UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 — Paper 1 - General Studies (GS)

Alternative Investment Funds (AIF) Classification Alternative Investment Funds are defined under the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) regulations as funds that invest in alternative assets and strategies.

Statement Analysis:

Bonds: These are debt instruments issued by corporations and governments. Bonds are conventional fixed-income securities and are NOT classified as Alternative Investment Funds. Bonds fall under traditional investment categories and are regulated under conventional financial market regulations.

Hedge Funds: These are investment funds that employ aggressive investment strategies including leverage, short-selling, and derivatives. Hedge Funds are specifically CLASSIFIED as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under SEBI regulations. They use sophisticated strategies to generate returns regardless of market direction.

Stocks: These represent equity ownership in companies and are conventional investment instruments traded in stock exchanges. Stocks are NOT classified as Alternative Investment Funds. They are conventional equity investments regulated by standard market regulations.

Venture Capital: These are funds that invest in early-stage, high-growth potential companies with innovative business models. Venture Capital funds are specifically CLASSIFIED as Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) under SEBI regulations. They focus on companies that have not yet gone public.

Therefore, only two of the given options (Hedge Funds and Venture Capital) are treated as Alternative Investment Funds.

Reserve Bank of India - Sources of Income The Reserve Bank of India's revenue comes from various sources related to its monetary and financial management functions.

Statement Analysis:

I. Buying and selling Government bonds (Open Market Operations): This IS a source of RBI income. When the RBI buys government securities, it earns interest income. When it sells securities, it can generate gains. These open market operations are a primary source of RBI revenue. CORRECT.

II. Buying and selling foreign currency: This IS a source of RBI income. The RBI manages India's foreign exchange reserves and conducts forex operations. When purchasing foreign currency at lower rates and selling at higher rates, it generates arbitrage income. This is a significant revenue source. CORRECT.

III. Pension fund management: This is NOT a function of the RBI. The RBI does not manage pension funds. Pension fund management is handled by separate entities like SEBI-regulated pension funds and government pension schemes. INCORRECT.

IV. Lending to private companies: This is NOT a standard RBI function. The RBI lends to banks under the Marginal Standing Facility and to governments, but it does not directly lend to private companies. INCORRECT.

V. Printing and distributing currency notes: While the RBI does print currency through the Bank Note Press, this is not considered an income source but rather a function. The costs of printing offset the value of notes. INCORRECT.

Therefore, the correct sources of RBI income are I and II only.

Government Organizations and Ministries Statement Analysis:

Row I - Directorate of Enforcement: This directorate DOES enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018. However, it works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, NOT the Internal Security Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs. The Directorate of Enforcement is responsible for money laundering prevention and investigation of economic offenses. This row contains an ERROR in ministry assignment. INCORRECT.

Row II - Directorate of Revenue Intelligence: This organization CORRECTLY enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence focuses on customs enforcement, smuggling prevention, and revenue protection. This row is CORRECTLY matched. CORRECT.

Row III - Directorate General of Systems and Data Management: This directorate DOES carry out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and identifying tax evaders, and it CORRECTLY works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. This is a relatively newer organization focused on data-driven tax administration. This row is CORRECTLY matched. CORRECT.

Therefore, only one row (Row I) has incorrect information, making only Row II the completely correctly matched entry.

Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) Statement Analysis:

Statement I: Incorrect. The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is mandated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), NOT by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI has regulatory authority over listed companies and their disclosures. The RBI has no role in mandating BRSR requirements. The mandate comes from SEBI's Business Responsibility and Sustainability Reporting Framework. INCORRECT.

Statement II: Correct. The BRSR is designed to include largely non-financial disclosures. The report covers:

• Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) matters
• Sustainability practices and initiatives
• Stakeholder relationships and engagement
• Human capital management
• Board diversity and composition
• Supply chain responsibility
• Community development initiatives
• Business ethics and compliance

While some financial impact disclosures may be included, the predominant focus is on non-financial, qualitative information about the company's impact and practices. CORRECT.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct.

Agricultural Income and Capital Assets under the Income-tax Act, 1961 Statement I: Incorrect. The blanket tax exemption under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act applies only to "agricultural income" as narrowly defined in Section 2(1A) - income derived from land used for agricultural purposes (rent, revenue from agricultural land, or income from agricultural operations on it). Allied activities such as poultry farming, wool rearing/sheep breeding, dairying and fisheries are treated as business income even when carried out in rural areas, because they do not constitute "agriculture" in the legal sense (there is no basic operation on land such as tilling, sowing, etc.). Such income is therefore fully taxable, not exempt.

Statement II: Correct. Section 2(14)(iii) of the Income-tax Act specifically excludes "rural agricultural land" from the definition of a "capital asset." Consequently, gains arising from the transfer/sale of rural agricultural land are not treated as capital gains and are not taxed under the head "Capital Gains." (Urban agricultural land, by contrast, is treated as a capital asset unless it meets the population/distance criteria for exemption.)

Since Statement I is factually wrong and Statement II is an accurate statement of law, option D is correct.

Minerals Security Partnership and the MMDR (Amendment) Act, 2023 Statement I: Correct. India formally joined the US-led Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in June 2023 as a partner country, aimed at securing supply chains of critical minerals such as lithium, cobalt and rare earths.

Statement II: Incorrect. India has identified 30 critical minerals as strategically important, but it is import-dependent for a large number of them (e.g., lithium, cobalt, nickel, and several rare earth elements) and is not resource-rich in all of them. This is precisely why India sought MSP membership and set up bodies like the Critical Minerals Mission.

Statement III: Correct. The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 removed six minerals (including lithium, niobium and rare earth elements) from the list of "atomic minerals" and empowered the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licences for 24 identified critical and strategic minerals, a power earlier vested with State Governments for most non-atomic minerals.

Since Statements I and III are correct while Statement II is not, option C is the right answer.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

India's Equity Options Boom and Regulatory Oversight Statement I: Correct. India has emerged as the world's largest market for equity index options by number of contracts traded, driven by a surge in retail participation in weekly and monthly options.

Statement II: Correct. India's stock market capitalisation grew rapidly and briefly overtook Hong Kong's in early 2024, making India the world's fourth-largest equity market by market capitalisation at the time.

