance only to the Indian Union. Citizenship expires upon voluntarily acquiring citizenship of another nation. Only one domicile is permitted, issued by a single State or UT. Statement 2: Incorrect. In India, the President is the Head of State, and both citizens by birth and naturalized citizens are eligible for this office. Statement 3: Incorrect. Foreigners previously granted Indian citizenship can lose it if obtained fraudulently, shown disloyalty to the Constitution, engaged in unlawful exchange with the enemy during wartime, spent two years imprisoned abroad within five years of naturalization, or resided outside India continuously for seven years.

Key Words in the Preamble The Preamble:

• Reflects the people's hopes and the ideals of the Objective Resolution.
• Originally declared India a "Sovereign Democratic Republic," later amended to add "Socialist, Secular, and Integrity."

Socialist Principles

• Article 39 seeks to prevent wealth concentration, reflecting Socialist Principles aimed at equitable distribution of resources.

System of Government - Constitutional: A constitutional government operates within the framework of a constitution to prevent autocracy and safeguard individual liberty. In India, government powers are limited by Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution.

System of Government: India's parliamentary system operates under constitutional supremacy, limiting Parliament's legislative power. The judiciary holds the authority to adjudicate on the constitutionality of laws.

Statement 1: Gopalaswamy Ayyangar's report did not mention designating a minister and secretary solely for administrative reform. Statement 2: The Department of Personnel setup was based on ARC recommendations.

Right to Privacy

• Article 21 protects privacy; restrictions must pass legislative tests.

Rule of Law

• Legislation granting unguided discretionary power violates Article 14.
• Rule of Law ensures absence of arbitrary power and equality before law.

Basic Understanding The State refers to a sovereign people organized under one independent government within a definite territory and subject to no outside control. It possesses an organized government and territory independent of external control.

The doctrine of Separation of Powers divides legislative, executive, and judicial functions among different branches to prevent the concentration of excessive power. It safeguards liberty and rights, as mentioned in Article 50 of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Right outside FR/Legal Rights The Right to Property was recognized as a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution until it was abolished by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. It became a legal right under Article 300-A, protecting individuals from deprivation without the authority of law.

People’s Representation Cancelled by UPSC. Probable Solution: (b) Statement 1: Incorrect. The 1996 RPA amendment limited candidates to contesting two constituencies. Statement 2: Correct. In 1991, Shri Devi Lal contested three Lok Sabha seats. Statement 3: Incorrect. There's no provision for the Election Commission to bear candidates' expenses for multiple contests.

Forms of Government

• India has a federal system with a tilt towards unitary.
• Features include two governments, division of powers, written constitution, and independent judiciary.

National Commission for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes & Backward Classes Option (d): The Ministry of Tribal Affairs manages forest rights acts.

Constitutional Provisions Pertaining to Supreme Court/Jurisdiction and Powers of High Court

1. Correct: The Chief Justice may appoint retired judges temporarily.
2. Incorrect: High Court can review and correct its judgments.

BoP Currency devaluation affects trade balance and debt burden, influencing economic competitiveness.

Foreign Investment Various instruments facilitate foreign investment in India, including FCCBs, FIIs, and GDRs.

Inflation:

• Inflation entails rising prices, eroding purchasing power.
• Caused by factors like increased demand, reduced supply, and excess money circulation.
• Creation of new money for budget deficits contributes to inflation.

Recession:

• Economic recession occurs with two consecutive quarters of GDP decline.
• High interest rates reduce liquidity and investments.
• Public expenditure increases investment, stimulating GDP growth.

Types of Inflation - Demand-pull Inflation:

• Caused by increased demand outpacing supply.
• Expansionary policies and fiscal stimulus contribute to demand-pull inflation.
• Rising wages and interest rates have minimal impact on demand-pull inflation.

Functions of Money Market

• Correct: Demand for substitute goods moves with price changes of substitutes.
• Incorrect: Complementary goods' prices affect demand inversely.
• Incorrect: Inferior goods' demand moves opposite to consumer income changes.
• Correct: Law of demand states lower prices increase demand.

Water Conservation:

• Water Credit provides microfinance for water and sanitation solutions.
• It offers small loans to facilitate access to affordable water resources.

Money Multiplier/Money Supply Money multiplier represents the creation of money by banks through lending. Increased banking activity boosts lending and money supply.

Role and Functions of RBI/Banking

• Correct: RBI Governor and Deputy Governors appointed by Central Government.
• Incorrect: Central Government can give directions to RBI; not a provision in the Indian constitution.
• Correct: RBI's power derived from RBI Act 1934; it regulates Indian financial sector and is top monetary authority.

Cooperative Bank

• Statement 1: Incorrect; after the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act 2020, RBI holds all powers over cooperative banks.
• Statement 2: Correct; RBI allows cooperative banks to raise funds through equity shares, preference shares, and debt instruments.
• Statement 3: Correct; Large cooperative banks with a capital of Rs.1 lakh were brought under the Banking Regulation Act 1949 in March 1966.

RBI

• Option (b): Correct; RBI serves as the 'lender of last resort' to provide liquidity to banks in financial difficulties, maintaining financial stability.

1. The statement is incorrect. The Global Ocean Commission does not grant licenses for seabed exploration and mining. Such licenses are typically issued by individual countries or international organizations like the International Seabed Authority (ISA).
2. This statement is correct. India has indeed received licenses for seabed mineral exploration in international waters.
3. The statement is correct. Rare earth minerals have been found in seabed sediments in international waters, making them a potential target for seabed mining operations.

Black Money Black money arises from illegal or unreported income sources, impacting revenue and governance.

Debt Instrument

1. Bond yield depends on bond prices influenced by demand, impacted by actions of entities like the US Federal Reserve.
2. RBI actions directly affect bond yield by controlling market liquidity through various tools.
3. Inflation affects purchasing power, influencing demand and prices of Government Securities (G-Sec), thereby impacting yield.

Debt Instrument

1. Retail investors can invest in Treasury Bills (T-Bills) and Government bonds through multiple channels, requiring a Demat account.
2. Negotiated Dealing System Order Matching (NDS-OM) facilitates electronic trading of government securities by RBI.
3. Central Depository Services Limited (CDSL) was promoted by BSE Ltd. with leading banks, not by BSE alone.