UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Atmospheric Heating Mechanism Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. The atmosphere is NOT heated primarily by incoming solar radiation. Here is the correct mechanism:

Solar radiation enters the Earth's atmosphere. Most of this radiation (about 77% on average) passes through the atmosphere and reaches the Earth's surface. The remaining 23% is reflected or absorbed by clouds, gases, and particles in the atmosphere. This incoming solar radiation does not directly heat the atmosphere significantly.

The atmosphere is actually heated SECONDARILY by terrestrial (long-wave) radiation. After solar radiation heats the Earth's surface, the surface re-radiates this energy in the form of long-wave (infrared) radiation. This terrestrial radiation is what primarily heats the atmosphere. INCORRECT.

Statement II: Correct. Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases (methane, nitrous oxide, water vapor) ARE strong absorbers of long-wave radiation. These gases:

• Absorb outgoing long-wave radiation from Earth's surface
• Re-radiate this energy in all directions, including back to Earth
• Trap heat in the atmosphere, creating the greenhouse effect
• Are transparent to incoming short-wave solar radiation but opaque to outgoing long-wave radiation

This asymmetry is the fundamental mechanism of the greenhouse effect. CORRECT.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Troposphere Characteristics and Convection Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The troposphere is indeed much thicker at the equator compared to the poles:

• Equatorial troposphere thickness: Approximately 16-18 km
• Polar troposphere thickness: Approximately 8-9 km
• This represents a significant difference of about 8-9 km

This variation is caused by temperature differences and the dynamics of atmospheric circulation.

Statement II: Correct. The mechanism behind Statement I: At the equator, intense solar heating causes strong convectional currents in the atmosphere. Warm air rises to greater heights, expanding the troposphere vertically. This convective activity creates cumulus and cumulonimbus clouds that extend high into the troposphere. The Hadley cell circulation system at the equator reinforces this upward motion of air. CORRECT.

Causal Relationship: Statement II directly explains WHY Statement I occurs. The strong convectional currents are the mechanism that causes the troposphere to be thicker at the equator. This is a direct causal relationship, not merely a correlation.

Therefore, both statements are correct, and Statement II correctly explains Statement I.

Volcanic Eruption Products Statement Analysis:

All four listed items are confirmed products of volcanic eruptions:

1. Pyroclastic debris: Solid fragments ejected during explosive eruptions. These include pumice, lapilli, ash, blocks, and bombs of various sizes. Pyroclastic flows and surges are among the most dangerous volcanic hazards.

2. Ash and dust: Fine particles (less than 2mm) produced by fragmentation of magma, rocks, and minerals during explosive eruptions. Volcanic ash can travel thousands of kilometers and reach the stratosphere, affecting climate globally.

3. Nitrogen compounds: Volcanic gases include NO, NO2, and other nitrogen oxides. These are formed at high temperatures within the magma and released during eruptions. Nitrogen compounds contribute to atmospheric chemistry and can cause acid rain.

4. Sulphur compounds: Sulfur dioxide (SO2) and hydrogen sulfide (H2S) are major volcanic gases. SO2 is particularly important as it combines with water to form sulfuric acid aerosols in the stratosphere, which can cool the climate significantly.

All four are scientifically confirmed products of volcanic activity.

Isotherm Patterns and Ocean Currents Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. In January (Northern Hemisphere winter):

• Isotherms deviate to the north over oceans: Oceans retain heat due to high specific heat capacity of water. They cool more slowly than land. Therefore, isotherms bend northward (toward the equator) over oceans compared to surrounding areas.
• Isotherms deviate to the south over continents: Continents cool rapidly in winter. Therefore, isotherms bend southward (away from the equator) over land areas.

This pattern is caused by differential heating and cooling rates between land and water. CORRECT.

Statement II: Incorrect. Contains a major factual error:

• The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift: These are WARM ocean currents, not cold currents. They transport warm tropical water northward.
• Effect on North Atlantic: These warm currents WARM the North Atlantic, making it warmer than expected for its latitude. This is why Western Europe (e.g., British Isles) has milder winters than Eastern Canada at similar latitudes.
• Isotherm effect: Because of these warm currents, isotherms actually bend AWAY from the north (toward the south), not toward the north.

Statement II is factually INCORRECT.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

World's Leading Cocoa Producers This is a direct factual question on global agricultural geography.

Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana together dominate world cocoa production, together accounting for well over half of global cocoa bean output. Côte d'Ivoire alone supplies roughly 40% of the world's cocoa and is the single largest producer, with Ghana a close second. Both lie in West Africa's humid coastal belt, whose warm temperatures, high and evenly distributed rainfall, and forest soils are ideal for cocoa cultivation.

The distractors are geographically implausible: Algeria and Morocco lie in the arid Mediterranean/Saharan climate of North Africa, unsuited to cocoa; Botswana and Namibia are dominated by the semi-arid Kalahari; and Madagascar and Mozambique, while they do grow some cocoa/cash crops, are minor producers by comparison.

Therefore, Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana is correct.

Sequence of Ganga's Himalayan Tributaries Downstream of Prayagraj Below Prayagraj (Allahabad), the Ganga is joined from the north (Himalayan side) successively by the Gomati, Ghaghara, Gandak and Kosi, in that west-to-east order, before it enters West Bengal.

• Gomati joins the Ganga near Kaithi/Ghazipur (Uttar Pradesh), the westernmost of the four confluences.
• Ghaghara (Sarayu) joins near Chhapra (Bihar/UP border), east of the Gomati confluence.
• Gandak joins near Patna/Sonepur, further east.
• Kosi, the "Sorrow of Bihar", joins the Ganga near Kursela in eastern Bihar, the easternmost confluence of the four.

This gives the sequence Gomati - Ghaghara - Gandak - Kosi from west to east.

Therefore, option B is correct.

Chemical Weathering of Rocks by Rainwater Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. Rainfall is indeed one of the causes of weathering of rocks, both mechanically (impact and percolation) and, more importantly, chemically.

Statement II: Correct. Rainwater absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere as it falls, forming a weak carbonic acid (H2CO3). This mildly acidic rainwater reacts with minerals in rocks - especially carbonates in limestone and feldspars in granite - dissolving and breaking them down. This process, carbonation, is a major agent of chemical weathering (e.g., it produces karst landscapes in limestone regions).

Statement III: Incorrect. Rainwater does not carry meaningful dissolved atmospheric oxygen in a form that drives rock weathering the way carbon dioxide does; oxidation of rocks (e.g., of iron-bearing minerals) occurs mainly through direct contact with moist air rather than via oxygen "contained in" rainwater. So this statement is not the standard textbook explanation.

Since only Statement II (not III) is correct and it directly explains the mechanism behind Statement I, option A is correct.

Countries Bordering the North Sea The North Sea is bordered by Norway, Denmark, Germany, the Netherlands, Belgium, France and the United Kingdom.

Checking the given list:

1. Finland - does not border the North Sea; it lies on the Baltic Sea/Gulf of Bothnia.
2. Germany - borders the North Sea (its northern coast, including ports like Hamburg's outlet and Bremerhaven). Correct.
3. Norway - its southwestern coast borders the North Sea. Correct.
4. Russia - does not border the North Sea; its European coastline lies on the Baltic and Arctic seas.

Only Germany and Norway among the four listed countries border the North Sea.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Waterfalls, Their Regions and Rivers Checking each row:

1. Dhuandhar Falls is on the Narmada river at Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, which lies in the Mahakoshal/central Madhya Pradesh region, not the Malwa region. This pairing is incorrect on the region.

2. Hundru Falls is formed by the Subarnarekha river in the Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand). Both the region and the river are correctly matched.

3. Gersoppa (Jog) Falls, in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, is formed by the Sharavathi river, not the Netravati. This pairing is incorrect.