Statement III: Incorrect. SEBI is the statutory regulator for the securities market and has actively issued investor-risk disclosures on F&O trading (including a widely publicised 2023 study showing that over 90% of individual F&O traders lose money) and has taken enforcement action against unregistered/unauthorised financial influencers ("finfluencers") giving investment advice. It is therefore incorrect to say there is no regulatory body addressing these risks.

Since Statements I and II are correct while Statement III is not, option A is the right answer.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Capital Receipts in the Government Budget Statement I: Correct. By definition, capital receipts either create a liability for the government (e.g., market borrowings, loans from other sources) or lead to a reduction in the government's assets (e.g., disinvestment/sale of shares in public sector undertakings, recovery of loans).

Statement II: Correct. Borrowings and disinvestment proceeds are classic examples of capital receipts - borrowings create a future repayment liability, while disinvestment reduces the government's asset holding in PSUs.

Statement III: Incorrect. Interest received on loans given by the government is a revenue receipt (recorded as non-tax revenue), not a capital receipt, and it does not create any liability for the government - rather, it is income that accrues to the government.

Since Statements I and II are correct while Statement III is not, option A is the right answer.

Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

The 'Araghatta' - An Ancient Irrigation Device The Araghatta, mentioned in early medieval Indian texts (including Kalhana's Rajatarangini in the context of Kashmir under Lalitaditya), refers to a large wheel fitted with a series of pots or buckets attached to the rim/spokes. As the wheel rotated - typically driven by the flow of a stream or by animal or human power - the pots dipped into the water source at the bottom and emptied it into a channel at the top, lifting water for irrigation. This "noria" or water-wheel-with-pots was one of the earliest mechanical irrigation devices used in India, distinct from a simple leather bag-and-pulley system or a hand-drawn bucket.

Hence, option B - "a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes" - correctly describes the Araghatta.

Titles of Mahendravarman I (Pallava Dynasty) Mahendravarman I (c. 600-630 CE) was a Pallava king renowned as a scholar, poet, architect and patron of the arts. He assumed several unusual and boastful royal titles reflecting his varied talents and interests:

• 'Mattavilasa' ("one who delights in intoxication/frolic"), also the title of the Sanskrit satirical play Mattavilasa Prahasana that he is credited with authoring.
• 'Vichitrachitta' ("one of curious/wonderful mind"), reflecting his inventive and experimental temperament, particularly in rock-cut architecture.
• 'Gunabhara' ("repository of virtues").

He is also credited with pioneering rock-cut cave temple architecture in South India at sites such as Mahendravadi and Mamandur.

Options B, C and D refer to other Pallava rulers (Simhavishnu - his father; Narasimhavarman I - his son and successor, known as Mahamalla; Simhavarman - an earlier Pallava king) who are not associated with these particular titles. Hence, option A is correct.

Fa-hien's Visit to India Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist monk-pilgrim, travelled to India between roughly 399-414 CE in search of authentic Buddhist scriptures and to visit sacred Buddhist sites. His journey through India coincided with the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta dynasty (c. 380-415 CE). In his travelogue "Fo-Guo-Ji" (Record of Buddhistic Kingdoms), Fa-hien describes a prosperous and well-administered kingdom, noting the general absence of capital punishment and the popularity of Buddhism, though he does not explicitly name the ruler.

Samudragupta (option A) was Chandragupta II's predecessor and reigned earlier; Kumaragupta I (option C) and Skandagupta (option D) were his successors, ruling after Fa-hien had already returned to China. Hence, option B is correct.

Rajendra I Chola's Naval Campaign against Srivijaya Rajendra I Chola (r. 1014-1044 CE), son and successor of Rajaraja I, led a famous naval expedition around 1025 CE against the Srivijaya empire, a powerful maritime kingdom controlling the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and neighbouring islands, which dominated trade routes through the Malacca Straits. The Chola navy captured several Srivijayan ports, including Kadaram (Kedah), extending Chola influence and securing trade routes to Southeast Asia and China - a rare instance of a classical Indian power projecting naval power so far overseas.

Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta), Prataparudra (Kakatiya) and Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala) were rulers of other dynasties not associated with any campaign against Srivijaya. Hence, option C is correct.

Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.

Founding of the Gandharva Mahavidyalaya The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a pioneering institution for formal, systematic training in Indian classical music, was established in 1901 by Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in Lahore (then in undivided Punjab, now in Pakistan). Paluskar was a key figure in reviving and popularising Hindustani classical music through structured institutional teaching, later also founding branches and inspiring similar Vidyalayas across India after moving base following Partition-era developments.

Delhi, Gwalior and Ujjain, though associated with Indian classical music traditions and gharanas, were not the location of this first institution. Hence, option D is correct.

Ashokan Administrative Officers Ashokan inscriptions (particularly the Kalinga Separate Edicts and Pillar Edicts) mention officers such as the 'Rajuka', 'Pradeshika' and 'Yukta' as important functionaries of the Mauryan administration. These officers operated primarily at the district (or janapada/pradesha) level of administration below the provincial (chakra/pradesha under a Kumara or Aryaputra viceroy) level: the Pradeshika was a district-level executive/revenue officer, the Rajuka combined judicial and administrative functions at the district level (and was empowered by Ashoka to reward and punish), while the Yukta performed subordinate secretarial/accounting duties assisting these officers.

Hence, option B - "district-level administration" - is correct.

Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.

All four of the provided statements or items are factually correct and meet the specified criteria. Each item has been verified and represents accurate information related to the subject matter in question.

All four of the provided statements or items are factually correct and meet the specified criteria. Each item has been verified and represents accurate information related to the subject matter in question.

The Equator and Selected Water Bodies Lake Tanganyika lies in the East African Rift Valley, situated well south of the equator (roughly between 3°S and 9°S latitude) - the equator does not pass through it. Lake Tonlé Sap in Cambodia lies at about 12-13°N latitude, in mainland Southeast Asia, far north of the equator. Patos Lagoon, located on the southern coast of Brazil, lies at roughly 30-32°S latitude, well within the Southern Hemisphere's temperate zone, again nowhere near the equator.

