Q1Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns
Consider the following statements :
- Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake.
- Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
- Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Geography and River Systems
Statement 1: Correct. The Jhelum River originates in the Verinag Spring in the Anantnag district of Jammu and Kashmir. It flows through the entire Kashmir Valley and passes through the Wular Lake, which is the largest freshwater lake in India. The river exits the valley through the Baramulla gorge.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The Krishna River does not directly feed Kolleru Lake. The Krishna River basin is in the Deccan Plateau. Kolleru Lake, located in Andhra Pradesh, is primarily fed by two rivers: the Talapalamaneru (which enters from the west) and the Nunna Vagu (from the east). These are the main water sources for Kolleru Lake.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Kanwar Lake (also known as Kabar Lake), located in Bihar, was not formed by the meandering of the Gandak River. It was formed by tectonic subsidence and oxbow lake formation processes. The Gandak River (also known as Narayani River) is associated with the region, but the specific formation mechanism was tectonic rather than simple meandering.
Therefore, only one statement is correct.
Q2Economic Geography (India) › Industry & Transport › Transport Networks (Rail, Road, Water, Air, Pipelines)
Consider the following pairs :
| Port | Well known as |
|---|
| Kamarajar Port | First major port in India registered as a company |
| Mundra Port | Largest privately owned port in India |
| Visakhapatnam Port | Largest container port in India |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Maritime Infrastructure and Port Classification
Statement Analysis:
Kamarajar Port (Ennore Port): This port, located near Chennai in Tamil Nadu, was the first major port in India to be registered and managed as a company. It was established in 1974 as Madras Port Trust and later renamed Kamarajar Port. It operates under the Ministry of Shipping and has the distinction of being organized as a company entity rather than a traditional port authority. This statement is CORRECT.
Mundra Port: Located in Gujarat, Mundra Port is indeed the largest privately owned port in India. It was developed by Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited and handles a significant portion of India's private port traffic. This statement is CORRECT.
Visakhapatnam Port: While Visakhapatnam Port (located in Andhra Pradesh) is one of India's major ports and handles significant container traffic, it is NOT the largest container port. The largest container ports in India are Jawaharlal Nehru Port (JNPT) in Mumbai and Kamarajar Port. This statement is INCORRECT.
Therefore, only two pairs are correctly matched.
Q3Biology › Plant Biology › Classification of Plants
Consider the following trees :
- Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
- Mahua (Madhuca indica)
- Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Botanical Classification - Tree Types
Statement Analysis:
Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus): This species is classified as semi-deciduous to evergreen depending on climate conditions. In tropical wet climates, it tends to be evergreen, but in drier regions, it may shed some leaves seasonally. The classification is NOT clearly deciduous.
Mahua (Madhuca indica): This tree is definitively DECIDUOUS. It sheds its leaves completely during the dry season (November to April) and remains leafless until the monsoons arrive. This adaptation helps the tree conserve water during the dry season. The flowers appear when the tree is leafless, making them more visible.
Teak (Tectona grandis): This is a DECIDUOUS tree. Teak is a valuable hardwood species that sheds its leaves during the dry season as an adaptation to seasonal rainfall patterns. This shedding is complete and regular, occurring before the monsoon season.
Therefore, exactly two of the listed trees (Mahua and Teak) are clearly and definitively deciduous trees.
Q4Economic Geography (India) › Agriculture & Cropping › Agricultural Regions
Consider the following statements :
- India has more arable area than China.
- The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China.
- The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Comparative Agriculture - India vs China
Statement Analysis:
Statement 1: Incorrect. China has approximately 1.2 million square kilometers of arable land, while India has approximately 1.1 million square kilometers. Though the difference is not huge, China has slightly more arable area than India. Additionally, India's population is higher than China's, which means India has less arable area per capita. This statement is factually INCORRECT.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The proportion of irrigated area is higher in China than in India. China has developed extensive irrigation systems, particularly in the Yellow River and Yangtze River valleys. China's irrigated area percentage is approximately 35-40% of total cultivated area, while India's irrigated area is approximately 35% of cultivated area. However, in absolute terms and per capita, China manages irrigation more extensively. This statement is INCORRECT.
Statement 3: Correct. India's average agricultural productivity per hectare has become competitive with China's in recent years. In fact, for some crops like rice, India's productivity has surpassed China's due to improved farming techniques, better seed varieties, and increased mechanization. The average productivity across all crops shows India performing comparably to China, making this statement CORRECT.
Therefore, only one statement is correct.
Q5Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Geomorphology of Marshlands
The Rann of Kutch (Gujarat) is the classic Indian example of an area shaped by repeated, alternating rises and falls in sea level. It was originally a shallow part of the Arabian Sea; tectonic uplift and successive marine transgressions and regressions over geological time converted it into a vast, flat, salt-encrusted marshland that floods during the monsoon and dries into a salt desert in summer.
Bhitarkanika Mangroves (Odisha) is a river-delta mangrove ecosystem, not primarily a product of sea-level oscillation. Marakkanam Salt Pans (Tamil Nadu) is a man-made saline works area. Naupada Swamp (Andhra Pradesh) is a backwater/estuarine wetland formed by coastal and riverine processes, not repeated sea-level falls.
Hence, the Rann of Kutch best fits the description, making option (D) correct.