Only row 2 (Hundru - Chota Nagpur - Subarnarekha) is correctly matched.

Therefore, Only one is correct.

Mountain Ranges: Region and Type Checking each row:

1. The Vosges mountains lie in eastern France (Europe), not Central Asia, and they are block mountains (formed by faulting associated with the Rhine Rift Valley), not fold mountains. This row is wrong on both counts.

2. The Alps, in Europe, are classic fold mountains formed by the collision of the African and Eurasian plates - not block mountains. This row is incorrect.

3. The Appalachians of North America are old, eroded fold mountains formed in the Palaeozoic era. This row is correctly matched.

4. The Andes of South America are young fold mountains formed along the subduction zone of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate. This row is correctly matched.

Rows 3 and 4 are correct, so two of the four rows are correctly matched.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Greenfield Airport Projects A "Greenfield" airport is one built entirely on a new site, as opposed to expansion/upgradation of an existing airport ("Brownfield").

1. Donyi Polo Airport, Itanagar (Arunachal Pradesh) - inaugurated in 2022, built on an entirely new site; a genuine Greenfield project.
2. Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh) - inaugurated in 2021 on a new site as a Greenfield international airport, developed partly to boost Buddhist circuit tourism.
3. Vijayawada International Airport - this is the existing Gannavaram Airport that was upgraded and granted international status; it is a Brownfield expansion, not a Greenfield project.

Hence, only Donyi Polo and Kushinagar qualify as recent Greenfield airport projects.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only is correct.

Water Vapour in the Atmosphere Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. Water vapour decreases rapidly with increasing altitude because it originates mainly from evaporation at the Earth's surface (oceans, water bodies, vegetation) and because the air's capacity to hold moisture falls as temperature falls with height; almost all atmospheric water vapour is confined to the lower troposphere.

Statement II: Incorrect. Water vapour content is not maximum at the poles - it is maximum in warm, humid regions such as the equatorial and tropical zones, where high temperatures allow the air to hold much more moisture. Polar and desert air, being cold or dry, holds the least water vapour.

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is correct.

Identifying the Climate Type The description given - low annual and daily temperature range, precipitation spread throughout the year, and annual precipitation of 50-250 cm - matches the Marine (Maritime) West Coast climate (Koppen's Cfb/Cfc type), found on the western margins of continents in the mid-latitudes (e.g., British Isles, coastal Pacific Northwest, southern Chile, New Zealand).

This equability of temperature and year-round rainfall results from the moderating influence of onshore westerly winds blowing off relatively warm oceans, aided in places by warm currents.

By contrast: the Equatorial climate has uniformly high temperatures with a negligible annual range but far higher rainfall (often 200+ cm, all convectional); the China type (humid subtropical) climate has a distinct hot summer and cool winter with a much larger annual temperature range and summer-concentrated (monsoonal) rain; and Humid subtropical climate similarly shows a marked seasonal temperature swing.

Therefore, Marine West coast climate is correct.

Coriolis Force: Key Properties Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Coriolis force is proportional to the velocity of the moving object (wind); the faster the wind blows, the stronger the deflecting force acting on it.

Statement II: Correct. The Coriolis force is a function of the sine of latitude: it is zero at the equator (where sin 0° = 0) and reaches its maximum at the poles (where sin 90° = 1).

Both statements are independently true facts about the Coriolis force, but the second does not explain the first - they describe two separate properties (dependence on velocity, and dependence on latitude) rather than one causing the other.

Therefore, Both 1 and 2 is correct.

Duration of Daylight on June 21 (Summer Solstice, Northern Hemisphere) On June 21, the Sun is directly overhead the Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N), and the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the Sun.

1. Equator: Always receives exactly 12 hours of daylight throughout the year, regardless of solstice - not "more than" 12 hours. Incorrect.
2. Tropic of Cancer: Being in the summer hemisphere and closer to the subsolar point, it experiences more than 12 hours of daylight on this date. Correct.
3. Tropic of Capricorn: Being in the winter hemisphere on this date, it experiences less than 12 hours of daylight. Incorrect.
4. Arctic Circle (66.5°N): On June 21 it lies within the circle of illumination throughout Earth's rotation and experiences continuous (24-hour) daylight - the "midnight sun." Correct.

So latitudes 2 (Tropic of Cancer) and 4 (Arctic Circle) experience more than 12 hours of sunlight.

Therefore, 2 and 4 is correct.

World's Largest Tropical Peatland The Cuvette Centrale peatland complex in the Congo Basin (spanning the Republic of Congo and the Democratic Republic of Congo) was identified by researchers in 2017 as the world's largest tropical peatland. It stores an estimated 30 billion tonnes of carbon - roughly equivalent to about three years of the world's total fossil-fuel carbon emissions. Because this carbon has accumulated over millennia in waterlogged, oxygen-poor swamp forest soils, disturbance or drainage of the peatland (e.g., for logging, agriculture, or oil exploration) could release enormous amounts of carbon dioxide and methane, worsening global climate change.

The Amazon Basin, Kikori Basin (Papua New Guinea) and Rio de la Plata Basin, while ecologically significant, do not hold this record for tropical peatland extent and carbon storage.

Therefore, Congo Basin is correct.

Perfluoroalkyl and Polyfluoroalkyl Substances (PFAS) Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. PFAS - used in non-stick cookware, water-repellent fabrics, firefighting foams and food packaging - have been detected widely in drinking water supplies, in various foods, and in food-contact packaging materials across the world.

Statement II: Correct. PFAS contain extremely strong carbon-fluorine bonds that resist natural degradation processes, which is why they are popularly called "forever chemicals" - they persist in soil, water and the environment for very long periods.

Statement III: Correct. Because PFAS are not readily metabolised or excreted, they accumulate progressively in the tissues of animals (and humans) that are repeatedly exposed to them, i.e., they bioaccumulate up the food chain.

All three statements are well-established facts about PFAS.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Parasitoid Organisms A parasitoid is an organism (usually an insect) that spends a significant portion of its life attached to or within a single host, ultimately killing it - unlike a true parasite, which normally does not kill its host.

1. Carabid beetles - certain carabid beetle groups/larvae are known parasitoids of other insects (e.g., some attack pupae of moths). Counted as parasitoid.
2. Centipedes - centipedes are predators that actively hunt and kill prey; they are not parasitoids.
3. Flies - many fly families (e.g., Tachinidae) are classic parasitoids, laying eggs in or on other insects whose larvae then consume the host.
4. Termites - termites are detritivores/wood-feeders, not parasitoids.
5. Wasps - parasitoid (parasitic) wasps such as Ichneumonidae and Braconidae are among the best-known parasitoid insects, laying eggs inside caterpillars and other hosts.

Parasitoid species are found among carabid beetles, flies and wasps - three of the five groups.

Therefore, Only three is correct.

Plants of the Pea (Legume) Family The pea family, Fabaceae (formerly Leguminosae), is characterised by pod-like fruits and, in most members, the ability to fix atmospheric nitrogen through root-nodule bacteria.

1. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) - belongs to Fabaceae.
2. Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum) - belongs to Fabaceae.
3. Soybean (Glycine max) - belongs to Fabaceae.

All three are pulses/legumes and therefore members of the pea family.

Therefore, All three is correct.

The Indian Flying Fox Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus), a large fruit bat, has historically been placed in Schedule V ("vermin") of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, reflecting its treatment as an agricultural pest in some contexts (it damages orchard fruit) rather than a strictly protected species.

Statement II: Incorrect. The Indian Flying Fox is a frugivore (fruit-eating bat) that feeds on fruit, nectar and flowers; it does not feed on blood. Blood-feeding ("vampire") bats are a distinct group found only in the Americas and are not found in India.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is factually wrong, option C is correct.