Since the equator passes through none of the three water bodies listed, option D ("None") is correct.

Turmeric Production in India (2022-23) Statement I: Correct. India is both the largest producer and the largest exporter of turmeric in the world, accounting for a dominant share of global turmeric output and trade.

Statement II: Correct. India cultivates a large number of turmeric varieties - commonly cited as more than 30 - suited to different agro-climatic zones, varying in curcumin content, colour and yield.

Statement III: Correct. Maharashtra and Telangana are the leading turmeric-producing states, followed by Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, together accounting for the bulk of India's turmeric output.

Since all three statements are correct, option D is the right answer.

Evidence for Continental Drift Statement I: Correct. Alfred Wegener cited the close match between the ancient rock strata and geological formations along the coast of Brazil and those of Western Africa as evidence that the two continents were once joined.

Statement II: Correct. The gold-bearing rock deposits found in Ghana closely resemble those of the Brazilian plateau in age and type, suggesting they were formed as a single deposit before the continents drifted apart, when Africa and South America lay adjacent to each other.

Statement III: Correct. The Gondwana system of sedimentary rocks found in peninsular India (with characteristic glacial tillite deposits and fossil flora such as Glossopteris) has close counterparts in South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica and the Falkland Islands - six landmasses of the erstwhile southern supercontinent Gondwanaland - a key line of evidence for continental drift.

Since all three statements are valid evidence for continental drift, option C is correct.

Distribution of Atmospheric Dust Statement I: Correct. Subtropical and temperate latitudes (particularly areas with hot deserts and dry interior regions) contain substantially more suspended dust than equatorial regions (which are humid, with heavy rainfall that washes out particulates and dense vegetation cover limiting dust generation) or polar regions (which are largely ice/snow covered, limiting the exposed, loose, dry soil that generates dust).

Statement II: Incorrect. Subtropical and temperate areas, especially their interior and desert belts, are in fact characterised by more frequent dry winds (not less), which is precisely one of the reasons these regions generate and carry higher volumes of dust - dry winds pick up loose, unconsolidated surface material and keep it suspended in the atmosphere.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is not, and Statement II in fact runs counter to (rather than explains) Statement I, option C is correct.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Permeability and Porosity of Chalk and Clay Statement I: Correct. In hydrogeology, chalk is classified as a highly permeable rock (water passes through it comparatively easily via its network of pores and fissures), whereas clay is considered one of the least permeable/most impermeable common rock types, commonly used as a natural or engineered barrier to water movement (e.g., in dam cores and landfill liners).

Statement II: Correct. Chalk is a porous sedimentary rock (composed of fine calcium carbonate particles with numerous interconnected pore spaces) and readily absorbs and transmits water through these pores.

Statement III: Incorrect. Clay is not devoid of porosity - it actually has very high porosity because it is made up of extremely fine particles with a large amount of pore space between them. However, these pores are so small and poorly connected that water movement through clay is severely restricted, making it impermeable despite being porous. The often-repeated claim that clay is "not at all porous" is a common misconception.

Since only Statement II (chalk's porosity explaining its permeability) is correct and it accounts for part of Statement I, while Statement III is factually wrong, option C is correct.

Role of the Atmosphere in Regulating Earth's Temperature Statement I: Correct. Without an atmosphere to trap heat, the Earth's surface would lose the heat it absorbs from the Sun very rapidly during the night (as happens on airless bodies like the Moon), and average temperatures would fall well below freezing.

Statement II: Correct. The natural greenhouse effect - heat absorbed and re-radiated by atmospheric gases - keeps the Earth's average surface temperature at a habitable level (around 15°C) rather than the sub-zero temperature it would otherwise be.

Statement III: Correct. Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, methane and water vapour are particularly effective at absorbing and re-emitting infrared (longwave) radiation, which is the physical basis of the greenhouse effect.

Since all three statements are scientifically accurate, option C is correct.

Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

India and the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health Statement I: Correct. At COP28 (Dubai, 2023), India was among a small number of countries that did not sign the "Declaration on Climate and Health," reportedly over concerns about its implications for domestic health policy and healthcare delivery.

Statement II: Incorrect. The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a voluntary, non-binding political declaration - it does not create a mandatory legal obligation on signatory countries to decarbonize their health sectors; it primarily commits countries to strengthen climate-resilient, low-carbon health systems.

Statement III: Correct. One of the concerns underlying India's reluctance was that an aggressive push to decarbonize the health sector - given India's still-developing healthcare infrastructure and the priority of expanding access and capacity - could constrain resources and potentially compromise the resilience and reach of its healthcare system.

Since only one of Statements II and III (Statement III) is correct, and it plausibly explains India's stance in Statement I, option C is correct.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the "Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific" to mobilize financing and technical support for nature-based solutions - such as forest and wetland restoration, biodiversity conservation and coastal protection - that also deliver climate benefits across the region. This initiative complements ADB's broader climate finance mandate for its developing member countries.

The AIIB, NDB and IBRD are other multilateral development banks but were not behind this particular initiative. Hence, option A is correct.

Applications of Direct Air Capture (DAC) Technology Statement I: Correct. DAC technology extracts carbon dioxide directly from ambient air, and the captured CO2 can then be permanently stored underground - making it a recognized method of carbon sequestration/carbon dioxide removal.

Statement II: Correct. Captured CO2 can serve as a feedstock for producing carbonates and other chemicals used in industrial processes (including certain plastics/polymers) and food-grade CO2 for carbonation and food processing/preservation.

Statement III: Correct. In aviation, captured atmospheric carbon can be combined with green hydrogen (via processes such as the Fischer-Tropsch synthesis) to produce synthetic, low-carbon aviation fuel, helping decarbonize a sector that is otherwise difficult to electrify.

Since all three statements correctly describe uses of Direct Air Capture, option C is correct.

The Peacock Tarantula (Gooty Tarantula) Statement I: Incorrect. The Peacock/Gooty tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is a spider - an arachnid, not a crustacean - and it is carnivorous (preying on insects and small vertebrates), not omnivorous.

Statement II: Correct. In India, its natural habitat is restricted to a very small area of deciduous forest patches around Gooty and adjoining regions of Andhra Pradesh, making it a critically endangered, range-restricted species.

