UPSC CSE Prelims 2022 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Significance of Arthashastra: Statement 1: Incorrect. According to the Arthashastra, anyone voluntarily enslaved or whose life was mortgaged and fled would be a lifelong slave. Statement 2: Correct. Female slaves, if bearing a child from their masters, were recognized as free. Statement 3: Correct. A son born to a female slave, fathered by her master, would inherit the legal status of the master’s son.

Jain and Buddhist Literature/Texts: Buddhist texts, written in Pali, include canonical works like Tripitakas and non-canonical commentaries. Jain texts, known as Siddhanta or Agama, feature Angas and Upangas, shaping Jain philosophy and doctrine.

Scholars and Thinkers of Ancient India: Pair 1: Incorrect. Aryadeva was a Mahayana Buddhist monk, not a Jain scholar. Pair 2: Correct. Dignāga, a Buddhist logician, authored influential works on Buddhist epistemology. Pair 3: Correct. Nathamuni, a Vaishnava theologian, compiled Nalayira Divya Prabandham.

Delhi Sultanate and the Mongol Invasion Statement 1 is incorrect: The first Mongol invasion of India took place during the reign of Sultan Shams-ud-din Iltutmish. Statement 2 is correct: During Ala-ud-din Khalji's reign, a Mongol invasion reached the outskirts of Delhi and besieged it. Alauddin established a huge permanent, standing army to protect the country from Mongol invasion. The Mongols attacked during Alauddin Khilji’s siege of Chittor, forcing him to retreat to Siri for about two months. Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq did not lose any portions of his kingdom to the Mongols; instead, he defeated them.

Sayyid Dynasty The Sayyids were recognized by their pointed cap (kulah) and were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during the Delhi Sultanate. They claimed descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima, commanding special respect in Muslim society, even protected by Timur during his invasion.

Shri Ramanujacharya Correct answer: Option (a): Shri Ramanujacharya firmly believed that intense devotion to Vishnu was the best means to attain salvation. He is the most respected Acharya in the philosophy of Sri Vaishnavism and a chief proponent of Vishishtadvaita Vedanta.

Regional Dynasty Pair 1 is correct: In the first quarter of the 9th century CE, the Chandella dynasty was founded by Nannuka. Pair 2 is incorrect: Vakpati’s sons, Jayashakti (Jeja) and Vijayashakti (Vija), consolidated Chandella power. Pair 3 is correct: Nagabhata II (reigned c. 793–833) succeeded Vatsaraja and reorganized Pratihara power, attacking Kannauj. Pair 4 is incorrect: Bhoja I/Mihir Bhoja (c. 836−885 CE), grandson of Nagabhatta II, had a reign of over 46 years and was the most successful and popular ruler of Pratiharas.

Socio-Economic Condition of Vijaynagar Empire The chief gold coin of the Vijayanagar Empire was the varaha or pagoda. The Perta was half a varaha, and a Fanam was one-tenth of a perta. A Tar was a silver coin, and a Jittal was a copper coin.

European Arrival in India Statement 1: Incorrect Timeline The Gajapati Dynasty ended in 1542, while the United East India Company of the Netherlands was established in March 1605. Their first factory in Masulipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, was founded the same year. Statement 2: Alfonso de Albuquerque Alfonso de Albuquerque, regarded as the founder of Portuguese power in India, captured Goa from Bijapur and Bhatkal from Sri Krishna Deva Rai of Vijayanagara in 1510. Statement 3: English East India Company The English East India Company established a factory in Madras in 1639, leasing land from representatives of the Vijayanagara Empire known as the Nayakas.

Cripps Mission Cripps Mission (1942):

• In March 1942, a mission led by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to secure Indian support for World War II. The Japanese threat to invade India heightened the importance of Indian cooperation.
• Pressure from the Allies (USA, USSR, and China) pushed Britain to seek Indian cooperation. Provisions:
• Proposed Indian union with Dominion status, allowing it to determine its relation with the UN and the Commonwealth.
• After the war, a Constituent Assembly would be formed, consisting of members from Provinces (elected through proportional representation) and Princely states (nominated).
• Conditions of Acceptance:
  1. Provinces not willing to join the Union could have a separate Constitution and form a separate union.
  2. A new Constitution-making Body and the Government would negotiate a treaty for Transfer of Power.

Revolutionary Activities Abroad Ghadar Party, 1913: The Ghadar Party was a revolutionary group organized around a weekly newspaper "The Ghadar" with its headquarters in San Francisco and branches along the US coast and in the Far East. These revolutionaries included mainly ex-soldiers and peasants who had migrated from Punjab to the USA and Canada in search of better employment opportunities. Pre-Ghadar revolutionary activity had been carried out by Ramdas Puri, G.D. Kumar, Taraknath Das, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Lala Hardayal, who reached there in 1911. To carry out revolutionary activities, the earlier activists had set up a 'Swadesh Sevak Home' at Vancouver and 'United India House' at Seattle. Finally, in 1913, the Ghadar was established with the aim of organizing assassinations of officials, publishing revolutionary and anti-imperialist literature, working among Indian troops stationed abroad, procuring arms, and bringing about a simultaneous revolt in all British colonies. The moving spirits behind the Ghadar Party were Lala Hardayal, Ramchandra, Bhagwan Singh, Kartar Singh Saraba, Barkatullah, and Bhai Parmanand. Other prominent leaders involved in the movement were Kartar Singh Saraba, Raghubar Dayal Gupta, Rash Behari Bose, and Sachin Sanyal. Additional Information: Barindra Kumar Ghosh was associated with a revolutionary group called Jugantar, and Jogesh Chatterjee was associated with the Hindustan Republican Association/Army (HRA).