Classifying Cicada, Froghopper and Pond Skater All three organisms named - the Cicada, the Froghopper (spittlebug) and the Pond skater (water strider) - belong to the class Insecta, specifically within (or close to) the order Hemiptera ("true bugs"): cicadas and froghoppers are classic hemipterans that feed on plant sap, while pond skaters are hemipteran bugs adapted to walk on the surface of water using surface tension.

They are not birds, fish, or reptiles - none of these organisms share features (six legs, three body segments, exoskeleton) with those groups; rather, all the listed traits are hallmark insect characteristics.

Therefore, Insects is correct.

Chewing Gum and Environmental Pollution Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. Discarded chewing gum is a well-documented source of environmental pollution - it does not readily decompose, sticks to pavements and surfaces, and persists in the environment for a very long time.

Statement II: Correct. Most commercial chewing gums use a synthetic gum base made from petroleum-derived plastic/rubber polymers (replacing the natural chicle once used), which is non-biodegradable.

The plastic-based gum base explains why used chewing gum does not break down and instead persists as litter and micro-plastic pollution - i.e., Statement II is the reason behind Statement I.

Therefore, option A is correct.

Country and Native Animal Pairs Checking each pair against actual native ranges:

1. Brazil - Indri: The Indri is a large lemur species found only in Madagascar, not Brazil. Incorrect.
2. Indonesia - Elk: Elk (wapiti) are native to North America and parts of temperate Asia; they are not found in Indonesia's tropical archipelago. Incorrect.
3. Madagascar - Bonobo: The Bonobo is a great ape found only in the Democratic Republic of Congo, not Madagascar (whose signature primates are lemurs). Incorrect.

Each pair mismatches the animal's actual native habitat, so none of the three pairs given is correctly matched.

Therefore, None is correct.

World Toilet Organization Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. The World Toilet Organization (WTO) is not a United Nations agency; it is an international non-profit organisation founded in Singapore in 2001 that works on sanitation advocacy in partnership with governments, the UN and other bodies.

Statement II: Correct. The organisation runs the World Toilet Summit, observes World Toilet Day (19 November, which the UN General Assembly itself later adopted), and runs the World Toilet College for training, all aimed at inspiring action against the global sanitation crisis.

Statement III: Incorrect. Its core role is awareness, advocacy, training and partnership-building rather than being a grant-disbursing fund for least-developed and developing countries to end open defecation.

Since only Statement II is correct, option A is correct.

Behaviour of Big Cats Statement Analysis:

1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season; lionesses can come into oestrus and mate at any time of year, and cubs are born year-round. Correct.
2. Unlike most other big cats (lions, tigers, jaguars and leopards, which roar), cheetahs cannot roar - their throat and larynx structure allows only purring, chirping and other softer vocalisations. Correct.
3. Unlike lions, male leopards are in fact well known to mark and defend territory using scent marking (urine spraying, scratching, faecal deposits) - this is a standard leopard territorial behaviour, so the claim that they do not do so is incorrect.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is false.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only is correct.

100 Million Farmers Platform "100 Million Farmers" is a multi-stakeholder platform (associated with the World Economic Forum) aimed at accelerating the transition of food and water systems towards being net-zero in carbon emissions and nature-positive, while building the resilience and livelihoods of smallholder and other farmers worldwide, using innovation, finance and policy support.

This description matches option A precisely. The other options describe unrelated initiatives - an organic animal husbandry network, a blockchain-based fertilizer trading platform, and a Farmer Producer Organisation market-access platform - none of which correspond to "100 Million Farmers."

Therefore, option A is correct.

Distributed Energy Resources (DERs) Distributed Energy Resources are small-scale power generation or storage technologies (typically 1 kW to 10 MW) located close to where electricity is used, rather than centralised at large power plants.

1. Battery storage - stores and dispatches electricity locally; a recognised DER.
2. Biomass generators - small-scale, decentralised generation from organic matter; a DER.
3. Fuel cells - on-site electrochemical power generation; a DER.
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units - the quintessential example of decentralised, consumer-sited generation; a DER.

All four are widely classified as Distributed Energy Resources.

Therefore, All four is correct.

Fig and Its Obligate Pollinator The Fig (Ficus species) has a unique, tightly coevolved mutualism with fig wasps (family Agaonidae). Each fig species is typically pollinated by only one specific species of fig wasp, which enters the fig's enclosed inflorescence (syconium) to lay its eggs, pollinating the flowers in the process; in turn, the fig provides the only site where that wasp can reproduce. Neither partner can complete its life cycle without the other, making this one of the most specialised plant-pollinator relationships in nature.

Mahua, Sandalwood and Silk cotton do not have such an exclusive, single-species pollinator relationship - they are pollinated by a range of insects, birds or bats.

Therefore, Fig is correct.

Poisonous Species Among Butterflies, Fish and Frogs

1. Butterflies - several species (e.g., the Monarch butterfly) sequester toxic compounds (such as cardiac glycosides from milkweed) as larvae, making the adult butterflies poisonous/unpalatable to predators.
2. Fish - numerous fish are poisonous, most famously pufferfish (which contain the potent neurotoxin tetrodotoxin), as well as certain other species.
3. Frogs - poison dart frogs (family Dendrobatidae) and various other frog species secrete potent toxins/alkaloids through their skin as a defence mechanism.

All three groups include genuinely poisonous species.

Therefore, All three is correct.

Trees Native to India

1. Cashew (Anacardium occidentale) - native to Brazil/tropical America; it was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 16th century. Not native.
2. Papaya (Carica papaya) - native to Mexico/Central America; also introduced to India later. Not native.
3. Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus) - native to the Eastern Ghats of India (chiefly Andhra Pradesh), and found nowhere else naturally; a genuinely indigenous species.

Only Red sanders among the three is actually native to India.

Therefore, Only one is correct.

Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generators (RTGs) Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. RTGs are not miniature fission reactors - they contain no chain reaction or reactor core. They generate electricity passively via the Seebeck effect, converting the heat released by the natural radioactive decay of an isotope directly into electricity using thermocouples.

Statement II: Correct. RTGs are widely used to power onboard systems of deep-space and other spacecraft (e.g., Voyager probes, Cassini, the Mars Curiosity and Perseverance rovers) where solar power is inadequate or unreliable.

Statement III: Correct. The isotope most commonly used in modern RTGs, Plutonium-238, is produced as part of nuclear fuel-cycle/weapons-related processes and is a by-product associated with weapons-material production programmes.

Since statements 2 and 3 are correct while statement 1 is false, option B is correct.

Lifespans and Nuclear Reaction Rates of Giant vs Dwarf Stars Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. Giant (massive) stars actually have much shorter lifespans than dwarf (low-mass) stars. Massive stars burn through their nuclear fuel far more rapidly and may exist for only a few million years, whereas small, low-mass dwarf stars (like red dwarfs) can shine steadily for tens of billions of years - far longer than the current age of the universe.

Statement II: Correct. The very reason giant stars burn out quickly is that they have a much greater rate of nuclear fusion reactions in their cores - their higher mass produces much greater core temperature and pressure, driving fusion at a far faster pace than in smaller, dwarf stars.

Since Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct, option D is correct.

Nitric Oxide as a Vasodilator Nitric oxide (NO) is a small signalling gas molecule synthesised in the human body (notably by the endothelial cells lining blood vessels) from the amino acid L-arginine, via the enzyme nitric oxide synthase. It relaxes the smooth muscle of blood vessel walls, causing vasodilation, which increases blood flow and lowers blood pressure. This discovery (of NO as a cardiovascular signalling molecule) earned the 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine.

Nitrous oxide (a distinct compound, "laughing gas," used as an anaesthetic), nitrogen dioxide (a toxic pollutant gas) and nitrogen pentoxide (an unstable oxidising compound) are not physiological vasodilators synthesised for this purpose in the body.