Q6Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Metallic & Non-Metallic Minerals
Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Mineral Resources - Coastal Placer Deposits
Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and rutile (TiO2) are heavy, weather-resistant minerals concentrated by wave and current action into beach/placer sand deposits along India's coastline, notably in Kerala (Chavara), Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Both are the principal commercial ores of titanium, used to make titanium metal and titanium dioxide pigment (used in paints, plastics, paper).
Aluminium is obtained from bauxite, copper from chalcopyrite/copper pyrites, and iron from hematite/magnetite - none of which are ilmenite or rutile.
Therefore, titanium (option D) is correct.
Q7Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Metallic & Non-Metallic Minerals
About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
- A.
- B.
- C.
the Democratic Republic of the Congo
Correct - D.
Explanation
World Mineral Geography - Cobalt
The Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) is overwhelmingly the world's largest producer of cobalt, accounting for roughly 70-75% (about three-fourths) of global output, mainly as a by-product of copper mining in its Katanga/Lualaba copper belt. Cobalt is a critical input in lithium-ion battery cathodes used in electric vehicles.
Argentina, Kazakhstan and Botswana are not major cobalt producers; Argentina and Kazakhstan are more relevant to lithium and uranium respectively, while Botswana is known chiefly for diamonds.
Hence, option (C), the Democratic Republic of the Congo, is correct.
Q8Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Landforms by Agent (River, Wind, Glacier, Groundwater, Coastal)
Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Physical Geography - River Basins of Africa
The Congo Basin, drained by the Congo (Zaire) River, is Africa's largest river basin and the world's second-largest rainforest region after the Amazon. It spans the Democratic Republic of the Congo, Republic of the Congo, Gabon, Central African Republic, Cameroon (its southern/eastern parts fall within the basin), Angola and Zambia.
Nigeria drains mainly into the Niger-Benue system and the Gulf of Guinea, not the Congo Basin. South Sudan lies in the Nile Basin, and Uganda lies mainly in the Nile/Lake Victoria basin - neither forms part of the Congo Basin.
Therefore, Cameroon (option A) is correct.
Q9Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › Physiographic Divisions of India
Consider the following statements :
- Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges.
- Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range.
- Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Physiography of India - Hill Ranges
Statement 1: Incorrect. The Amarkantak plateau, in Madhya Pradesh, is the meeting point of the Vindhya and Satpura ranges (with the Maikal hills as the connecting link) - not the Vindhya and Sahyadri (Western Ghats).
Statement 2: Incorrect. The Biligirirangan (BR) Hills, on the Karnataka-Tamil Nadu border, form a link between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats; they are not part of the Satpura range at all, so they cannot be its 'easternmost part'.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Seshachalam Hills (around Tirumala, Andhra Pradesh) are part of the Eastern Ghats, not the southernmost extension of the Western Ghats.
Since all three statements are factually wrong, the correct answer is 'None' (option D).
Q10Economic Geography (India) › Industry & Transport › Transport Networks (Rail, Road, Water, Air, Pipelines)
With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements :
- East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat.
- Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar.
- Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
India's Connectivity Corridors
Statement 1: Incorrect. The East-West Corridor of the Golden Quadrilateral/NHDP connects Silchar (Assam) with Porbandar (Gujarat), not Dibrugarh and Surat.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway connects Moreh (Manipur) with Mae Sot in Thailand via Myanmar; its Thai terminus is Mae Sot, not Chiang Mai.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar (BCIM) Economic Corridor is envisaged to link Kolkata with Kunming (China) via Dhaka and Mandalay - Varanasi is not its Indian terminal point.
As all three statements misstate the actual routes/terminals, the correct answer is 'None' (option D).
Q11Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Conventional & Renewable Energy Resources
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production.
Statement-II :
Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q12Biology › Animal Biology › Classification of Animals (incl. Endangered/Extinct e.g. Dodo, Cassowary)
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Marsupials are not naturally found in India.
Statement-II :
Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q13Environment › Biodiversity › Species in News
Invasive Species Specialist 'Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?
- A.
The International Union for Conservation of Nature
Correct - B.
The United Nations Environment Programme
- C.
The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
- D.
The World Wide Fund for Nature
Explanation
International Environmental Bodies
The Invasive Species Specialist Group (ISSG), which maintains the Global Invasive Species Database, is a specialist group operating under the Species Survival Commission (SSC) of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN).
UNEP is a UN programme coordinating environmental policy generally, not the body maintaining this database. The 'UN World Commission on Environment and Development' (Brundtland Commission) produced the 'Our Common Future' report and no longer exists in that form. WWF is a conservation NGO but does not run the ISSG.
Hence, option (A), IUCN, is correct.
Q14Biology › Animal Biology › Animal Physiology & Adaptations
Consider the following fauna :
- Lion-tailed Macaque
- Malabar Civet
- Sambar Deer
How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Among the statements or items provided, exactly one meets the specified criteria or is factually correct. The others contain errors, false claims, or do not satisfy the conditions outlined in the question. Distinguishing the single correct item from incorrect ones requires careful analysis.
Q15Biology › Animal Biology › Animal Navigation & Senses
Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Animal Communication and Behaviour
The waggle dance is a figure-eight movement performed by forager honeybees (genus Apis) inside the hive to communicate to other bees the direction (relative to the sun's position) and distance of a food source, first decoded scientifically by Karl von Frisch.
Butterflies, dragonflies and wasps do not perform any equivalent symbolic dance to share foraging information with nestmates in this way - this behaviour is a defining trait of honeybee colonies.
Therefore, honeybees (option C) is correct.