"Yogavasishtha" is a renowned philosophical text in Hinduism, attributed to the sage Valmiki. It explores themes of Advaita Vedanta, presenting a dialogue between Lord Rama and the sage Vasishtha. The translation of "Yogavasishtha" into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati occurred during the reign of Emperor Akbar, who was known for his interest in religious and philosophical dialogues. Akbar's reign (1556–1605) was marked by a policy of religious tolerance and cultural exchange, leading to the translation of various Hindu texts into Persian for wider dissemination and understanding. Correct Option: (a) Akbar

The texts mentioned in the question are:

1. Nettipakarana: This is a Jain philosophical text attributed to Kundakunda Acharya, a revered Jain monk and philosopher. It discusses various aspects of Jain philosophy, including the nature of reality, soul, karma, and liberation.
2. Parishshishtaparvan: This text is a part of the Mahabharata, an epic Sanskrit poem that is traditionally attributed to the sage Vyasa. It contains additional stories, teachings, and genealogical details not found in the main narrative of the Mahabharata.
3. Avadhanashataka: Avadhanashataka is a collection of a hundred Sanskrit verses composed by the Jain poet and scholar Svayambhu Deva. The verses primarily focus on the themes of renunciation, detachment, and spiritual awakening.
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana: This is a significant Jain text that narrates the lives of the twenty-four Tirthankaras, the spiritual teachers of Jainism. It provides detailed accounts of their births, teachings, and liberation. Considering the nature of the texts and their association with Jainism, the correct option would be: c) 1, 3, and 4

Sangam Literature Option (b) is correct: Sangam literature makes references to the social classification of Varna, which was a system of social classification in ancient India based on occupation and birth. Sangam Literature:

• Sangam Literature provides valuable details about the Sangam society and polity.
• The social classification of varna was known to Sangam poets.
• There is mention of the Arashar (kings), Vaishiyar (traders), and Velalar (farmers).
• Tamil Epics: The two epics Silappathikaram is written by Elango Adigal and Manimegalai by Sittalai Sattanar.

Mughal Literature/Translation work under Mughals Option (a) is correct: The “Yoga Vasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of Akbar.

• Akbar commissioned the translation of many Sanskrit works into the Persian language.
• A Maktab Khana (translation bureau) was also established at Fatehpur Sikri for this purpose.
• The Mahabharata, Ramayana, Lilavati, and Yogavashisht were some of the important Sanskrit works that were translated during his reign.
• Nizamuddin Panipati translated Yogavasistha (a treatise on Vedantic philosophy) in the late 16th century.

Jain and Buddhist Literature/Text

• Buddhist literature, initially written in Pali, encompasses canonical and non-canonical texts, while Jain literature includes the Siddhanta or Agama, with both Shvetambara and Digambara schools giving importance to Angas. Statement 1: Incorrect. The Netti Pakarana is a Buddhist scripture teaching methods approved by the Buddha and recited at the First Buddhist Council. Statement 2: Correct. The Parishishta Parvan by Hemachandra provides a history of early Jain teachers and political events. Statement 3: Incorrect. Avadana literature in Buddhism narrates virtuous deeds and their consequences across lifetimes. Statement 4: Correct. Trishashthilkshana Mahapurana is a significant Jain text composed by Acharya Jinasena during the Rashtrakuta rule.

Scholars and Thinkers of Ancient India Pair 1: Incorrect. Aryadeva was a Mahayana Buddhist philosopher, not a Jain scholar. Pair 2: Correct. Dignaga was a Buddhist logician, known for laying the foundations of Buddhist logic. Pair 3: Correct. Sri Ranganathamuni, also known as Nathamuni, was a Vaishnava theologian who compiled the Nalayira Divya Prabandham.

Ashoka’s Rock Edicts and Inscription Pair 1: Dhauli Rock edict is located in Dhauli hills, about 10 km from Bhubaneswar in Odisha. Engraved in Pali on a large rock, it stands near the historical site of the Kalinga war, a transformative event for Samrat Ashok. Pair 2: Erragudi or Yerragudi rock edict lies in Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh, bearing inscriptions considered significant treasures of Mauryan king Ashoka (269-231 BCE), falling under major and minor rock inscriptions. Pair 3: Jaugada, found on the northern bank of Rushikulya river in Ganjam district, Odisha, hints at its link to the ancient Kalinga kingdom through separate rock edicts 1 and 2. Pair 4: Kalsi, a small town between Chakrata and Dehradun on the Yamuna River in Uttarakhand, boasts the unique presence of Ashoka’s 14 rock edicts. It stands as the sole location in North India where the Mauryan emperor preached the principle of Dhamma.

Temple Architecture Statement 1: Somnath Temple, revered among Hindus as the foremost among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva, resides in Prabhas Patan, Veraval, Gujarat. Statement 2: Al-Biruni's praise of Somnath Temple led Mahmud of Ghazni to visit in 1024. Statement 3: The contemporary reconstruction of Somnath Temple, initiated by Vallabhbhai Patel, concluded posthumously in May 1951 under Dr. Rajendra Prasad's supervision.