Statement III: Correct. It is an arboreal (tree-dwelling) tarantula species, typically found living in tree hollows at a height, unlike most other tarantulas which are burrowing/ground-dwelling.

Since Statements II and III are correct while Statement I is not, option D is correct.

India's Carbon Dioxide Emissions Statement I: Incorrect. India's per-capita CO2 emissions from fuel combustion are around 1.9-2 tonnes CO2/capita - well above 0.5 t CO2/capita - although still far below the world average and much lower than major developed and other emerging economies.

Statement II: Correct. In terms of total CO2 emissions from fuel combustion in the Asia-Pacific region, India ranks second after China.

Statement III: Correct. Electricity and heat production (largely coal-based) constitute the single largest source of India's CO2 emissions, reflecting the country's continued heavy reliance on coal-fired power generation.

Since Statements II and III are correct while Statement I is not, option C is correct.

All the given pairs are accurately matched according to verified information and established knowledge. Each pairing correctly associates the elements based on factual accuracy, historical records, or current data.

Sources of Atmospheric and Dissolved Oxygen Statement I: Incorrect. This is a common misconception. While rainforests produce a large amount of oxygen through photosynthesis, most of it is consumed by the respiration of the same forest's own plants, animals and decomposing matter, making tropical rainforests roughly oxygen-neutral over time. Oceans, by contrast, are a major net source of atmospheric oxygen.

Statement II: Correct. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic (cyanobacteria-type) bacteria are estimated to produce roughly 50-70% of the world's oxygen, making the ocean the planet's largest net oxygen source - more significant than terrestrial forests in net terms.

Statement III: Incorrect. Water holds far less dissolved oxygen by volume than air does - even well-oxygenated surface water typically contains only a few parts per million of dissolved oxygen, several-fold lower (not higher) than the oxygen content of atmospheric air.

Since only Statement II is correct, option B is the right answer.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) - Capabilities across Types Statement I: Incorrect. Not all UAVs can perform vertical landing - fixed-wing UAVs, for instance, require a runway or catapult/net-based recovery systems and cannot land vertically; only rotary-wing/multirotor and certain hybrid VTOL UAVs can do so.

Statement II: Incorrect. Similarly, automated hovering is possible only for rotary-wing/multirotor and VTOL-capable UAVs; fixed-wing UAVs, which rely on forward airspeed for lift, cannot hover.

Statement III: Incorrect. UAVs use a variety of power sources depending on design and mission requirements - including batteries, internal combustion (fuel) engines, hybrid-electric systems, and even solar power for long-endurance UAVs - not battery power alone.

Since none of the three generalised statements holds true for "all" UAV types, option D ("None") is correct.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.

CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 CL-20 (hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting eXplosive/octogen) and LLM-105 are all high-energy chemical compounds used as explosives in military munitions and warheads. CL-20 and HMX are powerful, high-density explosives used to boost the destructive power of weapons, while LLM-105 is notable as a relatively "insensitive" high-energy explosive - designed to be more resistant to accidental detonation from shock or heat while still delivering high explosive performance, making it attractive for safer handling and storage of munitions.

They are not refrigerant alternatives, missile fuels, or rocket propellants (though related energetic-materials research sometimes overlaps with propellant chemistry) - their defining common characteristic reported in the media is their role as military explosives. Hence, option B is correct.

Majorana 1 Chip and Deep Learning Statement I: Correct. Microsoft's Majorana 1 chip, unveiled in February 2025, is built around a new class of materials called "topoconductors" that are expected to produce more stable, scalable qubits, and is expected to be a step toward practical, fault-tolerant quantum computing.

Statement II: Incorrect. The Majorana 1 chip was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services (AWS). AWS has separately worked on its own quantum computing chip project (named "Ocelot"), but that is a distinct initiative.

Statement III: Correct. Deep learning - which uses multi-layered artificial neural networks - is a specialized subset of machine learning, which is itself a subset of the broader field of artificial intelligence.

Since Statements I and III are correct while Statement II is not, option C is correct.

Monoclonal Antibodies Statement I: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-engineered proteins designed to mimic the immune system's natural antibodies, produced by cloning a single parent immune cell to yield antibodies identical in structure and specificity.

Statement II: Correct. Their therapeutic value lies in their ability to bind with high specificity to particular antigens (such as proteins on cancer cells, pathogens, or inflammatory molecules), thereby triggering, blocking or modulating immune responses against the target.

Statement III: Correct. Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and deployed against viral infections, including the antibody m102.4, which has been used in the treatment/post-exposure management of Nipah virus infection, notably during outbreaks in Kerala.

Since all three statements are correct, option D is the right answer.

Misconceptions about Viruses Statement I: Incorrect. Viruses, particularly bacteriophages, are found in enormous numbers in ocean waters - marine viruses are, in fact, the most abundant biological entities in the ocean and play a crucial role in regulating microbial populations and biogeochemical cycles.

Statement II: Incorrect. Bacteriophages are viruses that specifically infect bacteria, and they are extremely common and well-studied - the claim that "no virus can infect bacteria" is factually wrong.

Statement III: Incorrect. Many viruses actively reprogram the host cell's transcriptional machinery after infection - hijacking or altering cellular transcription to favour production of viral proteins and genetic material, which is a well-documented mechanism of viral replication.

Since all three statements are false, option D ("None") is the correct answer.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Ordinance-Making Power under Article 123 Statement I: Correct. An Ordinance promulgated by the President under Article 123 has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament, and it can amend, suspend or even repeal any existing Central Act (subject to it later being approved by Parliament within the prescribed period, failing which it lapses).

Statement II: Incorrect. An Ordinance, being equivalent to a law made by Parliament, is subject to the same constitutional limitations as ordinary legislation - it cannot abridge or take away any Fundamental Right, since any such provision would be void to that extent under Article 13, exactly as would be the case for a regular Act.

Statement III: Correct. Like an ordinary Act, an Ordinance can be given retrospective effect and can come into force from a date prior to its actual promulgation, as long as it does not violate other constitutional restrictions (e.g., against retrospective criminal liability under Article 20(1)).