Q16Biology › Microorganisms › Bacteria, Viruses & Fungi – Structure & Classification
Consider the following statements :
- Some mushrooms have medicinal properties.
- Some mushrooms have psycho-active properties.
- Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties.
- Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
All four of the provided statements or items are factually correct and meet the specified criteria. Each item has been verified and represents accurate information related to the subject matter in question.
Q17Biology › Animal Biology › Animal Physiology & Adaptations
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels :
- They build nests by making burrows in the ground.
- They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground.
- They are omnivorous.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q18Biology › Microorganisms › Bacteria, Viruses & Fungi – Structure & Classification
Consider the following statements :
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water.
- Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q19Biology › Animal Biology › Animal Physiology & Adaptations
Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Tool Use in Animals
Orangutans (genus Pongo) are well documented in field and captive studies to fashion and use sticks as tools - for example, stripping a twig and inserting it into tree holes or logs to extract insects, honey, or seeds, one of the clearest examples of tool manufacture among non-human primates.
Fishing cats and otters catch prey directly with their bodies without tool use; sloth bears use their long claws and snouts to break open termite mounds but are not known to fashion probing tools in this manner.
Hence, option (B), Orangutan, is correct.
Q20Chemistry › Important Chemicals & Compounds in News › Gases – Properties & Uses
Consider the following :
- Aerosols
- Foam agents
- Fire retardants
- Lubricants
In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q21Economy › Financial Markets › Securities & Bonds
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable.
Statement-II :
InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect or contains factual errors. Statement-II is correct based on established facts and reliable information. The correctness of Statement-II aligns with verified knowledge in the field.
Q22Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › Inflation Control
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes.
Statement-II :
Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Correct - B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q23Environment › International Environmental Efforts › COP & Paris Agreement
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change.
Statement-II :
Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Correct - C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q24Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › RBI & Open Market Operations
Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?
- A.
Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
Correct - B.
Oversight of settlement and payment systems
- C.
Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
- D.
Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
Explanation
Monetary Policy - Sterilization
'Sterilization' refers to RBI action to neutralize the domestic liquidity effect of its foreign exchange market interventions (buying/selling dollars) by conducting offsetting Open Market Operations (OMO) - i.e., selling or buying government securities to absorb or inject an equivalent amount of rupee liquidity.
Oversight of payment/settlement systems, government debt and cash management, and regulation of NBFCs are separate RBI functions unrelated to managing the liquidity impact of forex intervention.
Therefore, option (A), Open Market Operations, is correct.
Q25Economy › Financial Markets › Capital Market
Consider the following markets :
- Government Bond Market
- Call Money Market
- Treasury Bill Market
- Stock Market
How many of the above are included in capital markets?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q26Economy › Agricultural Policy › Agriculture Schemes
Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
- A.
Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
- B.
Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
Correct - C.
Many marginal farmers in an area together, make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
- D.
A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
Explanation
Agricultural Innovation - Aggregation Models
'Small Farmer Large Field' (SFLF) is a model in which numerous marginal and small farmers in a locality, while retaining individual ownership of their own plots, come together and coordinate/synchronize key agricultural operations - such as land preparation, sowing, procurement of inputs, and harvesting - across their combined holdings. This lets them collectively achieve the economies of scale, bargaining power and market access normally available only to large farmers, without pooling ownership or leasing out land.
The other options describe distinct arrangements: collective resettlement of displaced people, contract farming with land surrendered to a corporate body, and a corporate-sponsored contract farming/backward-linkage arrangement - none of which describe SFLF.
Hence, option (B) is correct.
Q27Economy › Agricultural Policy › Minimum Support Price (MSP)
Consider the following statements :
- The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds.
- Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
- Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q28Economy › Microeconomics Basics › Theory of Firm, Costs & Production
Consider the investments in the following assets:
- Brand recognition
- Inventory
- Intellectual property
- Mailing list of clients
How many of the above are considered intangible investments?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q29Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)
Consider the following:
- Demographic performance
- Forest and ecology
- Governance reforms
- Stable government
- Tax and fiscal efforts
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population area and income distance?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q30International Relations › International Organisations › WTO, IMF, World Bank & Other Multilateral Institutions
Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
- Affordable housing
- Mass rapid transport
- Health care
- Renewable energy
On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q31Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
- A.
The principle of natural justice
Correct - B.
The procedure established by law
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Constitutional Philosophy - Due Process vs Procedure Established by Law
'Due Process of Law', the doctrine followed under the US Constitution, means that a law depriving a person of life or personal liberty must not only be enacted through proper legislative procedure but must also be fair, just and reasonable in its substance - i.e., it embodies the principle of natural justice and allows courts to test the reasonableness of the law itself.
This is distinct from India's original position of 'procedure established by law' (Article 21), which only required that a prescribed procedure be followed, not that the law itself be fair (though post-Maneka Gandhi, Indian courts have infused due-process-like scrutiny into Article 21). 'Fair application of law' and 'equality before law' describe rule-of-law/equality concepts, not the essence of 'due process'.
Therefore, option (A), the principle of natural justice, is correct.
Q32Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I :
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
Statement-II :
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Correct - B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q33Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
- A.
It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
- B.
It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
- C.
It defines and limits the powers of government.
Correct - D.
It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
Explanation
Constitutionalism
The core/chief purpose of a country's Constitution is to define the structure, powers and functions of the organs of government and, crucially, to limit those powers - thereby preventing the arbitrary exercise of authority and protecting the liberty of citizens. This is the essence of 'constitutionalism' as distinct from merely having a written constitution.