The correct matches are:

1. Anatolia - Turkey
2. Amhara - Ethiopia The incorrect matches are:
3. Cabo Delgado - Spain
4. Catalonia - Italy Anatolia is a region in Turkey, historically known as Asia Minor. Amhara is a region in Ethiopia, known for its historical significance and cultural heritage. The correct option is : (b) only two pairs

The correct option is: (c) only three pairs. Explanation:

1. Chad: China has no permanent military base in Chad.
2. Guinea: The military in Guinea has suspended the country's constitution and government, seizing power in a coup. Reference: Military in Guinea dissolves government and constitution.
3. Lebanon: Lebanon has been facing severe and prolonged economic depression, which has been widely reported in the news. Reference: Lebanon economic depression.
4. Tunisia: Tunisia's president suspended Parliament in a move that has sparked political turmoil in the country. Reference: Tunisia's president suspends Parliament. Therefore, three out of the four pairs given above are correctly matched based on recent events in each respective country.

The issue with the Senkaku Islands primarily revolves around maritime disputes between China and Japan in the East China Sea. These uninhabited islands, known as Diaoyu in China, are claimed by both countries, leading to tensions and occasional escalations in the region. Explanation: (a) Incorrect: The statement describes artificial islands in the South China Sea, not the Senkaku Islands in the East China Sea. (b) Correct: This statement accurately reflects the issue with the Senkaku Islands, as China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over their sovereignty. (c) Incorrect: There is no evidence of a permanent American military base on the Senkaku Islands, nor is it related to Taiwan's defense capabilities. (d) Incorrect: The Senkaku Islands are not declared as no man's land by the International Court of Justice, and their dispute mainly involves China and Japan. Correct Option: (b) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea. Reference: BBC News. (2021, September 29). Senkaku/Diaoyu Islands dispute between China and Japan - BBC News.

The correct option is: (d) 1, 2, and 3. Explanation:

1. The first statement is correct. According to the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), a coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. This is established under Article 3 of UNCLOS.
2. The second statement is also correct. UNCLOS grants ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea of other states. This principle is outlined in Article 17 of UNCLOS.
3. The third statement is correct as well. According to UNCLOS, the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) of a coastal state shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. This is specified in Article 57 of UNCLOS. Reference: United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), Part II - Territorial Sea and Contiguous Zone; Part V - Exclusive Economic Zone; available at:

The Organization of Turkic States (Turkic Council) is an international organization comprising countries with significant Turkic populations or cultural ties. The correct option based on the given countries is : (c) 2 and 5 Explanation:

1. Armenia: Armenia is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. It is not considered a Turkic country.
2. Azerbaijan: Azerbaijan is a member of the Organization of Turkic States. It has a significant Turkic population and shares cultural ties with other Turkic countries.
3. Croatia: Croatia is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. It is not considered a Turkic country.
4. Romania: Romania is not a member of the Organization of Turkic States. It is not considered a Turkic country.
5. Uzbekistan: Uzbekistan is a member of the Organization of Turkic States. It has a significant Turkic population and shares cultural ties with other Turkic countries.

The correct option is: (c) 2 and 3 only Explanation:

1. Bidibidi is indeed a large refugee settlement, but it is located in north-western Uganda, not Kenya. It was established in response to the South Sudan civil war. Reference: UNHCR. (n.d.). Bidibidi Refugee Settlement.
2. Bidibidi hosts a significant population of refugees who fled from the South Sudan civil war, making statement 2 correct. Reference: United Nations. (2021). South Sudan: Uganda - South Sudan - Refugee Influx - Overview.
3. Dadaab refugee complex is indeed located in Kenya and hosts refugees, including those who fled from the civil war in Somalia, making statement 3 correct. Reference: UNHCR. (n.d.). Dadaab Refugee Complex. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is incorrect regarding the location of Bidibidi.

The correct option is (c) 1, 3, and 4. Explanation:

1. Statement 1: Vietnam has indeed experienced rapid economic growth in recent years, making it one of the fastest-growing economies globally. This growth has been driven by various factors, including increased foreign investment, industrialization, and export-oriented policies.
2. Statement 2: Vietnam operates under a one-party political system, with the Communist Party of Vietnam (CPV) being the dominant political party. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect.
3. Statement 3: Vietnam's economic growth is indeed closely tied to its integration into global supply chains and emphasis on export-oriented industries. This strategy has played a significant role in driving economic development and attracting foreign investment.
4. Statement 4: Vietnam has been known for its relatively low labor costs and stable exchange rates, which have been attractive to global manufacturers seeking cost-effective production bases. This factor has contributed to Vietnam's attractiveness as an investment destination.
5. Statement 5: There is no specific evidence to support the claim that Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Therefore, statement 5 cannot be confirmed.

Among the countries listed, Azerbaijan does not share a border with Afghanistan.

The term "Levant" typically refers to the region along the eastern shores of the Mediterranean Sea. It encompasses countries such as Lebanon, Syria, Israel, Palestine, Jordan, and parts of Turkey and Cyprus. The term is often used in geopolitical contexts to refer to this specific area with historical, cultural, and political significance. Reference:

• Encyclopedia Britannica. (n.d.). Levant. In Encyclopedia Britannica. Retrieved from

Lake Faguibine in West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert. This transformation is attributed to various factors such as climate change, deforestation, and unsustainable water management practices. Reduced rainfall and increased evaporation rates have contributed to the shrinking of the lake, while human activities such as dam construction and diversion of water for irrigation have further exacerbated the situation. Reference:

• BBC News. (2019, April 30). Mali's disappearing Lake Faguibine. Retrieved from

Clouds

• Statement 1 is incorrect: Low clouds reflect solar radiation, cooling the Earth's surface.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: High clouds transmit solar radiation but trap outgoing infrared radiation, warming the surface.
• Cloud impact on surface temperature varies based on altitude, size, and composition.