Therefore, Nitric oxide is correct.

Applications of Radar Technology

1. Identification of narcotics on passengers/in aircraft - this is typically done using ion-mobility spectrometry, X-ray baggage scanners and trained detection methods, not radar, which works by detecting reflected radio waves from objects and is not suited to chemical/substance identification. Not a valid radar application.

2. Monitoring of precipitation - weather (Doppler) radar is a standard, widely used tool to detect and track rainfall, storms and precipitation intensity. Valid radar application.

3. Tracking the migration of animals - "radar ornithology/biology" uses radar systems to detect and track the movement of birds, insects and other migrating animals across large areas, including at night. Valid radar application.

Radar is genuinely used in activities 2 and 3, but not in activity 1.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Generations of Fighter Aircraft

1. Rafale - a French-made 4.5 generation multirole fighter (advanced avionics and some low-observable features, but not true fifth-generation stealth).
2. MiG-29 - a Soviet-era fourth-generation fighter, first inducted in the 1980s.
3. Tejas Mk-1 - India's indigenous Light Combat Aircraft, classified as a fourth/4.5 generation fighter.

None of the three listed aircraft is a fifth-generation fighter (true fifth-generation aircraft, such as the F-35 or Su-57, feature all-aspect stealth, advanced sensor fusion and supercruise capability, which none of these three possess).

Therefore, None is correct.

Applications of Hydrogels

1. Controlled drug delivery in patients - hydrogels are extensively used as controlled/sustained drug-delivery systems because their water-swollen polymer network can be engineered to release a drug gradually. Valid application.

2. Mobile air-conditioning systems - this is not a standard or recognised application of hydrogels; mobile air-conditioning relies on vapour-compression refrigeration technology, not hydrogel-based materials.

3. Preparation of industrial lubricants - conventional industrial lubricants are oil- or grease-based, not hydrogel-based; this is not a standard hydrogel application.

Only controlled drug delivery among the three listed uses is a genuine, established application of hydrogels.

Therefore, 1 only is correct.

Exhaust from Hydrogen Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles In a Fuel Cell Electric Vehicle (FCEV), hydrogen stored onboard reacts electrochemically with oxygen from the air within the fuel cell to generate electricity that powers the motor. The only by-product of this reaction (2H2 + O2 -> 2H2O) is water, which is expelled from the tailpipe as water vapour (and sometimes as fine water droplets). This is why FCEVs are considered zero tailpipe-emission vehicles.

Hydrogen peroxide, hydronium ions and oxygen are not the emitted by-product of this fuel-cell reaction.

Therefore, Water vapour is correct.

Pumped-Storage Hydropower Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) works by pumping water from a lower reservoir to an upper reservoir when electricity is cheap/surplus (e.g., excess solar/wind power), and releasing it back down through turbines to generate electricity during peak demand. Because it can store very large amounts of energy for extended periods (hours to days) and discharge it on demand, PSH is currently the world's leading technology for long-duration, grid-scale energy storage - a topic that has become prominent in the context of integrating variable renewable energy into power grids.

It is not related to irrigation of terraced fields, lift irrigation of crops, or rainwater harvesting, which serve entirely different purposes.

Therefore, Long duration energy storage is correct.

Membrane Bioreactors A Membrane Bioreactor (MBR) combines a biological treatment process (activated sludge, using microorganisms to break down organic pollutants) with a physical membrane filtration step (micro- or ultra-filtration) in a single unit. This combination produces very high-quality treated effluent and a smaller physical footprint than conventional treatment, and MBRs are now widely deployed in municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants for recycling and reuse of water.

They are not associated with assisted reproduction, drug-delivery nanotechnology, or vaccine production.

Therefore, Wastewater treatment technologies is correct.

Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligation is a money-market instrument in India that enables entities (particularly those without access to the interbank call money market, such as mutual funds, insurance companies and NBFCs) to borrow and lend funds for very short tenures against the collateral of government securities, through the Clearing Corporation of India (CCIL).

Because it is a short-term borrowing/lending instrument used for managing day-to-day liquidity, it belongs to the money market, not the long-term bond market, the foreign exchange (forex) market, or the equity (stock) market.

Therefore, Money market is correct.

Total Fertility Rate The Total Fertility Rate (TFR) is a standard demographic measure defined as the average number of live births a woman would have during her entire reproductive/child-bearing age span (conventionally 15-49 years), assuming she experiences the age-specific fertility rates prevailing in a given year and survives through her reproductive years.

It is distinct from the crude birth rate (births per 1,000 population per year), and from the natural growth rate (birth rate minus death rate); nor is it simply "children born to a couple," since TFR is calculated for the female population as a whole using age-specific fertility data, not per couple.

Therefore, option D is correct.

Instruments and Participants in Indian Financial Markets Statement Analysis:

1. Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) can access the RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) window, subject to eligibility - true; RBI has extended LAF access to select NBFCs to help manage systemic liquidity, especially since post-2018 reforms.

2. Foreign Institutional Investors (FIIs)/Foreign Portfolio Investors are permitted to invest in and hold Indian Government Securities (G-Secs), within limits set by RBI/SEBI - true, and this is a long-standing feature of India's debt market.

3. Indian stock exchanges (such as the NSE and BSE) operate separate dedicated debt/Wholesale Debt Market segments to trade corporate bonds and government securities - true.

All three statements are accurate descriptions of India's financial market structure.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Participants Trading in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities In India, a wide range of participants trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities:

1. Insurance Companies - major institutional investors in G-Secs and corporate bonds to match their long-term liabilities. Correct.
2. Pension Funds - similarly invest heavily in G-Secs and high-quality corporate bonds for stable, long-term returns. Correct.
3. Retail Investors - can also participate directly (e.g., via the RBI Retail Direct scheme for G-Secs, and through stock exchange debt segments/mutual funds for corporate bonds). Correct.

All three categories of investors can and do trade in these debt instruments.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Identifying Financial Instruments A financial instrument is a tradeable asset representing a monetary contract or claim between parties (e.g., a right to receive cash, equity, or another financial asset).

1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs) - represent a pooled, tradeable claim on an underlying basket of securities; a financial instrument.
2. Motor vehicles - a physical/real asset (a good used for transport), not a monetary claim or contract; not a financial instrument.
3. Currency swap - a derivative contract to exchange principal and/or interest payments in different currencies; a financial instrument.

Only items 1 and 3 qualify as financial instruments; motor vehicles are a tangible real asset.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only is correct.

Classifying Economic Activities by Sector The primary sector covers activities directly using natural resources (agriculture, mining, fishing); the secondary sector covers manufacturing/processing of goods; the tertiary sector covers services.

1. Storage of agricultural produce - this is a support/service activity and is classified under the tertiary sector, not secondary. Incorrect pairing.
2. Dairy farm - rearing animals for milk is a primary-sector activity (like agriculture). Correctly matched.
3. Mineral exploration - extraction/exploration of minerals is a primary-sector activity, not tertiary. Incorrect pairing.
4. Weaving cloth - converting raw yarn into cloth is a manufacturing activity, correctly placed in the secondary sector.

Rows 2 and 4 are correctly matched; rows 1 and 3 are not.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Feedstocks for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) Sustainable Aviation Fuel can be produced from a wide range of biomass and waste feedstocks using various certified pathways (e.g., HEFA, Alcohol-to-Jet, Fischer-Tropsch):

1. Agricultural residues (e.g., straw, husks) - used as lignocellulosic feedstock. Valid.
2. Corn grain - used via fermentation to ethanol and then the Alcohol-to-Jet pathway. Valid.
3. Wastewater treatment sludge - can be converted into SAF via processes that extract lipids/biogas or through gasification. Valid.
4. Wood mill waste - woody biomass residues are a recognised lignocellulosic SAF feedstock. Valid.