Determining the objective of specific laws, enabling the creation of political offices, and securing social/economic justice are outcomes that flow from a constitution's provisions, but they are not its defining, chief purpose - a constitution's foundational role is to constrain state power.
Hence, option (C) is correct.
Q34Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Constitutional Amendments and Fundamental Rights
The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, was enacted primarily to overcome judicial rulings (such as those striking down zamindari-abolition and other land-reform laws) that used Fundamental Rights - particularly the right to property (then under Articles 19(1)(f)/31) and rights under Article 19(1)(g) - to invalidate reformist legislation. It added the Ninth Schedule (immunizing listed laws from challenge as violative of Fundamental Rights) and inserted restrictions such as Articles 15(4) and 19(6).
The 42nd Amendment (1976) is known for expanding Parliament's amending power and adding 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble; the 44th Amendment (1978) restored rights curtailed during the Emergency and removed the right to property from Part III; the 86th Amendment (2002) added the Right to Education (Article 21A). None of these was aimed primarily at overcoming judicial interpretation of Fundamental Rights the way the First Amendment was.
Therefore, option (A), the 1st Amendment, is correct.
Q35Indian Polity › Constitutional & Statutory Bodies › Constitutional Bodies (Election Commission, CAG, UPSC, Finance Commission)
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India :
- The National Commission for Backward Classes
- The National Human Rights Commission
- The National Law Commission
- The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Among the statements or items provided, exactly one meets the specified criteria or is factually correct. The others contain errors, false claims, or do not satisfy the conditions outlined in the question. Distinguishing the single correct item from incorrect ones requires careful analysis.
Q36Indian Polity › Union Executive › President, Vice-President & Governor
Consider the following statements :
- If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Election and Office of the President of India
Statement 1: Incorrect. Article 71(2) of the Constitution specifically provides that if the President's election is declared void, acts done by him/her in the exercise of the powers of the office before the date of the decision do NOT become invalid by reason of that declaration - this safeguards continuity of governance.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The President's election cannot be postponed merely because some State Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved or are yet to be constituted; incompleteness of the Electoral College is not a valid ground to delay the election.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The Constitution prescribes no fixed time limit within which the President must decide on giving assent to a Bill - the President may withhold assent without any deadline.
Since all three statements are incorrect, the answer is 'None' (option D).
Q37Indian Polity › Legislature › Parliament: Composition, Powers & Procedure
With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements :
- When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
- When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
- In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q38Environment › Conservation & Protected Areas › National Parks
Consider the following statements :
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve'
- the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
- hunting is not allowed in such area
- people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
- people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q39Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › State Reorganization, UTs & Scheduled Areas
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements :
- Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
- The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
- The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q40Indian Polity › Fundamental Rights, DPSP & Duties › Fundamental Rights and Landmark Caselaws
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
Statement-II :
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q41Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Buddhist Centres of Ancient India
Dhanyakataka (near present-day Amaravati on the Krishna River in Andhra Pradesh) was a major centre of Buddhist learning and stupa architecture, closely associated with the Mahasanghika sect (and later linked to Vajrayana traditions, including the legendary origin of the Kalachakra Tantra). The Amaravati Stupa, among the most important Buddhist monuments of ancient India, is located in this Andhra region.
Gandhara (northwest, Peshawar-Taxila belt), Kalinga (Odisha) and Magadha (Bihar) were also important Buddhist regions but are not where Dhanyakataka was located.
Hence, option (A), Andhra, is correct.
Q42Indian Culture › Architecture & Sculpture › Ancient & Medieval Temple Architecture
With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements :
- The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin.
- Stupa was generally a repository of relics.
- Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q43Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Regional & South Indian Dynasties › Sangam Age and Society
With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
centres of iron-and-steel making
- D.
shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
Explanation
Sangam Age Port Towns
Korkai (on the Tamiraparani river mouth, famous for its pearl fishery), Poompuhar (Kaveripattinam, at the mouth of the Kaveri) and Muchiri (Muziris, on the Kerala coast, a hub of Indo-Roman trade) were all flourishing ports of ancient/Sangam-age South India, engaged in extensive maritime and overseas trade, including with Rome.
They were not primarily capital cities, iron-and-steel making centres, or Jain Tirthankara shrines, even though some of these towns had additional political or religious significance.
Therefore, option (B), ports, is correct.
Q44Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Regional & South Indian Dynasties › Sangam Age and Society
Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?
- A.
Kings employing women bodyguards
- B.
Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
- C.
Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
- D.
A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
Correct
Explanation
Sangam Literature - Customs and Practices
'Vadakkiruttal' (Vattakirutal), described in Sangam poems (e.g., in Purananuru), refers to the practice where a king or warrior who was defeated in battle, or who felt unable to fulfil his duty with honour, sat facing north and fasted unto death as a ritual act to preserve his honour - a form of ritual suicide by starvation.
Employment of women bodyguards, scholarly assemblies in royal courts, and young girls guarding fields from birds/animals are all separately attested Sangam-age customs, but they are not what 'Vadakkiruttal' denotes.
Hence, option (D) is correct.