Since Statements I and III are correct while Statement II is not, option C is correct.

All the given pairs are accurately matched according to verified information and established knowledge. Each pairing correctly associates the elements based on factual accuracy, historical records, or current data.

Among the statements or items provided, exactly one meets the specified criteria or is factually correct. The others contain errors, false claims, or do not satisfy the conditions outlined in the question. Distinguishing the single correct item from incorrect ones requires careful analysis.

Governor's Discretionary Powers and Presidential Reservation of Bills Statement I: Correct. Article 163(2) of the Constitution explicitly contemplates that the Governor may be required by the Constitution to act "in his discretion" in certain matters (for example, reserving a Bill for the President's consideration, or under special provisions for states such as Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh), and the Constitution states that the Governor's discretionary decision in such matters shall not be called into question.

Statement II: Incorrect. Under Article 200, only the Governor of a State can reserve a State Bill for the President's consideration - the President has no independent constitutional power to demand or take up a State Bill suo motu for consideration without it first being forwarded by the Governor.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is not, option A is correct.

All the given pairs are accurately matched according to verified information and established knowledge. Each pairing correctly associates the elements based on factual accuracy, historical records, or current data.

Fifth Schedule Scheduled Areas Statement I: Incorrect. The declaration of an area as a "Scheduled Area" under the Fifth Schedule does not strip the State Government of its executive authority over that area, nor does it transfer total administration to a local body. The State Government continues to administer Scheduled Areas, though the Governor is empowered to make special regulations for their peace and good governance and can direct that particular central or state laws not apply, or apply with modifications, to such areas.

Statement II: Incorrect. While the Governor of a state with Scheduled Areas has to submit an annual report to the President on the administration of these areas, and the Union can give directions relating to the administration of such areas, the Fifth Schedule does not empower the Union Government to unilaterally take over "the total administration" of Scheduled Areas merely on the Governor's recommendation.

Since neither statement is correct, option D is the right answer.

Among the given pairs, only one pairing is correctly matched based on factual accuracy. The other pairings fail to match due to historical inaccuracies, factual errors, or incorrect associations. Correct matching requires precise knowledge of the subject matter.

Constitutional Amendments Requiring State Ratification Under the proviso to Article 368(2), certain categories of constitutional amendments require ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States before the amendment Bill is presented to the President for assent. These include amendments affecting: the manner of election of the President; the extent of the executive power of the Union or the States; matters relating to the Supreme Court and High Courts; the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States (i.e., the Union, State and Concurrent Lists in the Seventh Schedule); representation of States in Parliament; and Article 368 itself.

I. "List I - Union List, in the Seventh Schedule" falls squarely within the category of "distribution of legislative powers" and requires State ratification. CORRECT. II. "Extent of the executive power of a State" is explicitly one of the listed matters (along with the extent of Union executive power) requiring State ratification. CORRECT. III. "Conditions of the Governor's office," unlike the President's office, is not among the entrenched provisions requiring State ratification - amendments relating to it can be passed by Parliament with a special majority alone, without needing ratification by State legislatures. INCORRECT.

Since ratification is required for I and II but not III, option A is correct.

Immunities under the Constitution of India Statement I: Correct. Article 361(1) provides that the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

Statement II: Correct. Article 361(2) provides that no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor (or the President) in any court during his/her term of office.

Statement III: Correct. Article 194(2) provides that no member of a State Legislature shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him/her in the House or its committees - a legislative privilege parallel to that enjoyed by Members of Parliament under Article 105(2).

Since all three statements correctly state constitutional immunities, option D is correct.

Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.

Revenue, Fiscal and Primary Deficit - A Worked Example Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts = ₹80,000 crores − ₹60,000 crores = ₹20,000 crores. This matches Statement I. CORRECT.

Fiscal Deficit represents the total borrowing requirement of the government. Since the budget shows total borrowings of ₹10,000 crores to bridge the gap between expenditure and non-borrowed receipts, the fiscal deficit equals this borrowing figure of ₹10,000 crores. This matches Statement II. CORRECT.

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments = ₹10,000 crores − ₹6,000 crores = ₹4,000 crores. This matches Statement III. CORRECT.

Since all three calculated figures (revenue deficit, fiscal deficit and primary deficit) match the values given in Statements I, II and III respectively, option D is correct.

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a 7,200 km multi-modal (ship, rail and road) transport network established in 2000 to link India with Central Asia and onward to Europe via Iran, Azerbaijan and Russia, bypassing the traditional but longer route through the Suez Canal. The corridor is intended to significantly cut transit time and cost for cargo movement between India and Eurasia, and forms part of India's broader "Connect Central Asia" and Chabahar port-linked "Look West" strategy.

The corridor's route runs through Iran (not via China, nor solely through Bangladesh-Myanmar, nor via Azerbaijan alone as a direct link to Europe) as the key transit point connecting Indian ports to Central Asia and further to Russia/Europe. Hence, option A is correct.

Global Ethanol Production: Brazil vs the United States Statement I: Incorrect. Of the world's two largest ethanol producers, the United States - not Brazil - produces significantly more ethanol, driven by its large-scale corn-based ethanol industry supported by federal blending mandates (such as the Renewable Fuel Standard). Brazil is the second-largest producer.

Statement II: Correct. The principal feedstock differs between the two countries: in the United States, ethanol is produced predominantly from corn (maize), whereas in Brazil it is produced predominantly from sugarcane, reflecting each country's respective agricultural strengths.

Since Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct, option D is the right answer.

Both statements are factually correct based on established knowledge and verified information. However, while both are true, the second statement does not necessarily explain or provide the reason for the first statement. They are independent facts rather than having a direct causal relationship.

Fiscal Deficit, Primary Deficit and the Gross Primary Deficit Gross Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crores (given). By definition, the Gross Primary Deficit is calculated as: Gross Primary Deficit = Gross Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments = ₹50,000 crores − ₹1,500 crores = ₹48,500 crores.

The ₹10,000 crores received through non-debt creating capital receipts is already factored into the calculation of the fiscal deficit itself (fiscal deficit = total expenditure − total receipts excluding borrowings, where non-debt capital receipts are part of "receipts excluding borrowings") and is not separately subtracted again when computing the primary deficit from the fiscal deficit - the primary deficit isolates the deficit exclusive of the burden of past interest liabilities.