All four materials listed are usable feedstocks for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel.

Therefore, 1, 2, 3 and 4 is correct.

Fixed Capital vs Working Capital Fixed capital comprises durable goods used repeatedly over many production cycles (machinery, tools, buildings), while working capital consists of raw materials and other inputs that are used up/consumed in a single cycle of production.

1. Farmer's plough - a durable tool used repeatedly across seasons; it is fixed capital, not working capital. Incorrect pairing.
2. Computer - a durable capital good used over many cycles; correctly classified as fixed capital.
3. Yarn used by the weaver - a raw material consumed in producing cloth; it is working capital, not fixed capital. Incorrect pairing.
4. Petrol - a fuel consumed during use (in a single cycle); correctly classified as working capital.

Rows 2 and 4 are correctly matched, while rows 1 and 3 are not.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

The Metaverse The phrase describing "an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items" precisely defines the Metaverse - an immersive, persistent digital environment (often built on technologies like VR/AR, blockchain and NFTs) where users interact, socialise, transact and even own virtual property/assets across connected virtual spaces.

Big data analytics refers to processing very large datasets for insights; cryptography deals with securing information; and "virtual matrix" is not a recognised technical term - none of these match the description given.

Therefore, Metaverse is correct.

RBI Rules for Wholly-Owned Subsidiaries of Foreign Banks in India Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. RBI's scheme for setting up Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS) of foreign banks in India does prescribe a minimum capital requirement - a minimum paid-up voting equity capital of ₹500 crore is mandated at the time of commencement of operations.

Statement II: Incorrect. RBI's framework does not stipulate that at least 50% of the board members of such a WOS must be Indian nationals; instead, it lays down requirements such as a minimum proportion of independent, non-executive directors on the board, without a specific 50% "Indian nationals" quota as described.

Since both statements misstate the actual rules, option D (Neither 1 nor 2) is correct.

Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) Rules in India Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. Under the Companies Act, 2013 and CSR Rules, activities that benefit only the company itself (e.g., normal course of business activities) or that exclusively benefit its own employees and their families are expressly excluded from qualifying as CSR expenditure.

Statement II: Incorrect. The CSR rules do specify a minimum spending requirement - eligible companies are required to spend at least 2% of their average net profits of the preceding three financial years on CSR activities.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is factually wrong (a minimum is specified), option A is correct.

US Government Debt and the Consequences of Default Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. If the US Government were to default on its debt - i.e., fail to make a scheduled principal or interest payment - holders of US Treasury Bonds would, in that event, be unable to receive the payments they are contractually entitled to, at least until the default is resolved.

Statement II: Correct. Unlike asset-backed debt, US Treasury securities are not backed by any specific hard/physical collateral; they are backed solely by the "full faith and credit" of the US Government, i.e., its taxing power and promise to pay.

This explains why a default has severe consequences for bondholders: because there is no hard asset underlying the debt that can be seized or claimed as compensation, a missed payment simply means bondholders go unpaid, with recourse limited to trust in the government eventually honouring its obligation. Statement II therefore explains Statement I.

Therefore, option A is correct.

Syndicated Lending Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. In syndicated lending, a group of lenders (a "syndicate") jointly provides funds to a single borrower under common loan terms, which spreads the credit/default risk of the large loan across multiple lending institutions rather than concentrating it with just one.

Statement II: Incorrect. A syndicated loan can take the form of either a fixed lump-sum term loan or a revolving credit line (which the borrower can draw down, repay and redraw as needed) - it is not restricted to a lump sum alone.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is factually wrong, option C is correct.

Digital Rupee (Central Bank Digital Currency, e-₹) Statement Analysis:

1. The digital rupee is a sovereign currency issued by the RBI, forming part of its monetary and currency management functions - correct.
2. As with physical currency, the digital rupee appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet (it represents an RBI liability to the holder, just like currency notes) - correct.
3. The digital rupee has the same value as the physical rupee it represents; it is not, by design, insured against or protected from inflation - incorrect.
4. The digital rupee is designed to be freely convertible on a one-to-one basis with cash and commercial bank money - correct.

Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct, while statement 3 is false.

Therefore, option D is correct.

Epithets of Gautama Buddha

1. Nayaputta (Nataputta) - this is actually an epithet of Mahavira, the 24th Jain Tirthankara (referring to his descent from the Jnatrika/Nata clan), not of the Buddha. Incorrect.
2. Shakyamuni ("sage of the Shakya clan") - a well-known epithet of Gautama Buddha, referring to his birth in the Shakya clan of Kapilavastu. Correct.
3. Tathagata ("thus gone/thus come") - one of the epithets Buddha used for himself in Buddhist texts, indicating one who has attained ultimate truth. Correct.

Shakyamuni and Tathagata are genuine epithets of the Buddha, while Nayaputta belongs to Mahavira.

Therefore, 2 and 3 only is correct.

Archaeological Sites: State and Description Checking each row:

1. Chandraketugarh is located in West Bengal, not Odisha; it was an ancient trading port/urban settlement site. The state is mismatched. Incorrect.
2. Inamgaon, in Maharashtra, is a well-known Chalcolithic site on the Ghod river. Correctly matched.
3. Mangadu (in Kerala) is associated with megalithic burial monuments (e.g., dolmenoid cists). Correctly matched.
4. Salihundam, in Andhra Pradesh, is primarily a Buddhist site (stupas and monastic remains), not a site of "rock-cut cave shrines." The description is mismatched. Incorrect.

Rows 2 and 3 are correctly matched.

Therefore, 2 and 3 is correct.

Krishnadevaraya and the Portuguese Fort at Bhatkal Krishnadevaraya, the most celebrated ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire (r. 1509-1529), pursued a policy of cooperating with the Portuguese, chiefly to secure supplies of war-horses for his cavalry. As part of this engagement, he permitted the Portuguese to construct a fort at Bhatkal, an important port on the Vijayanagara-controlled Karnataka coast, facilitating trade and horse imports.

Narasimha Saluva (a preceding Vijayanagara ruler), Muhammad Shah III (a Bahmani/Deccan Sultanate ruler) and Yusuf Adil Shah (founder of the Bijapur Sultanate) are not credited with this specific grant.

Therefore, Krishnadevaraya is correct.

Cornwallis-Era Revenue Systems: Ryotwari and Permanent Settlement Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. Under the Ryotwari Settlement (a system of direct settlement between the government and individual cultivators, associated with South India rather than Cornwallis's own Permanent Settlement), the revenue demand was fixed for a period and peasants were not automatically exempted from payment in years of bad harvest or natural calamity; remission, where granted, was discretionary and not a guaranteed feature of the system.

Statement II: Correct. Under the Permanent Settlement introduced by Cornwallis in Bengal (1793), zamindars were required to pay a fixed revenue to the state by a specified date each year; failure to do so triggered the notorious "Sunset Law," under which the zamindar's estate could be auctioned/confiscated and the zamindar removed from his zamindari.

Since only Statement II is correct, option B is correct.

Upanishads and Puranas Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. The Upanishads do contain parables and illustrative stories used to convey philosophical ideas - for example, the parable of the two birds on a tree (one eating fruit, one merely watching) in the Mundaka Upanishad, and the well-known dialogue/story of Svetaketu and the salt-and-water/banyan-seed illustrations in the Chandogya Upanishad. So it is incorrect to say there are "no parables" in the Upanishads.

Statement II: Correct. The Upanishads (composed roughly between 800 BCE and 200 BCE, forming the concluding portion of Vedic literature) predate the Puranas, which took their present compiled form later, mostly in the early centuries CE and after.