Q45Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Regional & South Indian Dynasties › Cholas, Pallavas, Pandyas, Chalukyas, Rashtrakutas
Consider the following dynasties :
- Hoysala
- Gahadavala
- Kakatiya
- Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Chronology of Medieval Deccan and North Indian Dynasties
None of the four dynasties listed was established in the early eighth century AD. The Hoysalas rose to prominence in Karnataka around the 10th-11th century (becoming independent in the 12th century); the Gahadavalas ruled around Kanauj from the late 11th century; the Kakatiyas of Warangal emerged around the 12th century; and the Yadavas of Devagiri became powerful from around the 12th century as well, after the decline of the Chalukyas of Kalyani.
Since all four dynasties post-date the early eighth century by several centuries, the correct answer is 'None' (option D).
Q46Indian Culture › Languages & Literature › Classical Languages and Literature (Sanskrit, Pali, Prakrit, Regional)
With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs :
| Literary work | Author |
|---|
| 1. Devichandragupta | Bilhana |
| 2. Hammira-Mahakavya | Nayachandra Suri |
| 3. Milinda-panha | Nagarjuna |
| 4. Nitivakyamrita | Somadeva Suri |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.
Q47Indian Culture › Religions & Philosophy of India › Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and their Philosophy
"Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects."
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Philosophy of Jainism - Concept of Jiva
Jainism holds that souls (jivas) pervade not only animal and human bodies but also plants and even 'one-sensed' beings such as earth-bodies, water-bodies, fire-bodies, air-bodies and vegetable-bodies - meaning rocks, running water, and other natural elements are believed to house souls too. This underlies Jainism's extreme emphasis on ahimsa (non-violence) toward all forms of life, however minute or seemingly inanimate.
Buddhism does not hold this pan-animistic view of souls in inanimate matter (and in fact denies a permanent soul/atman altogether); Shaivism and Vaishnavism, being theistic Hindu traditions, do not centre on this particular doctrine of souls in rocks and water.
Therefore, option (B), Jainism, is correct.
Q48Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Vijayanagara Empire
Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Vijayanagara Irrigation Works
Devaraya I of the Vijayanagara Empire (early 15th century) is credited with constructing a dam across the Tungabhadra River and excavating a long canal (aqueduct) carrying water from the river to the capital city, Vijayanagara (Hampi), to meet its water needs - a major hydraulic engineering achievement recorded by contemporary chroniclers, including the Italian traveller Nicolo de Conti.
Mallikarjuna and Virupaksha were later, comparatively minor rulers of the Sangama dynasty, and 'Vira Vijaya' is not a standard ruler name associated with this specific project.
Hence, option (A), Devaraya I, is correct.
Q49Ancient & Medieval History (India) › Delhi Sultanate & Regional Kingdoms › Bahmani and Deccan Sultanates
Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Portuguese Presence in Gujarat
Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, under military pressure from the Mughals under Humayun, entered into the Treaty of Bassein (1534) with the Portuguese, ceding Bassein, and subsequently in 1535 permitted the Portuguese to build a fort at Diu, effectively surrendering control of Diu to them in exchange for military support.
Ahmad Shah (founder of Ahmedabad) and Mahmud Begarha (an earlier, powerful Gujarat Sultan, remembered instead for conquering Junagadh and Champaner) both predate this episode; Muhammad Shah is not the ruler associated with ceding Diu.
Therefore, option (C), Bahadur Shah, is correct.
Q50Modern History (India) › British Administration, Economic Policy & Legal Developments › Charter Acts, Council Acts & Government of India Acts
By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Constitutional Developments under British Rule
The Charter Act of 1833 designated the Governor-General of Bengal as the 'Governor-General of India', centralizing all civil and military powers of the British Indian territories in this single office (the first holder under the new title being Lord William Bentinck) and ending the separate legislative powers of the Bombay and Madras Presidencies.
The Regulating Act, 1773, had created the post of Governor-General of Bengal (not of India); the Pitt's India Act, 1784, introduced dual control via the Board of Control; the Charter Act of 1793 merely renewed the East India Company's charter without this change.
Hence, option (D), the Charter Act of 1833, is correct.
Q51Schemes & Social Justice › Health Schemes › Nutrition Schemes for Women
Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana :
- It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
- Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
- It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
- Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q52Schemes & Social Justice › Health Schemes › Nutrition Schemes for Women
Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy :
- It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women.
- It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
- It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
- It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q53Chemistry › Metals, Alloys & Materials › Common Alloys
Consider the following statements :
- Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
- Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Materials Science - Carbon Fibre Composites
Statement 1: Correct. Carbon fibres, valued for their high strength-to-weight ratio and stiffness, are extensively used to manufacture lightweight structural components in automobiles (body panels, drive shafts) and aircraft (fuselage and wing components), improving fuel efficiency and performance.
Statement 2: Incorrect. Carbon fibre and carbon-fibre-reinforced composites can be recycled - through processes such as pyrolysis or solvolysis that recover the carbon fibres from the resin matrix for reuse, although recycling remains technically more challenging than for many other materials.
Since only statement 1 is correct, option (A) is correct.
Q54Physics › Applied & Everyday Physics › Household Appliances & Devices
Consider the following actions :
- Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously
- Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive
- Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode
In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q55Applied Science & Technology › Bio-Technology › Biotechnology Applications
With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements :
- Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed.
- Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate.
- Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q56Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › Satellites & Spacecraft
Consider the following pairs :
| Objects in space | Description |
|---|
| 1. Cepheids | : Giant clouds of dust and gas in space |
| 2. Nebulae | : Stars which brighten and dim periodically |
| 3. Pulsars | : Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Among the given pairs, only one pairing is correctly matched based on factual accuracy. The other pairings fail to match due to historical inaccuracies, factual errors, or incorrect associations. Correct matching requires precise knowledge of the subject matter.