Tea Production

• Black Soil: Also known as black cotton soil, formed from weathering of basaltic rocks during Cretaceous fissure eruption.
• Tea Climatic Conditions: Requires warm, moist, frost-free climate with ample rainfall and well-drained, fertile soil.

Rare Earth Metal Statements 1 and 2 are correct:

• Rare earth metals are lustrous, silvery-white, soft heavy metals, with China dominating global production.
• India's principal source is monazite, primarily found in coastal areas. Statement 3 is incorrect: Monazite is found mainly along the coasts of southern India. Statement 4 is correct: Indian Rare Earths Limited is authorized to produce and process monazite.

Gandikota Gorge:

• Situated on Pennar River, Andhra Pradesh, known as Grand Canyon of India.
• Formed when rivers erode through rock formations over time.
• Any valley formed by water flowing between steep rocks.
• Swift-flowing waters of River Pennar cut through granite rocks near Gandikota, forming a deep valley.
• Adjudged as the Grand Canyon of India.

Himalayan Peaks:

• Namcha Barwa is in Eastern Himalaya.
• Kumaon Himalayas lie between Satluj and Kali rivers, including Nanda Devi.
• Nokrek is in West Garo Hills of Meghalaya.

Reservoirs:

• Ghataprabha Reservoir: Belagavi district, Karnataka.
• Gandhi Sagar Dam: Mandsaur district, Madhya Pradesh.
• Indira Sagar Dam: Narmada Nagar, Punasa, Madhya Pradesh.
• Maithon Dam: Barakar River, Maithon, Jharkhand.

Motion of Earth

• Summer Solstice (21st June):
• The Northern Hemisphere tilts towards the sun, receiving direct sunlight on the Tropic of Cancer, leading to increased heat.
• 21st June marks the longest day and shortest night in the Northern Hemisphere, with daylight extending into the evening.
• Conversely, areas near the poles receive less direct sunlight due to slanting rays.
• Beyond the Arctic Circle, locations experience continuous daylight for about six months.
• With a significant portion of the Northern Hemisphere illuminated, it experiences summer, while the Southern Hemisphere experiences winter.

Certain species of ants are well known as cultivators of fungi. These ants, known as fungus-farming ants, cultivate fungi as their primary food source by creating specialized underground chambers where they cultivate fungal gardens. The ants provide the fungi with organic matter such as leaves, which the fungi then decompose and convert into a nutrient-rich substrate for the ants to consume. In return, the ants protect the fungi from pests and mold, ensuring the survival of their food source. Correct Option: (a) Ant Reference: Fowler, H.G., Forti, L.C. & Pereira-da-Silva, V. (1991). Predation, Herbivory, and Fungivory in Neotropical Agroecosystems. In D.J. Begon & A.H. Fitter (Eds.), Advances in Ecological Research (Vol. 21, pp. 1-43).

"Greenwashing" refers to the deceptive practice of conveying a false impression that a company's products or activities are environmentally friendly and eco-conscious when, in reality, they may not be. This term is often associated with misleading marketing tactics that aim to capitalize on consumer interest in sustainability without making substantial efforts to minimize environmental impact. Option (a) accurately describes the concept of greenwashing by highlighting the aspect of misleading consumers about the environmental attributes of products or services. The other options do not capture the essence of greenwashing. Reference: United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA). (2022). "Greenwashing." Retrieved from:

The correct option is: (d) 1 and 4 Explanation:

1. The statement "The Tea Board is a statutory body" is correct. The Tea Board of India is indeed a statutory body established under the Tea Act, 1953, to regulate the tea industry in India. Reference: Tea Board of India
2. The statement "It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare" is incorrect. The Tea Board of India operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. Reference: Tea Board of India - About Us
3. The statement "The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru" is incorrect. The head office of the Tea Board of India is located in Kolkata, West Bengal, not in Bengaluru. Reference: Tea Board of India - Contact Us
4. The statement "The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow" is correct. The Tea Board of India has overseas offices in various countries, including Dubai and Moscow, to promote Indian tea exports and facilitate trade. Reference: Tea Board of India - Overseas Offices

Statement 1: The India Sanitation Coalition (ISC) is indeed a platform dedicated to promoting sustainable sanitation practices in India. However, it is not funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization (WHO). Instead, it is a collaboration of various stakeholders including private sector organizations, NGOs, and government bodies. Reference: India Sanitation Coalition Statement 2: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is indeed an apex body under the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India. It serves as a think tank and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges faced by urban areas in India. Reference: National Institute of Urban Affairs Therefore, statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.