Since only Statement II is correct, option B is correct.

International Grains Council (IGC) Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. India is indeed a member of the International Grains Council, an intergovernmental forum that administers the Grains Trade Convention and works on transparency and cooperation in the international grains (wheat, maize, etc.) trade.

Statement II: Incorrect. Membership of the IGC is not a precondition for a country to export or import rice, wheat or other grains; countries trade in grains under normal international trade rules (WTO commitments, bilateral/multilateral trade agreements) regardless of whether they belong to the IGC.

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is correct.

Latest Indian Inclusion in UNESCO's Intangible Cultural Heritage List Among the choices, Garba (of Gujarat) is the most recent addition, inscribed on UNESCO's Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023. By comparison, Durga Puja (Kolkata) was inscribed in 2021, and Chhau dance was inscribed much earlier, in 2010. Kumbh Mela, while an important cultural event, was inscribed in 2017 and, in any case, is more a religious congregation/mela than a "dance" form comparable here - but crucially it predates Garba's 2023 inscription.

Therefore, Garba dance is correct.

Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member present, was elected as the Provisional (temporary) President of the Constituent Assembly of India when it first met on 9 December 1946. He presided over the initial session until Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President on 11 December 1946.

C. Rajagopalachari, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and T.T. Krishnamachari held other significant roles in the Constituent Assembly/drafting process but did not serve as its provisional president.

Therefore, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha is correct.

The Government of India Act, 1935 Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Act envisaged an All India Federation comprising the British Indian Provinces and the Princely States that chose to accede, though this federal scheme never actually came into force because an insufficient number of princely states joined.

Statement II: Incorrect. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept as "reserved subjects" under the direct control of the Governor-General (Viceroy), acting in his discretion and outside the purview of the federal/provincial legislatures, not under the control of the federal legislature.

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is correct.

Bhasa's Play Madhyama-vyayoga Bhasa, an ancient Sanskrit playwright believed to have preceded or been contemporary with Kalidasa, is credited with a set of thirteen plays discovered in manuscript form in the early 20th century. Madhyama-vyayoga, a one-act play based on a Mahabharata episode involving Bhima, is one of these attributed works.

Kavyalankara is a work on poetics by Bhamaha; Natyashastra, the foundational treatise on dramaturgy and performing arts, is attributed to Bharata Muni; and Mahabhashya, a commentary on Panini's grammar, is the work of Patanjali - none of these is Bhasa's work.

Therefore, Madhyama-vyayoga is correct.

Sanghabhuti and the Sarvastivada Vinaya Sanghabhuti was an Indian Buddhist monk-scholar who travelled to China towards the end of the fourth century CE and is credited with translating/authoring commentarial work related to the Sarvastivada Vinaya (the monastic disciplinary code of the Sarvastivada school of Buddhism), contributing to the transmission of Buddhist textual traditions into China.

The Prajnaparamita Sutra, Visuddhimagga (a Theravada treatise by Buddhaghosa) and Lalitavistara (a biographical text on the Buddha's life) are separate Buddhist texts not attributed to Sanghabhuti's commentarial work.

Therefore, Sarvastivada Vinaya is correct.

UNESCO World Heritage Inclusions in 2023 Among the four properties listed, Shantiniketan (West Bengal) and the Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Karnataka - Belur, Halebidu and Somanathapura) were both inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2023.

By contrast, Rani-ki-Vav (Gujarat) was inscribed in 2014, and the Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya (Bihar) was inscribed much earlier, in 2002.

Only two of the four properties were added in 2023.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Article 368 and the Modes of Constitutional Amendment Article 368 of the Constitution empowers Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal, subject to the procedure laid down therein (including, for certain provisions, ratification by state legislatures). This wording is drawn directly from the text of Article 368(1) itself.

All three modes - addition, variation and repeal - are explicitly covered.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Countries Associated with Low Birth Rates and Ageing/Declining Population

1. Italy - has one of Europe's lowest fertility rates and a rapidly ageing, shrinking population; frequently discussed in this context.
2. Japan - a classic example of a "super-ageing" society with sustained low birth rates and population decline.
3. Nigeria - has one of the world's highest fertility rates and a young, rapidly growing population; not associated with this trend.
4. South Korea - has the world's lowest total fertility rate and is frequently cited for its demographic/ageing crisis.
5. South Africa - has a comparatively younger, still-growing population and is not typically cited in this context.

Italy, Japan and South Korea (1, 2 and 4) are the countries frequently mentioned for low birth rates/ageing or declining population.

Therefore, option A is correct.

Money Bills in Parliament

1. Article 109 does lay down the special legislative procedure applicable specifically to Money Bills. Correct.
2. Under Article 109(1), a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha, and it shall not be introduced in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Correct.
3. The Rajya Sabha, on receiving a Money Bill, cannot amend or reject it; it may only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha is free to accept or reject. Correct as stated - the Rajya Sabha can suggest changes but cannot reject the bill outright.
4. In fact, amendments/recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha on a Money Bill are not binding on the Lok Sabha - the Lok Sabha may accept or reject them at its discretion. So statement 4 is incorrect.

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 4 is not.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Equivalent Ranks Across the Indian Armed Forces Checking each row:

1. Brigadier (Army) is equivalent to Air Commodore (Air Force) and Commodore (Navy) - not "Commander," which is a lower Naval rank (equivalent to Wing Commander/Lieutenant Colonel). Incorrect.
2. Major General (Army) is equivalent to Air Vice Marshal (Air Force) and Rear Admiral (Navy) - not "Vice Admiral," which corresponds to Lieutenant General/Air Marshal. Incorrect.
3. Major (Army) is indeed equivalent to Squadron Leader (Air Force) and Lieutenant Commander (Navy). Correct.
4. Lieutenant Colonel (Army) is equivalent to Wing Commander (Air Force) and Commander (Navy) - not "Group Captain" and "Captain," which are one rank higher (equivalent to full Colonel). Incorrect.

Only row 3 is correctly matched.

Therefore, 3 only is correct.

Composition of the North Eastern Council (Post-2002 Amendment) Following the 2002 amendment to the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, the Council's membership was reconstituted to comprise the Governors and the Chief Ministers of each of the constituent (north-eastern) states, along with three members nominated by the President of India.

The Union Home Minister was not, at that stage (2002 amendment), a member of the NEC in this composition (the Home Minister's role as ex-officio Chairman was added by a later, 2018 amendment).

So the Council, per the 2002 amendment, comprised items 1, 2 and 3.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 only is correct.

Number of Delimitation Commissions Constituted in India The Government of India has constituted Delimitation Commissions on four occasions - in 1952, 1963, 1973 and 2002 - to redraw parliamentary and assembly constituency boundaries based on the latest census figures (delimitation has since been frozen until after the first census following 2026, under the 84th Amendment).

As of December 2023, four Delimitation Commissions had been constituted.

Therefore, Four is correct.

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 The 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, amended the Eighth Schedule to include three additional languages: Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali, raising the total number of scheduled languages at that time to 18.

Maithili was added later, by the 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 (along with Bodo, Dogri and Santhali), not by the 71st Amendment.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Political Parties and Their Leaders Checking each pair:

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951. Correctly matched.
2. The Socialist Party (Congress Socialist Party/Praja Socialist Party lineage) was led by leaders such as Jayaprakash Narayan and Acharya Narendra Dev, not by C. Rajagopalachari, who instead founded the Swatantra Party. Incorrectly matched.
3. Congress for Democracy was founded by Jagjivan Ram in 1977, ahead of the general elections, and later merged with the Janata Party. Correctly matched.
4. The Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari, not Acharya Narendra Dev (who was instead associated with the Socialist stream). Incorrectly matched.

Pairs 1 and 3 are correct; pairs 2 and 4 have swapped leaders.