Hence, the gross primary deficit is ₹48,500 crores, and option A is correct.

Key Recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission I. Correct. The 15th Finance Commission recommended sector-specific performance grants of ₹4,800 crore (₹1,200 crore per year) for the period 2022-23 to 2025-26 to incentivize States to improve educational outcomes.

II. Incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission recommended a vertical devolution of 41% (not 45%) of the net proceeds of Union taxes to the States for its award period (2021-26) - this was kept close to the 42% recommended by the 14th Finance Commission, adjusted down by about 1 percentage point to account for the changed status of Jammu & Kashmir into Union Territories.

III. Correct. The Commission earmarked a substantial performance-based incentive fund (around ₹45,000 crore) to reward States for carrying out agricultural reforms, among other sectoral reform-linked grants.

IV. Correct. The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced "tax effort" as one of the criteria (with an assigned weight) for horizontal devolution among States, rewarding States that demonstrate better fiscal/tax performance relative to their fiscal capacity.

Since I, III and IV are correct while II is not, option C is correct.

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) Statement I: Correct. The IBRD, the original and largest institution of the World Bank Group, provides loans, credits and guarantees primarily to creditworthy middle-income and certain lower-income countries.

Statement II: Incorrect. The IBRD does not work "single-handedly" - it operates as part of the broader World Bank Group alongside the International Development Association (IDA, which focuses on the poorest countries), the International Finance Corporation (IFC), and other affiliated bodies, working in coordination with governments, other multilateral institutions and civil society to reduce poverty.

Statement III: Correct. The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference with the original purpose of financing the reconstruction of Europe after the devastation of World War II, before later expanding its focus to development lending worldwide.

Since Statements I and III are correct while Statement II is not, option C is correct.

RTGS versus NEFT Statement I: Correct. Real Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) settles transactions individually and instantaneously as they are processed, whereas National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) settles transactions in half-hourly batches, meaning it takes comparatively longer for funds to reach the beneficiary.

Statement II: Incorrect. As per RBI directions, banks are not permitted to levy any charges on customers for inward transactions under either RTGS or NEFT - this restriction applies equally to both systems, not to only one of them.

Statement III: Incorrect. Since December 2020, both RTGS and NEFT have been made available round-the-clock, 24x7x365 (RTGS moved to 24x7 operations in December 2020, having earlier had restricted working hours) - so it is not true that RTGS has restricted operating hours on certain days while NEFT does not; both currently operate without such restrictions.

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is the right answer.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana Statement I: Correct. The scheme targets installing rooftop solar systems in one crore (10 million) households in the residential sector, providing up to 300 units of free electricity per month to participating households.

Statement II: Correct. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy, which implements the scheme, has a component focused on skilling - training personnel at the grassroots/local level in the installation, operation, maintenance and repair of rooftop solar systems to build local technical capacity.

Statement III: Correct. Under its capacity-building component, the scheme aims to create more than three lakh (300,000) skilled workers through fresh skilling and up-skilling initiatives to support the rooftop solar ecosystem.

Since all three statements are correct, option D is the right answer.

Gandhi's Salt Law Statement The oft-quoted remark, "Sedition has become my religion" (or similar expressions of open defiance and pride in courting arrest for breaking an unjust law) was made by Gandhiji in the context of his deliberate, public breaking of the colonial Salt Law at Dandi in 1930 - an act of civil disobedience that he undertook openly and unapologetically, framing the violation of an unjust law as both a moral and political duty rather than a crime, and thereby daring the government to prosecute him.

This statement is associated with the launch of the Civil Disobedience Movement following the Dandi March, distinguishing it from the Champaran Satyagraha (1917), the Second Round Table Conference (1931), or the much later Quit India Movement (1942). Hence, option B is correct.

The 'Dancing Girl' of Mohenjo-daro The celebrated "Dancing Girl" figurine, excavated from Mohenjo-daro (one of the major sites of the Indus Valley/Harappan Civilization), is a small bronze statuette made using the lost-wax (cire perdue) casting technique. It depicts a young female figure in a naturalistic pose with one hand on her hip and numerous bangles on her arm, and is widely regarded as evidence of the sophisticated metallurgical and artistic skills of the Harappans, particularly their mastery of bronze casting.

It is not made of carnelian, clay or gold - those materials are associated with other classes of Harappan artefacts (such as carnelian beads or terracotta figurines). Hence, option C is correct.

Legal Defence after the Chauri Chaura Incident Following the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922), in which a violent mob clash led to the deaths of policemen and prompted Gandhiji to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement, a large number of participants were arrested and put on trial. Madan Mohan Malaviya, the eminent nationalist leader and lawyer, along with Krishna Kant Malaviya, provided legal defence to those arrested in the aftermath of the incident, working to secure fair representation for the accused despite the prevailing repressive atmosphere.

The other options refer to leaders associated with different events/causes of the freedom movement and are not linked to the Chauri Chaura defence. Hence, option B is correct.

The Poona Pact and Gandhiji's Harijan Programme The Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (representing the Depressed Classes), reached after Gandhiji's fast unto death against the Communal Award's provision for separate electorates for the Depressed Classes. The Pact provided instead for reserved seats for Depressed Classes within the general electorate. In the aftermath of this episode, Gandhiji intensified his focus on the eradication of untouchability, founding the All India Anti-Untouchability League (later the Harijan Sevak Sangh) and formally incorporating the upliftment of "Harijans" into his broader political and social programme.

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, the Quit India arrests, and the Government of India Act, 1935 are related but distinct milestones not directly tied to this specific turn in his programme. Hence, option A is correct.

Three of the provided statements or items are factually correct or meet the specified criteria. Only one item contains an error or fails to satisfy the requirements. This represents a majority correctness among the options.

All four of the provided statements or items are factually correct and meet the specified criteria. Each item has been verified and represents accurate information related to the subject matter in question.