Polyethylene terephthalate (PET) is indeed widely used in various aspects of daily life. Let's analyze each statement:

1. Its fibers can be blended with wool and cotton fibers to reinforce their properties.
   • This statement is true. PET fibers are often blended with natural fibers like wool and cotton to enhance strength and durability.
   • Reference: "Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) Fiber Market Size, Share & Trends Analysis Report by Product (Solid, Hollow), by Application (Apparel, Home Textile), by Region, and Segment Forecasts, 2021-2028" - Grand View Research. (Source)
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
   • This statement is incorrect. While PET containers are commonly used for various beverages, including water and soft drinks, they are not suitable for storing all alcoholic beverages due to the potential for chemical interactions that may affect the beverage's quality.
   • Reference: "PET Plastic (Polyethylene Terephthalate): Uses, Properties & Structure" - Polymer Solutions. (Source)
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
   • This statement is true. PET bottles are highly recyclable and can be processed into various products, including fibers for textiles, packaging materials, and even furniture.
   • Reference: "Recycling Polyethylene Terephthalate" - ThoughtCo. (Source)
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.
   • This statement is incorrect. Incinerating PET articles may release greenhouse gases and other pollutants, contributing to environmental pollution.
   • Reference: "Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET) Resins Recycling and Recovery" - European PET Bottle Platform. (Source)

The correct option is (b) 1, 3 and 4 only. Explanation:

1. Statement 1 is incorrect. "The Climate Group" is indeed an international non-profit organization focused on climate action, but it primarily works by convening businesses and governments to accelerate climate solutions, rather than building large networks and running them.
2. Statement 2 is not mentioned in the provided context.
3. Statement 3 is correct. EP100 is a global initiative launched by the Climate Group in partnership with the International Energy Agency. It aims to bring together leading companies committed to enhancing energy efficiency and reducing emissions while driving innovation and competitiveness.
4. Statement 4 is correct. Several Indian companies are indeed members of EP100, demonstrating their commitment to energy efficiency and emission reduction goals.
5. Statement 5 is not mentioned in the provided context.

"Climate Action Tracker" is a database created by coalition research organizations to monitor the emission reduction pledges of different countries. It provides independent analysis and assessments of the climate actions and commitments made by various nations worldwide. The correct option is: (a) Database created by coalition research organizations.

Agriculture and Greenhouse Gases Option (b) is correct: Rice is a significant source of methane and nitrous oxide.

• Methane and nitrous oxide are major greenhouse gases after carbon dioxide.
• Rice paddies are crucial sources of these gases due to increased cultivation and climate warming.

System of Rice Intensification Option (d) is correct: All results come from the System of Rice Intensification.

• SRI involves cultivating rice with organic manure, young seedlings, and intermittent irrigation, aiming for higher productivity.
• SRI is not a fixed method but a comprehensive approach to resource management.

Air quality

• The 24-hour mean of PM 2.5 used to be 25 micrograms but has now dropped to 15.
• Ozone at ground level is formed by the reaction with sunlight of pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), not during inclement weather.
• PM, particularly PM2.5, affects human health by penetrating the lung barrier and causing breathing problems and lung diseases.
• Excessive ozone in the air triggers asthma, reduces lung function, and causes breathing problems.

Air Pollution

• Nitrous oxide and sulfur dioxide cause acid rain, which harms microorganisms, affects plant growth, and corrodes metals and stone buildings.
• Acid rain results from the reaction of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) with water, oxygen, and other chemicals to form sulfuric and nitric acids.

Guchhi Mushroom Option (c) correct: Guchhi Mushroom cultivated in Himalayan forests.

Golden Mahseer Option (a) correct: Native to Himalayan Rivers, endangered species.

Miyawaki Method of Urban Afforestation

• Miyawaki method promotes urban afforestation by creating mini-forests.
• Correct: It involves planting native trees densely to create self-sustainable forests.

Wetlands Option (b) correct:

• Hokera Wetland: Part of Jhelum basin.
• Renuka Wetland: Receives freshwater from lower Himalayas and Giri river.

Wetland Conservation Option (d) correct: Natural wetlands, dubbed "earth’s kidneys," filter pollutants, with aquatic plants absorbing heavy metals and nutrients.

Nitrogen Fixation Option (a) correct: Alfalfa, Chickpea, and Clover are nitrogen-fixing plants. Nitrogen Fixation:

• Nitrogen fixation is the process of converting atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into nitrogen compounds essential for biochemical processes.
• It occurs via atmospheric, industrial, or biological processes. Nitrogen-Fixing Plants:
• Clovers, vetches, and peas are nitrogen-fixing plants used globally, particularly in the Southern Great Plains of the US.
• Peas or beans can serve as summer nitrogen-fixing cover crops or food sources, enriching the soil with nitrogen.
• Various beans like fava, alfalfa, green, runner, field, sweet, peanuts, soybeans, cream, black-eyed, purple-hulled beans, lupins, lentils, and cowpeas are nitrogen-fixing plants.

Environment (Protection) Act, 1986/Central Ground Water Authority: The Central Ground Water Authority, established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, regulates groundwater development. This Act aims to protect and improve the environment, addressing pollution control and emission standards.

Wildlife Protection Important Provisions of Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, establishes regulations for hunted animals and specifies conditions for capturing or killing wild animals. It ensures equal protection for all wildlife, prohibits indiscriminate killing, and mandates capture or killing only when necessary for human safety.

Coral Reef Restoration:

• ZSI and Gujarat's forest department are collaborating to restore coral reefs in the Gulf of Kachchh using biorock technology.
• Biorock involves electro-accumulation of minerals on steel structures submerged in seawater, powered by solar panels.
• Bollgard II technology, containing genes Cry1Ac and Cry2Ab, protects cotton against pests, improving yield and reducing pesticide use.