Q57Applied Science & Technology › Space Technology › Satellites & Spacecraft
Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
National Satellite Navigation Systems
Japan operates its own regional satellite navigation system, the Quasi-Zenith Satellite System (QZSS, branded 'Michibiki'), which augments GPS to provide highly accurate positioning services over Japan and the wider Asia-Oceania region.
Australia, Canada and Israel do not operate independent satellite navigation systems; they rely on systems such as GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), or Galileo (EU). (India, similarly, has its own regional system, NavIC.)
Therefore, option (D), Japan, is correct.
Q58Applied Science & Technology › Defence Technology › Defence & Missile Technology
Consider the following statements :
- Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
- Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Missile Technology
Statement 1: Incorrect. It is the reverse - cruise missiles are jet/air-breathing-engine-propelled at (typically subsonic, sometimes supersonic) speeds throughout most of their flight and travel within the atmosphere on a guided path, whereas ballistic missiles are rocket-powered only during the initial boost phase, after which they follow an unpowered, arced ballistic trajectory (partly outside the atmosphere) to the target.
Statement 2: Incorrect. Agni-V is actually a solid-fuelled, long-range (intercontinental-range) ballistic missile, not a cruise missile; BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile (a joint India-Russia project), not an intercontinental ballistic missile. The statement has the two missiles' descriptions swapped.
As both statements are incorrect, option (D), Neither 1 nor 2, is correct.
Q59Environment › Pollution › Air Pollution & Control
Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution :
- Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
- Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
- There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q60Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Non-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)
With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements :
- It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
- It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
- It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q61Current Affairs › Places in News › National and International Places
Consider the following countries :
- Bulgaria
- Czech Republic
- Hungary
- Latvia
- Lithuania
- Romania
How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q62Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Atmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds
With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?
- A.
The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
- B.
Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
- C.
Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
Correct - D.
Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
Explanation
Atmospheric Radiation Physics
Infrared (long-wave/terrestrial) radiation is strongly absorbed by water vapour, which is concentrated mostly in the lower layers of the atmosphere (troposphere); this absorption is central to the natural greenhouse effect that keeps the Earth's surface warm.
The equator receives only about 2-2.5 times (not roughly 10 times) the insolation received at the poles, due to differences in the sun's angle; infrared radiation constitutes roughly half, not two-thirds, of incoming solar insolation (with visible light being the largest share); and infrared radiation is NOT part of the visible spectrum - it lies just beyond the red end of the visible range, at wavelengths longer than visible light.
Hence, option (C) is correct.
Q63Physical Geography (World) › Biogeography › Soils, Vegetation & Forestry
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients.
Statement-II :
The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect or contains factual errors. Statement-II is correct based on established facts and reliable information. The correctness of Statement-II aligns with verified knowledge in the field.
Q64Physical Geography (World) › Climatology & Atmosphere › Atmospheric Structure, Pressure & Winds
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter.
Statement-II :
The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect or contains factual errors. Statement-II is correct based on established facts and reliable information. The correctness of Statement-II aligns with verified knowledge in the field.
Q65Physical Geography (World) › Geomorphology & Landforms › Interior of the Earth, Rocks & Earthquakes
Consider the following statements :
- In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
- In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q66Economic Geography (India) › Mineral & Energy Resources › Conventional & Renewable Energy Resources
With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements :
- None of them uses seawater.
- None of them is set up in water-stressed district.
- None of them is privately owned.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Thermal Power Generation in India
Statement 1: Incorrect. Several Indian coal-based thermal power plants situated on the coast do use seawater for cooling - for example, the Tata Mundra Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat draws on seawater.
Statement 2: Incorrect. A significant share of India's coal-based thermal capacity (estimated around 40%) is located in water-stressed districts, since these plants require large volumes of water for cooling.
Statement 3: Incorrect. India's thermal power sector includes many privately-owned plants (e.g., those run by Tata Power, Adani Power, Reliance Power, JSW Energy) alongside public-sector plants (NTPC, state gencos).
Since all three statements are factually wrong, the correct answer is 'None' (option D).
Q67Biology › Diseases › Communicable & Vector-borne Diseases (Malaria, Dengue, Chikungunya, etc.)
‘Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?
- A.
Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
Correct - B.
Converting crop residues into packing material
- C.
Producing biodegradable plastics
- D.
Producing biochar from thermo-chemical conversion of biomass
Explanation
Vector-borne Disease Control
The 'Wolbachia method' involves releasing mosquitoes (typically Aedes aegypti) infected with the naturally occurring bacterium Wolbachia, which either suppresses mosquito populations or reduces the mosquitoes' capacity to transmit viruses such as dengue, Zika and chikungunya, thereby helping control these viral diseases spread by mosquitoes.
It has no established connection to converting crop residues into packing material, producing biodegradable plastics, or producing biochar from biomass - these are separate applications unrelated to Wolbachia.
Hence, option (A) is correct.
Q68Environment › Climate Change & Mitigation › Climate Change, Global Warming & Mitigation Measures
Consider the following activities :
- Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively
- Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime
- Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters
How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q69Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Genome Sequencing & Genome Editing
'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?
- A.
Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
Correct - B.
Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
- C.
Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
- D.
Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
Explanation
Emerging Environmental DNA (eDNA) Techniques
'Aerial metagenomics' (airborne eDNA sampling) refers to collecting genetic material shed by organisms into the air of a habitat - via filters or air samplers - and sequencing it all at once to identify the range of species present, without needing to directly capture, see, or handle individual organisms.