Time Difference across the International Date Line Statement I: Correct. Anadyr (in Chukotka, far eastern Siberia, Russia) and Nome (in Alaska, USA) lie only a short distance apart across the Bering Strait, but the International Date Line runs between them. As a result, despite their close geographical proximity, the two places can be on different calendar dates at the same moment - so when people in one town are waking up for breakfast, it may already be a different day in the other.

Statement II: Incorrect. Because the International Date Line causes areas immediately to its west (such as Russia/Anadyr) to be a day ahead of areas immediately to its east (such as Alaska/Nome), when it is Monday in Anadyr, it is actually Sunday - not Tuesday - in Nome (i.e., Nome is a day behind Anadyr, not a day ahead).

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is the right answer.

Founder of the Self-Respect Movement The Self-Respect Movement, launched in Tamil Nadu in 1925, was founded by Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker. The movement sought to challenge Brahmanical social hierarchy, promote rationalism, and secure equal rights, dignity and self-respect for the non-Brahmin and lower castes, and it later evolved into the broader Dravidian movement in Tamil politics.

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, Bhaskarrao Jadhav and Dinkarrao Javalkar were prominent figures in social reform and non-Brahmin/depressed classes movements in other regions (particularly Maharashtra) but were not the founders of the Self-Respect Movement. Hence, option A is correct.

All the given pairs are accurately matched according to verified information and established knowledge. Each pairing correctly associates the elements based on factual accuracy, historical records, or current data.

Among the given pairs, only one pairing is correctly matched based on factual accuracy. The other pairings fail to match due to historical inaccuracies, factual errors, or incorrect associations. Correct matching requires precise knowledge of the subject matter.

Both statements are correct, and the second statement provides the logical explanation for the first statement. The causal relationship establishes that Statement-II not only is true but also explains the mechanism or reason behind Statement-I being correct. This represents the highest level of coherence between related statements.

Indian Railways: National Rail Plan and the Kavach System I. Incorrect. The National Rail Plan (NRP) prepared by Indian Railways envisions creating a "future ready" railway system by the year 2030, not 2028.

II. Incorrect. 'Kavach' is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, designed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industry partners - it was not developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. Correct. The Kavach system uses a network of RFID tags installed along the track (including in station sections), along with trackside towers, onboard locomotive units and a Kavach-enabled signalling interface, to continuously determine train location/speed and automatically apply brakes to prevent collisions and signal-passing-at-danger incidents.

Since Statements I and II are not correct (while III is correct), option A ("I and II only") correctly identifies the statements that are NOT correct, as asked.

Exactly two of the provided statements or items are correct or meet the specified criteria. The remaining items contain inaccuracies, false information, or fail to satisfy the question's requirements. Careful verification is needed to identify the two correct elements.

Two of the given pairs are correctly matched according to established facts and verified information. The remaining pair(s) contain factual errors or incorrect associations. Accurate matching depends on precise knowledge of historical facts or current data.

Cloud Seeding for Artificial Rainfall Artificial rainfall (cloud seeding), sometimes used as a measure to help settle airborne pollutants and improve air quality, is typically induced by dispersing chemical agents such as silver iodide and potassium iodide into suitable clouds. These compounds act as ice nuclei (or condensation nuclei), around which water vapour in the clouds condenses and grows into droplets heavy enough to fall as rain, thereby washing particulate matter out of the atmosphere.

Other combinations involving silver nitrate or potassium nitrate/chloride are not the standard agents used for this purpose. Hence, option A is correct.

Pardoning Power of the President (Article 72) Statement I: Correct. The Supreme Court, notably in Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh (2006) and earlier judgments, has held that the exercise of the pardoning power under Article 72 (and the analogous power of Governors under Article 161) is not completely immune from judicial review - it can be reviewed on limited grounds such as mala fide exercise, arbitrariness, exercise on wholly extraneous or irrelevant considerations, or non-application of mind, even though courts do not sit in appeal over the merits of the decision itself.

Statement II: Incorrect. Like all other executive functions, the President exercises the pardoning power on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 74 - the President cannot exercise this power independently of the Central Government's advice.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is not, option A is the right answer.

The Office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha Statement I: Correct. Under the proviso to Article 94, upon dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately - he/she continues to hold office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House.

Statement II: Incorrect. There is no constitutional requirement under Article 94 (or elsewhere) mandating that a Member elected as Speaker must resign from his/her political party immediately upon election. While it is a long-standing convention/expectation in many parliamentary democracies (including a past recommendation in India that the Speaker act with strict impartiality), the Indian Constitution imposes no such binding requirement to formally resign party membership.

Statement III: Correct. Under Article 94, the Speaker may be removed by a resolution of the House passed by a majority of all the then members of the House, and no such resolution can be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move it.

Since Statements I and III are correct while Statement II is not, option C is correct.

Anti-Defection Provisions and Use of the Term 'Political Party' Statement I: Incorrect. Under paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, if a question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification on grounds of defection, the decision on that question is to be made by the Chairman/Speaker of that House, not by the President acting on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Statement II: Incorrect. The term 'political party' is, in fact, expressly used and defined in the Tenth Schedule (inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985), which deals with disqualification on grounds of defection - so it is not accurate to say the Constitution makes no mention of the term at all.

Since neither statement is correct, option D is the right answer.

Regulation of Minor Minerals in India Statement I: Incorrect. Under Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, State Governments are empowered to make rules for regulating the grant of mining leases/concessions and other related matters in respect of minor minerals located within their territories - so State Governments do have this rule-making power, contrary to the statement.

Statement II: Correct. Under Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act, the Central Government has the power to declare, by notification, which minerals shall be classified as "minor minerals" - i.e., the classification power rests with the Centre, even though the regulatory/rule-making power over their extraction largely rests with the States.

Since Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct, option D is the right answer.

The European Union's Nature Restoration Law The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was enacted by the European Union in 2024 as a landmark piece of legislation to restore at least 20% of the EU's degraded land and sea ecosystems by 2030 (and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050), with binding targets for member states covering forests, wetlands, rivers, grasslands, marine ecosystems and urban green spaces, as part of the EU's broader strategy to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss under the European Green Deal.

The World Bank, the OECD and the FAO are international bodies engaged in related work but were not the enacting authority for this law. Hence, option A is correct.