DNA

• Carbon-14 dating is used by scientists to determine the age of plant and animal remains.
• DNA barcoding identifies species using short genetic markers, aiding in species identification and tackling issues like illegal trade and pest control.
• DNA barcoding is useful in authenticating processed food, monitoring illegal trade of natural resources, and identifying medicinal plants.

1. Probiotics, beneficial bacteria, aid disease prevention.
2. Incorrect: Probiotic bacteria are similar to those in the human body.
3. Probiotics in yogurt aid lactose digestion.

Basic Science (d) Correct: Lymphocytes include B and T cells, responsible for immune memory and response.

Information Technology: Software as a Service (SaaS) allows access to software via thin clients like browsers, enabling customisation of the user interface (UI) and access from multiple devices. SaaS services include Outlook, Hotmail, and Yahoo Mail.

Web 3.0 Technology: In a Web3 world, people control their own data, maintain blockchain-based social networks, and operate collectively rather than by corporations. The World Wide Web (Web) consists of websites stored in web servers accessible worldwide via the internet.

Quantum Computing: Quantum computers use qubits, which can be both 0 and 1 simultaneously, exploiting quantum mechanics for faster, accurate, and energy-efficient computations. Google's Sycamore claimed Quantum Supremacy by solving problems classical computers cannot.

Short Range Devices: Short-range radio devices encompass various wireless devices like access control, alarms, CCTV, wireless microphones, RFID, etc., operating without interference and protection.

Defence Infrastructure Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS)

• FOBS is a warhead delivery system that utilizes a low Earth orbit toward its target destination and de-orbits just before reaching the target through a retrograde engine burn.
• Developed by the Soviet Union in the 1960s, FOBS is a nuclear weapons delivery system.
• In August 2021, China tested a weapon combining FOBS with a hypersonic glide vehicle, allowing warheads to be directed to North America over the South Pole, evading detection by NORAD's north-facing early warning systems.
• FOBS operates at a maximum altitude of around 150 km, requiring a powerful launch vehicle capable of putting the weapon into orbit. However, the orbit is only a fraction of a full orbit, not sustained, reducing the need for precise orbit control.

Microorganisms

• Biofilms are collections of microbial cells encased in a polysaccharide-based matrix attached permanently to a surface.
• Biofilms can form on various surfaces, including living tissues, food processing surfaces, and medical devices.
• Biofilms attach to each other and surfaces, acting as barriers to antibiotics.
• Microorganisms forming biofilms include bacteria, fungi, and protists. Statement 1: Correct. Biofilms can form on a wide variety of surfaces, including living tissues and medical devices. Statement 2: Correct. Biofilms can act as barriers to antibiotics. Statement 3: Correct. Biofilms attach to surfaces and each other, contributing to their stability.

1. Aarogya Setu: Aarogya Setu is a mobile application developed by the Government of India to track and manage the spread of COVID-19. It provides users with information about COVID-19 and helps in identifying potential COVID-19 hotspots. The app was built with a mix of open-source and proprietary technologies.
2. CoWin: CoWin is a digital platform developed for the management of COVID-19 vaccination in India. It facilitates registration for vaccination, scheduling appointments, and tracking vaccination progress. CoWin has been developed as an open-source platform, allowing for transparency and collaboration in vaccine distribution.
3. DigiLocker: DigiLocker is a digital document storage and sharing platform provided by the Government of India. It allows users to store and access various documents, including identity proofs, educational certificates, and driving licenses, in digital format. DigiLocker is built on top of open-source technology to ensure security and accessibility.
4. DIKSHA: DIKSHA is a digital infrastructure for teachers developed by the Government of India. It provides access to resources, training modules, and educational content for teachers and students across the country. DIKSHA is based on open-source technologies to facilitate widespread adoption and collaboration in the education sector.

The correct option is (c) 1 and 3 only. Explanation:

1. The first statement is incorrect. Covishield, produced by the Serum Institute of India, is not based on mRNA platform; it is based on the viral vector platform. Covishield is the Indian version of the Oxford-AstraZeneca vaccine, which uses a chimpanzee adenovirus vector to deliver the genetic material to cells, triggering an immune response.
2. The second statement is not included in the given options.
3. The third statement is correct. COVAXIN, developed by Bharat Biotech in India, is an inactivated vaccine. It contains inactivated or killed SARS-CoV-2 virus particles, which cannot cause disease but can trigger an immune response, leading to the production of antibodies against the virus.

Nanoparticles
Nanoparticles: Particles smaller than 100 nm. Types include Carbon-based (Graphene), Metal-based (Nano silver, metal oxides), Natural (from forest fires, volcanic eruptions), and Anthropogenic (released during industrial processes). Nanoparticles in cosmetics provide sun protection. Exposure occurs during manufacturing and product usage, posing health risks.

Space Activity
Solar Flare: Sudden bursts of energy caused by magnetic field reorganization near sunspots. Flares emit high-energy radiation and charged particles, sometimes causing solar storms and auroras. Solar explosions can disrupt satellites and communication systems.