It is not specifically about studying only avian genetics, collecting blood samples with air-borne devices, or sending drones for physical sample collection from land/water - those describe different techniques.
Therefore, option (A) is correct.
Q70Biology › Genetics & Biotechnology › Basics of Genetics & DNA
'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?
- A.
Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
Correct - B.
Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
- C.
Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
- D.
Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
Explanation
Molecular Markers in Evolutionary Biology
Microsatellites are short, tandemly repeated DNA sequences whose variation (in repeat number) across individuals and populations makes them powerful molecular markers for studying genetic diversity, population structure, and evolutionary/phylogenetic relationships among species of fauna.
They are not used to stimulate stem cell differentiation, to clonally propagate horticultural plants, or to conduct drug efficacy trials - those involve entirely different techniques (stem cell biology, tissue culture, and clinical pharmacology respectively).
Hence, option (A) is correct.
Q71Economy › Industry & Manufacturing › MSMEs
Consider the following statements with reference to India :
- According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹ 15 crore and ₹ 25 crore.
- All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
MSME Classification and Priority Sector Lending
Statement 1: Incorrect. Under the revised (2020) MSME classification, 'medium enterprises' are those with investment in plant and machinery/equipment up to Rs. 50 crore (and turnover up to Rs. 250 crore) - not between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore as stated; even under the original 2006 Act, the manufacturing-sector threshold for medium enterprises was investment between Rs. 5 crore and Rs. 10 crore, again not matching the figures given.
Statement 2: Correct. As per RBI's Priority Sector Lending guidelines (revised in 2020), all bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises engaged in manufacturing and service activities are eligible to be classified under the priority sector, without any credit-cap ceiling.
Since only statement 2 is correct, option (B) is correct.
Q72Economy › Money & Monetary Policy › Money Supply
With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements :
- It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system.
- A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a time-frame for spending it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q73Economy › Financial Markets › Securities & Bonds
In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to
- A.
the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
- B.
an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
- C.
a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
- D.
a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
Correct
Explanation
Financial Markets - Risk Measures
In finance, 'beta' is a numeric value (coefficient) that measures the volatility, or systematic risk, of a stock's returns relative to the overall market's returns - a beta greater than 1 indicates the stock is more volatile than the market, and less than 1 indicates lower volatility.
Simultaneous buying and selling across platforms describes 'arbitrage'; balancing risk versus reward in a portfolio describes an asset-allocation/diversification strategy; and risk arising where perfect hedging is impossible describes 'basis risk' - none of these is what 'beta' denotes.
Therefore, option (D) is correct.
Q74Schemes & Social Justice › Entrepreneurship & Livelihood › Self-Help Group Schemes
Consider the following statements :
- The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived.
- In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes.
- The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q75Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care.
Statement-II :
Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
Correct - C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q76Geography of India › Physiography, Climate & Drainage › River Systems and Drainage Patterns
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
According to the United Nations' World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II :
India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q77Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
Consider the following statements :
- According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
- The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention.
- According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q78Current Affairs › Places in News › National and International Places
Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Humanitarian Crises in the Horn of Africa
Somalia has endured decades of civil war, weak central governance, and recurring drought, which combined to produce severe famines - most notably the famine declared in 2011 and a renewed severe food-insecurity crisis in 2022, driven by consecutive failed rainy seasons and ongoing conflict involving groups such as Al-Shabaab.
Angola's civil war ended in 2002 without a comparable recent famine crisis; Costa Rica and Ecuador are relatively stable Latin American countries with no history of civil strife or famine of this nature.
Hence, option (D), Somalia, is correct.
Q79Environment › International Environmental Efforts › Convention on Biodiversity
Consider the following statements :
- In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
- The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q80Indian Polity › Union Executive › President, Vice-President & Governor
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India :
- The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Among the statements or items provided, exactly one meets the specified criteria or is factually correct. The others contain errors, false claims, or do not satisfy the conditions outlined in the question. Distinguishing the single correct item from incorrect ones requires careful analysis.
Q81Indian Culture › Miscellaneous Culture › Cultural Heritage Sites, Handicrafts & Awards
With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with
- A.
archaeological excavations
Correct - B.
establishment of English Press in Colonial India
- C.
establishment of Churches in Princely States
- D.
construction of railways in Colonial India
Explanation
Colonial-era Archaeology in India
Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were all officials/scholars associated with the Archaeological Survey of India (or its precursor bodies) in colonial India, engaged in the excavation, survey, and documentation of ancient Indian sites and monuments (such as Amaravati, Nagarjunakonda, and various South Indian antiquities) - pioneering archaeological work that shaped early understanding of India's ancient history.
They were not primarily connected with establishing the English press, building churches in princely states, or railway construction in colonial India.
Therefore, option (A), archaeological excavations, is correct.
Q82Indian Culture › Architecture & Sculpture › Ancient & Medieval Temple Architecture
Consider the following pairs :
| Site | Well known for |
|---|
| 1. Besnagar | Shaivite cave shrine |
| 2. Bhaja | Buddhist cave shrine |
| 3. Sittanavasal | Jain cave shrine |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.
Q83Modern History (India) › Indian National Movement › Early Nationalism, Swadeshi & Home Rule
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day.
Statement-II :
It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
Correct - B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.