Therefore, Only two is correct.

Parts of the Constitution of India

1. Part IX-A of the Constitution, inserted by the 74th Amendment (1992), deals with the Municipalities and their powers. Correct.
2. Part XVIII of the Constitution contains the Emergency Provisions (Articles 352-360). Correct.
3. Part XX of the Constitution (Article 368) deals with the procedure for Amendment of the Constitution. Correct.

All three statements about the location of these provisions in the Constitution are accurate.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Inter-State Quarantine Under the Constitution Inter-State quarantine is listed as Entry 29 of List I (the Union List) in the Seventh Schedule, making it a Union subject.

By contrast, inter-State trade and commerce is itself dealt with as a Union subject under Article 301-307 (falling essentially under Union List Entry 42, "Inter-State trade and commerce"), not the State List; inter-State migration falls under the Concurrent List rather than exclusively the State List; and Corporation Tax is a Union subject (Union List Entry 85), not a State subject.

Therefore, option C is correct.

Right to Privacy and Article 21 In the landmark judgment K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court unanimously held that the Right to Privacy is a fundamental right, intrinsic to the Right to Life and Personal Liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution.

Articles 15 (prohibition of discrimination), 16 (equality of opportunity in public employment) and 19 (protection of certain freedoms) are related fundamental rights but are not where the Court specifically located the Right to Privacy.

Therefore, Article 21 is correct.

Duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs

1. The CDS acts as the Permanent Chairman of the Chiefs of Staff Committee (COSC), a role created to bring about better tri-service coordination. Correct.
2. The CDS does not exercise military/operational command over the three Service Chiefs; each Service Chief continues to command their respective service, and the CDS acts in a coordinating and advisory capacity rather than a command one. Incorrect.
3. The CDS serves as the Principal Military Adviser to the Defence Minister on all tri-service (Army, Navy, Air Force) matters. Correct.

Duties 1 and 3 are accurate; duty 2 misstates the CDS's role.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only is correct.

Operation Sadbhavana Operation Sadbhavana ("goodwill") is a civic and welfare initiative run by the Indian Army, primarily in border and remote areas such as Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, aimed at winning the trust of local populations by addressing basic needs - building schools, providing healthcare, infrastructure, education support and vocational training - alongside its security role.

Operation Sankalp (naval escort operations in the Persian Gulf), Operation Maitri (disaster relief, e.g., the 2015 Nepal earthquake) and Operation Madad (Navy's disaster relief operations) are different, named operations with distinct purposes.

Therefore, Operation Sadbhavana is correct.

The World's Longest International Border The border between Canada and the United States (including the Canada-Alaska boundary) stretches approximately 8,891 km, making it the longest international land border in the world.

The Chile-Argentina border (~5,300 km), the China-India border (a few thousand km, and largely undemarcated/disputed) and the Kazakhstan-Russia border (~7,600 km) are all shorter than the Canada-US border.

Therefore, Canada and the United States of America is correct.

The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha

1. The Ethics Committee of the Lok Sabha was initially constituted in 2000 on an ad-hoc basis (the Rajya Sabha's Ethics Committee, by contrast, was made a permanent committee earlier). The Lok Sabha's committee was later made a permanent one. Correct as a historical fact about its origin.

2. It is not true that only a sitting Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint of unethical conduct - complaints can also be initiated by other persons/citizens, which are then examined and can be referred/taken up through the Speaker or a Member, so the claim that "only" a Member can complain is incorrect.

3. The Committee is barred from examining any matter that is sub-judice (pending before a court), consistent with the general principle that parliamentary committees avoid matters under judicial consideration. Correct.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct, while statement 2 is not.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only is correct.

The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Women's Reservation Act, 2023)

1. The reservation of seats for women is to come into effect only after the delimitation exercise following the first census conducted after the Act's commencement - meaning it will apply from the Lok Sabha constituted after that delimitation, and not from the 18th Lok Sabha (elected in 2024). Incorrect as stated.

2. The Act provides that the reservation will remain in force for a period of 15 years from its commencement (extendable by law thereafter). Correct.

3. The Act includes a provision for reservation of seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes (and Scheduled Tribes) within the seats already reserved for SCs/STs. Correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is not (it will not apply from the 18th Lok Sabha).

Therefore, 2 and 3 only is correct.

Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023

1. Exercise Mitra Shakti is actually a joint military exercise conducted between India and Sri Lanka, not Bangladesh. Incorrect.
2. The 2023 edition of the exercise was held in Aundh, Pune (India). Correct.
3. Enhancing joint capability for counter-terrorism and counter-insurgency operations in a semi-urban environment was a stated objective of the exercise. Correct.
4. Personnel and assets from the Indian Air Force also took part in the exercise, alongside the Army contingents. Correct.

Statements 2, 3 and 4 are correct, while statement 1 wrongly names the partner country as Bangladesh instead of Sri Lanka.

Therefore, 2, 3 and 4 is correct.

Writ of Prohibition A Writ of Prohibition is a judicial remedy issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court to a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority, directing it to stop (prohibiting it from continuing) proceedings in a matter that exceeds its jurisdiction or that it has no legal authority to decide. It is a preventive writ, issued before the lower forum has completed its proceedings, to keep it within the bounds of its jurisdiction - this is the standard constitutional-law definition, and corresponds to option C ("the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case").

Options A, B and D describe actions that are typically achieved through other means: directing a government officer to act/not act in a particular way, or striking down an unconstitutional policy of the government, are matters more properly addressed through writs such as Mandamus or through judicial review of executive action, rather than Prohibition, which is specifically confined to restraining subordinate adjudicating bodies from exceeding their jurisdiction.

Recognition and Declaration of Scheduled Tribes Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. It is not the Governor of a State who declares a community a Scheduled Tribe; under Article 342 of the Constitution, the President of India, by public notification (and after consultation with the Governor concerned, for states), specifies the Scheduled Tribes for each state/union territory. Any subsequent inclusion or exclusion requires an Act of Parliament.

Statement II: Correct. Scheduled Tribe status is granted with reference to a particular state/union territory; consequently, a community recognised as a Scheduled Tribe in one state need not have that same status in another state, since Presidential notifications are state/UT-specific.

Since only Statement II is correct, option B is correct.

Provisions Relating to the Union Budget Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. Under Article 112, the Annual Financial Statement (commonly the "Budget") is laid before both Houses of Parliament, and this is done by the Union Finance Minister acting on behalf of (in the name of) the President.

Statement II: Correct. Under Article 113, no demand for a grant can be made to Parliament except on the recommendation of the President - this is a standard constitutional safeguard on financial proposals.

Both statements are independently accurate constitutional facts, but they describe two separate procedural rules relating to the Budget rather than one causing or explaining the other.

Therefore, Both 1 and 2 is correct.

Author of "The India Way" and "Why Bharat Matters" Both "The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World" and "Why Bharat Matters" were authored by Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar, India's External Affairs Minister and a career diplomat, drawing on his experience and views on India's foreign policy.

Bhupender Yadav, Nalin Mehta and Shashi Tharoor are known authors of other works, but not of these two specific books.

Therefore, Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is correct.

Countries in the News and Their Context Checking each pair:

1. Argentina - has indeed been in the news for one of its worst economic crises, marked by extremely high inflation and currency devaluation. Correctly matched.
2. Sudan - has been in the news for an ongoing, devastating war between the Sudanese Armed Forces (regular army) and the paramilitary Rapid Support Forces. Correctly matched.
3. Turkey - remains a NATO member; it has not rescinded its NATO membership (it has, in fact, been involved in NATO-related controversies over issues like Sweden/Finland's accession, but it has not left the alliance). Incorrectly matched.

Pairs 1 and 2 are correctly matched, while pair 3 is not.