The Coal Controller's Organization (CCO) in India plays a crucial role in overseeing various aspects of coal production, distribution, and regulation. Here's a breakdown of the provided options along with their explanations:

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
   • This statement indicates that the CCO is responsible for providing essential coal-related statistics to the Government of India, which helps in policymaking, planning, and decision-making regarding the coal sector.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks.
   • This statement suggests that the CCO is involved in monitoring the development and progress of captive coal and lignite blocks, ensuring that these resources are being utilized effectively and efficiently.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
   • This statement implies that the CCO is involved in addressing objections related to the government's notifications regarding the acquisition of coal-bearing areas, ensuring transparency and fairness in the acquisition process.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.
   • This statement indicates that the CCO ensures timely delivery of coal from mining companies to end users, possibly through regulatory oversight and enforcement mechanisms. Explanation: The Coal Controller's Organization primarily focuses on regulatory functions such as monitoring the progress of captive coal/lignite blocks and addressing objections related to coal-bearing areas acquisition. While it may indirectly influence coal delivery to end users through its regulatory activities, direct enforcement of delivery timelines may fall under the jurisdiction of other regulatory bodies such as the Ministry of Coal or Coal India Limited. Reference: Government of India, Ministry of Coal. (n.d.). About Coal Controller's Organization. Retrieved from

The Labour Bureau, established in 1945, is the organization responsible for compiling information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments, and lay-offs in factories employing workers in India. It operates under the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The bureau collects, analyzes, and disseminates data related to labor and industrial relations to facilitate policy formulation and decision-making. Reference: Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India. (n.d.). Labour Bureau. Retrieved from

Procedure for the Amendment Statement 1 is incorrect: Prior permission of the President is not required to introduce the bill amending the Constitution in India. Statement 2 is correct: The 24th constitutional amendment made it obligatory for the President to give his assent when a Constitution Amendment Bill was presented to him. Statement 3 is correct: Article 368 of the Indian constitution requires that the constitution of India can be amended by both houses of parliament by a 2/3 majority (special majority). In case of disagreement between both houses, there is no provision to summon a joint session of parliament.

Writ Type and Scope

• Mandamus commands public officials to perform but can't be issued against private individuals or legislatures.
• Quo Warranto inquires into the legality of a claim to a public office and can be sought by any interested person.

Acts and Regulations under the Crown Rule (1858–1947) The Government of India Act 1919, known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, came into force in 1921 to ensure Indian representation in the Government. It established a dual scheme of governance called 'dyarchy' by dividing provincial subjects into transferred and reserved categories. Reserved Subjects (Options 1, 3, and 4): Administered by the governor through his executive council, including Law and Order, Finance, Land Revenue, and Administration of Justice. Transferred Subjects (Option 2): Administered by ministers nominated from elected members of the legislative council, including education, health, Local Self-Government, and industry.

People’s Representative/Speaker and Deputy Speaker: The Speaker determines the date of the Deputy Speaker's election, while the President fixes the Speaker's election date. There is no mandatory provision regarding the election of the Deputy Speaker from a specific party.

Exclusive powers of LS & RS Statement 1: The proclamation of Emergency requires approval from both Houses of Parliament within one month, extending for six months and can be further extended indefinitely with Parliament's approval every six months. Statement 2: No confidence Motion can only be initiated and passed in LS. Statement 3: Article 61 allows impeachment of the President for violating the Constitution, initiated by either House of Parliament, requiring a two-thirds majority in each house for passage.

Council of Ministers Statement 1: The Constitution refers to the 'council of ministers', not categorizing them into four distinct groups. Statement 2: The 91st CAA limits the number of Central and State Council of Ministers, including the PM/CM, to 15% of Lok Sabha's total strength, with a minimum of 12 in state legislatures.

Scheduled and Tribal Areas/Articles and Schedules of Indian Constitution Fifth Schedule:

• Deals with the Administration and Control of Scheduled Areas and Tribes.
• Governors can make regulations for Scheduled Areas after consulting the Tribal Advisory Council (TAC).
• Regulations may prohibit or restrict land transfer among scheduled tribes and regulate moneylending business.
• Applies to Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Provisions of the Anti-Defection Law Statement 1: Nominated members can join a political party within six months of taking office. Statement 2: No specified time for the Presiding Officer to decide on disqualification plea.

Attorney General Statement 1: Attorney General participates in parliamentary proceedings without voting rights. Statement 2: The AG's term is at the pleasure of the President, with no fixed tenure.

Contempt of Court

1. Correct: Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, brings transparency to contempt concepts.
2. Correct: Supreme Court and High Courts can penalize contempt under Articles 129 and 215.
3. Incorrect: The Constitution doesn't define Civil or Criminal Contempt; it's defined by the Contempt of Court Act.
4. Correct: Article 142(2) empowers the Supreme Court on contempt punishment.

Functions of Judiciary

1. Incorrect: Advocates Act, 1961, recognizes corporate lawyers and patent attorneys as advocates.
2. Correct: BCI recognizes law degree-offering universities and inspects them.

Financial Assistance The IMF provides rapid financial assistance through the RFI and RCF to countries facing balance of payment crises.

Exchange Rate NEER and REER measure currency valuation and competitiveness, influenced by inflation differentials.

Monetary Policy and External Commercial Borrowings Tight monetary policy affects currency value and borrowing costs, impacting external commercial borrowing risks.

Qualitative Tools to Control Inflation

• Incorrect: RBI selling government securities decreases money supply, controlling inflation.
• Correct: RBI intervenes in currency market to support rupee value.
• Correct: US interest rate changes affect Indian market, prompting RBI to buy or sell dollars.

Credit Rating

• Incorrect: Credit rating agencies regulated by SEBI, not RBI.
• Correct: ICRA set up in 1991 to rate debt instruments.
• Correct: Six credit rating agencies registered under SEBI in India.
• Credit rating assesses borrower creditworthiness, with international agencies dominating global ratings.