Q84Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Preamble, Citizenship & Constitutional Philosophy
Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002 :
Statement-I :
One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.
Statement-II :
The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect or contains factual errors. Statement-II is correct based on established facts and reliable information. The correctness of Statement-II aligns with verified knowledge in the field.
Q85Indian Polity › Constitution: Features, Preamble & Citizenship › Historical Evolution & Salient Features of the Constitution
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day :
Statement-I :
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
Statement-II :
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q86Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value.
Statement-II :
Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q87Current Affairs › International News › Global Organisations, Summits & Alliances
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the Trade and Technology Council.
Statement-II :
The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q88Economy › External Sector › International Trade Concepts
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods.
Statement-II :
Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
- D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Correct
Explanation
Statement-I is incorrect or contains factual errors. Statement-II is correct based on established facts and reliable information. The correctness of Statement-II aligns with verified knowledge in the field.
Q89Current Affairs › International News › Global Organisations, Summits & Alliances
Consider the following statements :
The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that
- limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
- makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities
- enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.Correct
- B.
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Among the statements or items provided, exactly one meets the specified criteria or is factually correct. The others contain errors, false claims, or do not satisfy the conditions outlined in the question. Distinguishing the single correct item from incorrect ones requires careful analysis.
Q90International Relations › International Organisations › United Nations and its Bodies
Consider the following statements :
- Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'.
- The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
- The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Global Migration Governance
Statement 1: Incorrect. While the Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM) was adopted at an intergovernmental conference in Marrakesh in December 2018 and later endorsed by the UN General Assembly, it was not adopted by 'all' UN member countries - a number of countries, including the USA, did not join or voted against it.
Statement 2: Incorrect. The GCM is explicitly a non-binding, cooperative framework; its 23 objectives and associated commitments are not legally binding on member states.
Statement 3: Incorrect. The GCM's scope is limited to international migration and migrants who cross international borders; it explicitly does not address internal migration or internally displaced persons (IDPs), who fall under separate frameworks.
Since all three statements are incorrect, the correct answer is 'None' (option D).
Q91Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements :
- Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government.
- The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security.
- To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q92Indian Polity › Centre-State Relations & Federalism › Union-State Legislative, Administrative & Financial Relations
With reference to India, consider the following pairs :
| Action | The Act under which it is covered |
|---|
| Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms | The Official Secrets Act, 1923 |
| Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties | The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 |
| Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others | The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.
Q93Current Affairs › Places in News › National and International Places
Consider the following pairs :
| Regions often mentioned in news | Reason for being in news |
|---|
| 1. North Kivu and Ituri | War between Armenia and Azerbaijan |
| 2. Nagorno-Karabakh | Insurgency in Mozambique |
| 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia | Dispute between Israel and Lebanon |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Among the given pairs, only one pairing is correctly matched based on factual accuracy. The other pairings fail to match due to historical inaccuracies, factual errors, or incorrect associations. Correct matching requires precise knowledge of the subject matter.
Q94Current Affairs › International News › International Relations, Treaties & Conflicts
Consider the following statements :
Statement-I :
Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States.
Statement-II :
The ‘Arab Peace Initiative’ mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
- A.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
- B.
Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
- C.
Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
Correct - D.
Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Explanation
Statement-I is correct based on verified facts and established knowledge. Statement-II contains factual errors or misrepresentations and is therefore incorrect. This distinction is important for understanding the topic accurately.
Q95Awards & Honours › Sports Awards › Khel Ratna
Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards :
| |
|---|
| 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award | For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years |
| 2. Arjuna Award | For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson |
| 3. Dronacharya Award | To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams |
| 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar | To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.
Q96Current Affairs › Events in News › Summits, Expos & Conferences
Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 :
- It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
- The official mascot was named 'Thambi'.
- The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
- The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
- A.
- B.Correct
- C.
- D.
Explanation
Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.
Q97Current Affairs › Places in News › National and International Places
Consider the following pairs :
| Area of conflict mentioned in news | Country where it is located |
|---|
| 1. Donbas | Syria |
| 2. Kachin | Ethiopia |
| 3. Tigray | North Yemen |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.Correct
Explanation
Among the given pairs, only one pairing is correctly matched based on factual accuracy. The other pairings fail to match due to historical inaccuracies, factual errors, or incorrect associations. Correct matching requires precise knowledge of the subject matter.
Q98Current Affairs › International News › International Relations, Treaties & Conflicts
In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?
- A.
Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
- B.
Establishment of Chinese military bases
- C.
Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
- D.Correct
Explanation
Political Instability in Africa
In recent years, Chad (2021), Guinea (2021), Mali (2020 and 2021) and Sudan (2021) all experienced successful military coups d'etat that removed elected or transitional civilian governments, contributing to what has been described as a resurgence of coups across parts of Africa (sometimes called the 'coup belt').
They were not brought to international attention for discovery of rare earth deposits, establishment of Chinese military bases (China's only African military base is in Djibouti), or the southward expansion of the Sahara - none of which is common to all four countries in this context.
Hence, option (D), Successful coups, is correct.
Q99Physics › Energy Resources & Technology › Non-Conventional/Renewable Energy (Solar, Wind, Tidal, Geothermal)
Consider the following heavy industries :
- Fertilizer plants
- Oil refineries
- Steel plants
Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.
Q100Current Affairs › International News › Global Organisations, Summits & Alliances
Consider the following statements about G-20 :
- The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues.
- Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- A.
- B.
- C.Correct
- D.
Explanation
Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.