Panchayats at the Intermediate Level Statement I: Incorrect. Under Article 243B, a State having a population not exceeding twenty lakh is not required to constitute a Panchayat at the intermediate level - so intermediate-level Panchayats do not necessarily exist in all States.

Statement II: Incorrect. Under Article 243C read with related provisions, the minimum age to be eligible for election as a member of a Panchayat at any level (including the intermediate level) is 21 years, not 30 years.

Statement III: Incorrect. Under Article 243-I, it is the Governor of a State (not the Chief Minister) who is required to constitute a Finance Commission at the expiration of every five years to review the financial position of the Panchayats and make recommendations on the distribution of tax proceeds between the State and the Panchayats.

Since all three statements are incorrect (i.e., all are "not correct" as the question asks), option D is the right answer.

BIMSTEC: Membership, Origins and Sectoral Leadership Statement I: Correct. As of January 2025, BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) comprises seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.

Statement II: Incorrect. BIMSTEC was established through the Bangkok Declaration, signed on 6 June 1997 - not through a "Dhaka Declaration" of 1999.

Statement III: Incorrect. The founding members in 1997 were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand (initially as "BIST-EC"), with Myanmar joining later the same year (renaming it "BIMST-EC"); Nepal is not one of the founding members - it joined in 2004, along with Bhutan.

Statement IV: Incorrect. Following the reorganisation of BIMSTEC's sectors, the sub-sector of 'Tourism' (under the broader "People-to-People Contact" pillar) is led by Nepal, not India; India leads other sectors such as Security (Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime), Transport and Communication, and Environment and Climate Change.

Since only Statement I is correct, option D ("I only") is the right answer.

Jury for the Gandhi Peace Prize The Gandhi Peace Prize, instituted by the Government of India in 1995, is awarded on the recommendation of a Jury. This Jury is chaired by the Prime Minister of India and also includes the Chief Justice of India (or a nominee Supreme Court judge) and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the single largest opposition party), along with other eminent members as decided from time to time. The President of India is not a member of this Jury.

Since Statements II (Prime Minister), III (Chief Justice of India) and IV (Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha) correctly describe jury membership while Statement I (President of India) does not, option C is correct.

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) Statement I: Correct. GAGAN, a Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS) jointly developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India, is designed to provide additional positional accuracy and signal integrity over the Indian region compared to standalone GPS.

Statement II: Correct. By enhancing accuracy and reliability, GAGAN enables more uniform, high-quality air traffic management across Indian airspace, including improved approach and landing procedures at airports.

Statement III: Incorrect. GAGAN's benefits are not confined to aviation alone - its augmented positioning signals are also valuable for applications in other sectors such as agriculture (precision farming), surveying, marine/maritime navigation, and road/highway transportation.

Since Statements I and II are correct while Statement III is not, option D is correct.

AI Action Summit, Paris (February 2025) Statement I: Correct. The AI Action Summit held at the Grand Palais, Paris, in February 2025 was co-chaired by France and India, and was positioned as building upon the momentum of the earlier AI Safety Summit at Bletchley Park, UK (2023) and the AI Seoul Summit, South Korea (2024).

Statement II: Incorrect. At the conclusion of the Paris summit, a joint declaration on "inclusive and sustainable" AI was signed by a large number of countries, but the United States and the United Kingdom notably declined to sign it, citing concerns over regulatory overreach and national security considerations respectively.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is not, option A is the right answer.

All the given pairs are accurately matched according to verified information and established knowledge. Each pairing correctly associates the elements based on factual accuracy, historical records, or current data.

The 16th BRICS Summit, Kazan Statement I: Correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was held in October 2024 in Kazan, Russia, under Russia's Chairship for that year.

Statement II: Correct. Indonesia officially became a full member of BRICS (joining the expanded bloc that had earlier admitted new members effective January 2024), with its accession being confirmed around and after the Kazan Summit.

Statement III: Incorrect. The official theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was "Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security" - the word in the statement, "Multiculturalism," is a factual alteration of the actual theme, "Multilateralism."

Since Statements I and II are correct while Statement III is not, option A is correct.

Key Provisions relating to the Lokpal I. Incorrect. Under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to public servants of India generally, and this is not limited to those serving only within India - it also covers Indian public servants posted outside India in connection with the affairs of the Union.

II. Incorrect. While it is true that the Chairperson or a Member of the Lokpal cannot be a sitting Member of Parliament or of a State/UT Legislature, the law does not mandate that only the Chief Justice of India (incumbent or retired) can be its Chairperson - the Chairperson may be either a former Chief Justice of India, a former Judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person fulfilling specified eligibility criteria.

III. Correct. As per the eligibility criteria under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Chairperson or a Member must not be less than 45 years of age on the date of assuming office.

IV. Incorrect. The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 does empower the Lokpal to inquire into allegations of corruption against the Prime Minister, subject to certain safeguards and exclusions (e.g., matters relating to international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space are excluded, and a higher threshold of Bench composition and in-camera proceedings applies) - it is not the case that the Lokpal is barred outright from examining a sitting Prime Minister.

Since only Statement III is correct, option A ("III only") is the right answer.

The First Kho Kho World Cup (2025) Statement I: Correct. The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India, in January 2025, featuring both men's and women's categories with multiple participating nations.

Statement II: Incorrect. In the men's final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 54-36 (not 78-40) to become the World Champion.

Statement III: Incorrect. In the women's final, India defeated Nepal with a score of 78-40 (not 54-36) to become the World Champion. (The scores for the men's and women's finals given in the question have been swapped.)

Since only Statement I is correct, option A is the right answer.

Chess Achievements: Gukesh Dommaraju and Abhimanyu Mishra Statement I: Incorrect. This statement conflates two different events. D. Gukesh became the youngest-ever undisputed World Chess Champion in December 2024 by defeating China's Ding Liren in the World Chess Championship match - not the Chess Olympiad (which is a biennial team event) - and his opponent was Ding Liren, not the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

Statement II: Correct. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record for becoming the youngest-ever Grandmaster in chess history, achieving the title at the age of 12 years, 4 months and 25 days in 2021, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.

Since only Statement II is correct, option B is the right answer.