Bank Board Bureau

• Incorrect: Banks Board Bureau Chairman selected by government, not RBI governor.
• Correct: BBB recommends PSB head selections.
• Correct: BBB develops strategies to raise capital and improve PSB performance.

Monetary Policy

• Correct: RBI responsible for maintaining price stability and controlling inflation in India.
• Monetary policy aims at economic growth, price stability, exchange rate stabilization, and employment generation.

Convertible Bond

• Convertible bonds offer interest payments but can be converted into common stock.
• Conversion to equity provides indexation to rising consumer prices.

The correct option is (b) 2 only. Explanation:

1. Gujarat indeed has one of the largest solar parks in India, but it is not the largest. The largest solar park in India is located in Karnataka, namely the Pavagada Solar Park. Reference: Times of India - "Karnataka's Pavagada to house world's largest solar park"
2. Kerala does have an International Airport, Cochin International Airport, which is the first airport in the world to be fully powered by solar energy. Reference: Cochin International Airport Limited - "First fully solar powered airport"
3. As of the latest information, Goa does not have the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. The largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India is located in Kerala's Banasura Sagar reservoir. Reference: The Economic Times - "Kerala to get floating solar plant with 500 kW capacity" Therefore, only statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the correct choice.

The correct option is (d) 1, 2 and 3. Explanation:

1. The UN General Assembly indeed has the authority to grant observer status to non-member States. Observer status allows these entities to participate in the General Assembly's sessions and its work, although they do not have voting rights.
2. Inter-governmental organizations (IGOs) are also eligible to seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. Similar to non-member States, IGOs with observer status can participate in the General Assembly's proceedings and activities.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly, including entities like the Holy See and the State of Palestine, have the privilege of maintaining a mission at the UN headquarters. While they do not have full membership status, they have a permanent presence at the UN and participate in relevant discussions and activities. Reference: United Nations General Assembly Resolution 43/226, "Participation of International Intergovernmental Organizations in the Work of the United Nations" (1988) United Nations General Assembly Resolution 51/22, "Participation of the Holy See in the Work of the United Nations" (1996) United Nations General Assembly Resolution 3237 (XXIX), "Question of Palestine" (1974)

The 'polar code' refers to a specific set of regulations and standards designed to ensure the safe operation of ships in polar waters, particularly in the Arctic and Antarctic regions. These regulations address various aspects of ship design, construction, and equipment, as well as crew training and operational procedures, with the aim of mitigating the unique risks and challenges posed by navigation in icy and remote polar environments. Option (a) is the most accurate description of the polar code. It highlights its primary purpose as an international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters. Reference: International Maritime Organization (IMO). (n.d.). Polar Code. Retrieved from

The correct option is (a) 3 only. Explanation:

1. The statement that the "United Nations Credentials Committee" is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision is incorrect. The Credentials Committee is actually a subsidiary organ of the UN General Assembly, not the Security Council.
2. The statement about the committee traditionally meeting in March, June, and September every year is not accurate. The Credentials Committee typically meets annually, but the specific months can vary.
3. The statement indicating that the Credentials Committee assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval is correct. The committee reviews the credentials of representatives of UN member states to ensure their legitimacy before granting them the right to participate in the General Assembly sessions. Reference: United Nations. "Credentials Committee." Retrieved from:

The correct option is: (b) 2 and 3 only Explanation:

1. Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs) do not represent physical assets directly. Instead, they are digital assets themselves, representing ownership or proof of authenticity of digital content, such as artwork, videos, music, or virtual real estate. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
2. NFTs are indeed unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. Each NFT has distinct metadata and cannot be replicated or exchanged on a one-to-one basis, distinguishing them from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
3. While NFTs can be traded or exchanged, they do not have equivalency like fungible tokens. Each NFT has its own value based on factors such as scarcity, demand, and the perceived value of the underlying digital asset. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

India is a member of all three organizations mentioned:

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB): India is a founding member of the AIIB, which is a multilateral development bank aimed at supporting the building of infrastructure in the Asia-Pacific region. India played a significant role in the establishment of the AIIB in 2016.
2. Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR): India became a full member of the MTCR in 2016. The MTCR is a multilateral export control regime aimed at preventing the proliferation of missiles and unmanned aerial vehicles capable of delivering weapons of mass destruction.
3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO): India became a full member of the SCO in 2017. The SCO is a Eurasian political, economic, and security organization that aims to promote cooperation among its member states on various issues including security, counter-terrorism, and trade. Correct Option: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Expenditure Capital expenditure involves acquiring and maintaining physical assets, while equity financing raises capital through share sales.

Basic Concept of Economy The household savings and state debt composition reflect financial management in the economy.

Bonds and Securities

1. Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) safeguard savings from inflation, providing positive real returns by linking principal and interest to WPI/CPI.
2. IIBs were first issued globally in 1981 in the UK and in India by the RBI in June 2013, allowing trading in the secondary market.
3. Tax provisions apply to interest payment and capital gains on IIBs, with no special tax treatment.

Sectors of Economy

1. The real sector drives economic output, essential for GDP growth, represented by segments like farming and textile mills.
2. Farming and textile mills contribute significantly to meeting global demand, ensuring the economy's long-term viability.
3. The financial sector involves businesses offering financial services, distinct from real sector activities.
4. Activities like commercial bank lending and bond issuance overseas fall under the financial sector, not the real sector.