Therefore, Only two pairs is correct.

The Sumed Pipeline Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Sumed (Suez-Mediterranean) pipeline is a strategically important route that carries crude oil (originating largely from the Persian Gulf and transiting the Red Sea) onward to the Mediterranean and Europe, serving as an alternative to the Suez Canal for oil tankers too large to transit the canal.

Statement II: Correct. The Sumed pipeline physically runs across Egypt, connecting the Red Sea (at Ain Sukhna) to the Mediterranean Sea (at Sidi Kerir).

Statement II explains why the pipeline can serve as a strategic route for Gulf oil moving to Europe - because it directly links the Red Sea (through which Gulf oil is shipped) to the Mediterranean (Europe's adjoining sea), bypassing the narrower Suez Canal.

Therefore, option A is correct.

Hydrology of the Red Sea Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Red Sea lies in an arid, desert climatic zone and receives very little precipitation in any form throughout the year.

Statement II: Correct. No permanent river drains into the Red Sea; it is one of the few major seas with essentially no significant riverine freshwater inflow.

Both statements are correct, but they are two independent hydrological facts about the Red Sea (absence of rainfall, and absence of river inflow) rather than one explaining the other; both jointly explain the Red Sea's notably high salinity, but neither statement here explains the other.

Therefore, Both 1 and 2 is correct.

Largest Source of Sulphur Dioxide Emissions According to the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), the largest source of sulphur dioxide (SO2) emissions is the burning of fossil fuels (particularly coal, and to a lesser extent oil) by power plants for electricity generation, due to the sulphur impurities present in these fuels.

Locomotives, ships and metal-ore extraction/smelting also emit SO2 (smelting especially, from sulphide ores), but they are not the largest source; fossil-fuel power plants dominate SO2 emissions inventories.

Therefore, Power plants using fossil fuels is correct.

Instability in the Sahel Region Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The Sahel region (spanning countries such as Mali, Niger, Burkina Faso, Chad and Sudan) has experienced serious and worsening instability and insecurity in recent years, driven by insurgencies, terrorism, and political turmoil.

Statement II: Correct. Several Sahelian countries - notably Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022) and Niger (2023) - have witnessed military coups d'état in the recent past.

The repeated coups and resulting weak, contested governance are a direct contributing cause of the region's instability and worsening security situation, so Statement II explains Statement I.

Therefore, option A is correct.

India's Apple Imports from the USA and GM Food Regulation Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. India does in fact import apples from the United States - although this trade was disrupted for a period after India imposed retaliatory tariffs (in response to US tariffs on Indian steel and aluminium), those retaliatory duties on US apples were subsequently withdrawn, and apple imports from the USA have continued. So it is factually wrong to say India does not import apples from the USA.

Statement II: Correct. Under India's regulatory framework (including the Food Safety and Standards Act and rules administered with the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee), the import of genetically modified food is prohibited without prior approval from the competent regulatory authority.

Since Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct, option D is correct.

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha During a Removal Resolution Under Article 94 (and the corresponding Rules of Procedure), while a resolution for the removal of the Speaker is under consideration:

1. The Speaker shall not preside over the sitting of the House at which the resolution is considered (though he/she may continue to attend/perform other duties while such a resolution is pending, until it is actually moved). Correct.
2. The Speaker does retain the right to speak in, and to take part in, the proceedings of the House on such a resolution while it is under consideration (similar to any other member) - the claim that he/she has no right to speak is incorrect.
3. The Speaker is, in fact, entitled to vote on the resolution, though only in the case of an equality of votes (a casting vote) - so, in the first instance, he/she is entitled to vote just as an ordinary member, and the claim that he/she is not entitled to vote in the first instance is not the standard accepted position either.

Only statement 1 is correct.

Therefore, 1 only is correct.

Lapsing of Bills on Dissolution of the Lok Sabha

1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha (whether introduced there or transmitted from the Rajya Sabha) lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Correct.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but still pending in the Rajya Sabha also lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha (it does not survive merely because it originated in and was passed by the Lok Sabha). Correct.
3. However, a bill in respect of which the President has notified an intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting does not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha - it survives specifically because of this Presidential notification for a joint sitting. Incorrect as stated.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is not.

Therefore, 1 and 2 is correct.

Prorogation and Dissolution of the Houses of Parliament

1. Prorogation of a House by the President is, like most other formal Presidential actions, exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers (via the Cabinet) - it is not a discretionary, advice-free power of the President as claimed. Incorrect.
2. Prorogation is typically done after the House has been adjourned sine die, but there is no constitutional bar on the President prorogating a House that is still in session - this is indeed a recognised possibility. Correct.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is carried out by the President and, barring exceptional circumstances (such as a hung Parliament situation), is done on the advice of the Council of Ministers/Prime Minister. Correct.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statement 1 is not.

Therefore, 2 and 3 is correct.

The EU's Net-Zero Industry Act and Climate Targets Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Correct. The European Parliament approved the Net-Zero Industry Act, aimed at scaling up the EU's domestic manufacturing capacity for clean/net-zero technologies.

Statement II: Incorrect. The European Union's official target for climate/carbon neutrality is 2050, not 2040; moreover, the EU's clean-technology strategy does not aim for complete self-sufficiency ("develop all of its own clean technology") but rather to boost domestic manufacturing capacity to a significant share while still engaging in international trade and cooperation.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect, option C is correct.

Venezuela's Economic Situation and Oil Reserves Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. Venezuela has not achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis; the country has continued to suffer from hyperinflation, economic mismanagement and political instability, and large numbers of Venezuelans have continued to emigrate to neighbouring countries and beyond in one of the largest migration crises in the Western Hemisphere.

Statement II: Correct. Venezuela holds the world's largest proven crude oil reserves, primarily in the Orinoco Belt, even though sanctions, underinvestment and mismanagement have limited its actual production and export capacity.

Since Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct, option D is correct.

Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme (DILRMP)

1. DILRMP is implemented as a Central Sector Scheme, meaning the Central Government provides 100% of the funding for its components. Correct.
2. A core component of the programme is the digitisation of cadastral (village) maps, integrating them with the digitised Records of Rights. Correct.
3. The programme also includes an initiative to transliterate Records of Rights (RoRs) from the local/regional language into other languages recognised under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, to improve accessibility (e.g., for migrant workers and other users). Correct.

All three statements accurately describe features of the DILRMP.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 3 is correct.

Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan (PMSMA)

1. PMSMA guarantees a fixed, comprehensive package of antenatal care to pregnant women in their second and third trimesters, delivered free of cost on the 9th of every month at government health facilities; however, the scheme's core design centres on assured antenatal care rather than a guaranteed package of routine care extending as a scheme feature for six months post-delivery, so this statement overstates the scheme's actual scope. Incorrect as commonly assessed.

2. Under PMSMA, private-sector obstetricians/gynaecologists and radiologists (among other specified specialities) can voluntarily register to provide services on a fixed day each month at nearby government health facilities, supplementing the public health workforce. Correct.

Only statement 2 correctly describes the scheme.

Therefore, 2 only is correct.

Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana

1. The entry age group for the scheme is actually 18 to 40 years, not 21 to 40 years as stated. Incorrect.
2. Contributions to the scheme are age-specific - the monthly contribution amount depends on the subscriber's age at entry (ranging roughly from ₹55 to ₹200 per month). Correct.
3. Each subscriber is assured a minimum monthly pension of ₹3,000 after attaining the age of 60 years, matched by an equal contribution from the Central Government. Correct.
4. On the subscriber's death, family pension under the scheme is payable only to the spouse (at 50% of the pension amount), and not to unmarried daughters as stated. Incorrect.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct, while statements 1 and 4 are not.

Therefore, 2 and 3 only is correct.